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@@ -100,14 +108,15 @@ $$\mathbb P(A) = \frac{|A|}{|\Omega|} = \frac{\text{number of outcomes in } A}{\
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To determine $|A|$ and $|\Omega|$, we often use combinatorial methods:
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***Multiplication Rule:** If an experiment has $k$ steps with $n_1, n_2, \dots, n_k$ choices respectively, the total number of outcomes is $n_1 \times n_2 \times \dots \times n_k$.
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***Permutations:** Ordering $k$ distinct items from a set of $n$.
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-**Multiplication Rule:** If an experiment has $k$ steps with $n_1, n_2, \dots, n_k$ choices respectively, the total number of outcomes is $n_1 \times n_2 \times \dots \times n_k$.
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-**Permutations:** Ordering $k$ distinct items from a set of $n$.
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$$P(n, k) = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!}$$
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***Combinations:** Choosing $k$ items from a set of $n$ without regard to order.
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-**Combinations:** Choosing $k$ items from a set of $n$ without regard to order.
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$$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$$
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**Example:**
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What is the probability of drawing a King from a standard deck?
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- $|\Omega| = 52$
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- $|A| = 4$ (King of Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, Spades)
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- $\mathbb P(A) = \frac{4}{52} = \frac{1}{13}$
@@ -116,5 +125,5 @@ What is the probability of drawing a King from a standard deck?
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## References
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1.Rice, J. A. (2007). *Mathematical Statistics and Data Analysis* (3rd ed.). Thomson Brooks/Cole.
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2.Han, Y. (2026). Lecture 1: Sample space & probability.
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1. Rice, J. A. (2007). *Mathematical Statistics and Data Analysis* (3rd ed.). Thomson Brooks/Cole.
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2. Han, Y. (2026). Lecture 1: Sample space & probability.
where $x, y$ are expressed in terms of $u, v$, and $J$ is the Jacobian of the transformation $(u,v) \to (x,y)$ (or inverse of the transformation $(x,y) \to (u,v)$).
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Specifically, if we compute the Jacobian of the transformation **from $(x, y)$ to $(u, v)$**:
$$E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x \cdot f(x) \, dx$$
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(Provided $\int |x|f(x) \,dx < \infty$).
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$$\E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x \cdot f(x) dx$$
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(Provided $\int |x|f(x) dx < \infty$).
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**Interpretation:** $E[X]$ represents the long-run average. By the Law of Large Numbers, if $X_1, \dots, X_n$ are i.i.d. copies of $X$, then $\frac{1}{n}\sum X_i \to E[X]$.
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**Interpretation:** $\E[X]$ represents the long-run average. By the Law of Large Numbers, if $X_1, \dots, X_n$ are i.i.d. copies of $X$, then $\frac{1}{n}\sum X_i \to \E[X]$.
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### 2.2 Examples
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1.**Bernoulli:** $X \sim \text{Bern}(p)$.
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$$E[X] = 1 \cdot p + 0 \cdot (1-p) = p$$
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2.**Binomial:** $X \sim B(n, p)$.
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$$E[X] = \sum_{k=0}^n k \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} = np$$
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*Derivation hint:* Factor out $n$ and $p$, and re-index the sum to look like a Binomial $(n-1, p)$ sum which equals 1.
$$\E[X] = \sum_{k=0}^n k \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} = np$$
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> Since the first term of the sum is $0$ (when $k=0$), we can start the summation from $k=1$. Let $m = n-1$ and $j = k-1$. As $k$ goes from $1$ to $n$, $j$ goes from $0$ to $m$. Note that $n-k = (m+1) - (j+1) = m-j$.
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> $$
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> \begin{align*}
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> \E[X] &= \sum_{k=1}^n k \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} \\\\
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