In my specific meta-analysis situation, since not all studies report variances for each effect sizes, I calculate weights using the formula proposed by Adams et al. (1997) (wi= Ne*Nc/Ne+Nc)

So, if variance of effects sizes variances is required (as reported below in the pciture), is it correct to use the inverse of the weights?
In my specific meta-analysis situation, since not all studies report variances for each effect sizes, I calculate weights using the formula proposed by Adams et al. (1997) (wi= Ne*Nc/Ne+Nc)

So, if variance of effects sizes variances is required (as reported below in the pciture), is it correct to use the inverse of the weights?