Apologies for what might be a basic misunderstanding on my part, but I didn't quite follow the "Binning" approach that was discussed during the 2020-07-17 call. I got a little lost on what the point was.
Were the "better" results just exemplifying that the means of multiple random samples of a population will always follow a normal distribution, even when the underlying population may not be?
Apologies for what might be a basic misunderstanding on my part, but I didn't quite follow the "Binning" approach that was discussed during the 2020-07-17 call. I got a little lost on what the point was.
Were the "better" results just exemplifying that the means of multiple random samples of a population will always follow a normal distribution, even when the underlying population may not be?