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May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law (e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment).\r\n\r\nConfidentiality code total order hierarchy: Restricted (R) is less protective than *V*, and subsumes all other protection levels (i.e., *N, M, L, and U*).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\nIncludes information that is additionally protected such as sensitive conditions mental health, HIV, substance abuse, domestic violence, child abuse, genetic disease, and reproductive health; or sensitive demographic information such as a patient's standing as an employee or a celebrity. May be used to indicate proprietary or classified information that is not related to an individual (e.g., secret ingredients in a therapeutic substance; or the name of a manufacturer).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10232"}]},{"code":"U","display":"unrestricted","definition":"Privacy metadata indicating that no level of protection is required to safeguard personal and healthcare information that has been disclosed by an authorized individual without restrictions on its use.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Includes publicly available information e.g., business name, phone, email and physical address.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The authorization to collect, access, use, and disclose this information may be stipulated in a contract of adhesion by a data user (e.g., via terms of service or data user privacy policies) in exchange for the data subject's use of a service.\r\n\r\nThis metadata indicates that the receiver has no obligation to consider privacy policies other than its own when making access control decisions.\r\n\r\nThis metadata indicates that the receiver has no obligation to consider privacy policies other than its own when making access control decisions.\r\n\r\nConfidentiality code total order hierarchy: Unrestricted (U) is less protective than *V, R, N, M,* and *L*, and is the lowest protection levels.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23321"}]},{"code":"V","display":"very restricted","definition":"Privacy metadata indicating the level of protection required under atypical cicumstances to safeguard potentially damaging or harmful information, which if disclosed without authorization, would (1) present an extremely high risk of harm to an individual's reputation, sense of privacy, and possibly safety; or (2) impact an individual's or organization's legal matters.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The level of protection afforded very restricted confidential information is dictated by specially protective privacy or legal policies intended to ensure that under atypical circumstances additional protections limit access to only those with a high 'need to know' and the information is kept in highest confidence..\r\n\r\nPrivacy and legal policies mandating the highest level of protection by stringently restricting information access, preempt less protective privacy policies when the information is used in the delivery and management of healthcare including legal proceedings related to healthcare. May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law (e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment but only under limited circumstances).\r\n\r\nConfidentiality code total order hierarchy: Very Restricted (V) is the highest protection level and subsumes all other protection levels s (i.e., *R, N, M, L, and UI*).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\nIncludes information about a victim of abuse, patient requested information sensitivity, and taboo subjects relating to health status that must be discussed with the patient by an attending provider before sharing with the patient. May also include information held under a legal hold or attorney-client privilege.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14799"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByAccessKind","display":"ConfidentialityByAccessKind","definition":"**Description:** By accessing subject / role and relationship based rights (These concepts are mutually exclusive, one and only one is required for a valid confidentiality coding.)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21049"}],"concept":[{"code":"B","display":"business","definition":"**Description:** Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality. However, no patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:* Replced by ActCode.B","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10235"}]},{"code":"D","display":"clinician","definition":"**Description:** Only clinicians may see this item, billing and administration persons can not access this item without special permission.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10231"}]},{"code":"I","display":"individual","definition":"**Description:** Access only to individual persons who are mentioned explicitly as actors of this service and whose actor type warrants that access (cf. to actor type code).\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10233"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByInfoType","display":"ConfidentialityByInfoType","definition":"**Description:** By information type, only for service catalog entries (multiples allowed). Not to be used with actual patient data!\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21050"}],"concept":[{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse related","definition":"**Description:** Alcohol/drug-abuse related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.ETH","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10243"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV related","definition":"**Description:** HIV and AIDS related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.HIV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10241"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry relate","definition":"**Description:** Psychiatry related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.PSY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10242"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual and domestic violence related","definition":"**Description:** Sexual assault / domestic violence related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.SDV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10244"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityModifiers","display":"ConfidentialityModifiers","definition":"**Description:** Modifiers of role based access rights (multiple allowed)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21051"}],"concept":[{"code":"C","display":"celebrity","definition":"**Description:** Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) including employees, whose information require special protection.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.CEL","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10239"}]},{"code":"S","display":"sensitive","definition":"**Description:** \r\n\r\nInformation for which the patient seeks heightened confidentiality. Sensitive information is not to be shared with family members. Information reported by the patient about family members is sensitive by default. Flag can be set or cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10237"}]},{"code":"T","display":"taboo","definition":"**Description:** Information not to be disclosed or discussed with patient except through physician assigned to patient in this case. This is usually a temporary constraint only, example use is a new fatal diagnosis or finding, such as malignancy or HIV.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Note:*Replced by ActCode.TBOO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10238"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20428"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","title":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an \"employee\" sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. \"Taboo\" would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly.\r\n\r\nSensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable Sensitivity Act.code may be useful in some scenarious if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActCode","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.4"}],"version":"9.0.0","name":"ActCode","title":"ActCode","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2023-05-30","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A code specifying the particular kind of Act that the Act-instance represents within its class.\r\n\r\n*Constraints:* The kind of Act (e.g. physical examination, serum potassium, inpatient encounter, charge financial transaction, etc.) is specified with a code from one of several, typically external, coding systems. The coding system will depend on the class of Act, such as LOINC for observations, etc.\r\n\r\nConceptually, the Act.code must be a specialization of the Act.classCode. This is why the structure of ActClass domain should be reflected in the superstructure of the ActCode domain and then individual codes or externally referenced vocabularies subordinated under these domains that reflect the ActClass structure.\r\n\r\nAct.classCode and Act.code are not modifiers of each other but the Act.code concept should really imply the Act.classCode concept. For a negative example, it is not appropriate to use an Act.code \"potassium\" together with and Act.classCode for \"laboratory observation\" to somehow mean \"potassium laboratory observation\" and then use the same Act.code for \"potassium\" together with Act.classCode for \"medication\" to mean \"substitution of potassium\". This mutually modifying use of Act.code and Act.classCode is not permitted.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"extension":[{"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/StructureDefinition/ext-mif-relationship-relationshipKind","valueCode":"Specializes"}],"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#rim-ClassifiesClassCode","description":"The child code is a classification of the particular class group identified by the 'classCode' in a RIM class as the parent code. Used only in RIM backbone classes to link the code and classCode values.","type":"Coding"},{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"A property that indicates the status of the concept. One of active, experimental, deprecated, or retired.","type":"code"},{"code":"deprecationDate","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#deprecationDate","description":"The date at which a concept was deprecated. Concepts that are deprecated but not inactive can still be used, but their use is discouraged.","type":"dateTime"},{"code":"notSelectable","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#notSelectable","description":"Indicates that the code is abstract - only intended to be used as a selector for other concepts","type":"boolean"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#HL7usageNotes","description":"HL7 Concept Usage Notes","type":"string"},{"code":"synonymCode","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#synonym","description":"An additional concept code that was also attributed to a concept","type":"code"},{"code":"subsumedBy","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#parent","description":"The concept code of a parent concept","type":"code"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ActAccountCode","display":"ActAccountCode","definition":"An account represents a grouping of financial transactions that are tracked and reported together with a single balance. Examples of account codes (types) are Patient billing accounts (collection of charges), Cost centers; Cash.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20849"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20850"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","display":"ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","definition":"Actions to be carried out by the recipient of the Adjudication Result information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20853"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableModifierCode","display":"ActBillableModifierCode","definition":"**Definition:**An identifying modifier code for healthcare interventions or procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21993"}]},{"code":"_ActBillingArrangementCode","display":"ActBillingArrangementCode","definition":"The type of provision(s) made for reimbursing for the deliver of healthcare services and/or goods provided by a Provider, over a specified period.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20857"}]},{"code":"_ActBoundedROICode","display":"ActBoundedROICode","definition":"Type of bounded ROI.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ROIBND"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20858"}]},{"code":"_ActCareProvisionCode","display":"act care provision","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21825"}]},{"code":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","display":"ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","definition":"**Description:** Coded types of attachments included to support a healthcare claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CATEGORY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23004"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentType","display":"ActConsentType","definition":"**Definition:** The type of consent directive, e.g., to consent or dissent to collect, access, or use in specific ways within an EHRS or for health information exchange; or to disclose health information for purposes such as research.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22199"}]},{"code":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode","display":"ActContainerRegistrationCode","definition":"Constrains the ActCode to the domain of Container Registration","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONTREG"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20860"}]},{"code":"_ActControlVariable","display":"ActControlVariable","definition":"An observation form that determines parameters or attributes of an Act. Examples are the settings of a ventilator machine as parameters of a ventilator treatment act; the controls on dillution factors of a chemical analyzer as a parameter of a laboratory observation act; the settings of a physiologic measurement assembly (e.g., time skew) or the position of the body while measuring blood pressure.\r\n\r\nControl variables are forms of observations because just as with clinical observations, the Observation.code determines the parameter and the Observation.value assigns the value. While control variables sometimes can be observed (by noting the control settings or an actually measured feedback loop) they are not primary observations, in the sense that a control variable without a primary act is of no use (e.g., it makes no sense to record a blood pressure position without recording a blood pressure, whereas it does make sense to record a systolic blood pressure without a diastolic blood pressure).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20861"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageConfirmationCode","definition":"Response to an insurance coverage eligibility query or authorization request.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20863"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLimitCode","display":"ActCoverageLimitCode","definition":"Criteria that are applicable to the authorized coverage.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20865"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageTypeCode","display":"ActCoverageTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy or program that pays for the cost of benefits provided to covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22096"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20867"}]},{"code":"_ActExposureCode","display":"ActExposureCode","definition":"Concepts that identify the type or nature of exposure interaction. Examples include \"household\", \"care giver\", \"intimate partner\", \"common space\", \"common substance\", etc. to further describe the nature of interaction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"EXPOS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22353"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode","display":"ActFinancialTransactionCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20872"}]},{"code":"_ActIncidentCode","display":"ActIncidentCode","definition":"Set of codes indicating the type of incident or accident.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20873"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessCode","display":"ActInformationAccessCode","definition":"**Description:** The type of health information to which the subject of the information or the subject's delegate consents or dissents.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22244"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode","display":"ActInformationAccessContextCode","definition":"Concepts conveying the context in which authorization given under jurisdictional law, by organizational policy, or by a patient consent directive permits the collection, access, use or disclosure of specified patient health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22332"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationCategoryCode","display":"ActInformationCategoryCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates the set of information types which may be manipulated or referenced, such as for recommending access restrictions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"DOC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22386"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20888"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","definition":"Identifies the different types of summary information that can be reported by queries dealing with Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The summary information is generally used to help resolve balance discrepancies between providers and payors.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20889"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode","display":"ActInvoiceOverrideCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20892"}]},{"code":"_ActListCode","display":"ActListCode","definition":"Provides codes associated with ActClass value of LIST (working list)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20895"}]},{"code":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode","display":"ActMonitoringProtocolCode","definition":"Identifies types of monitoring programs","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"MPROT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20897"}]},{"code":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode","display":"ActNonObservationIndicationCode","definition":"**Description:**Concepts representing indications (reasons for clinical action) other than diagnosis and symptoms.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22387"}]},{"code":"_ActObservationVerificationType","display":"act observation verification","definition":"Identifies the type of verification investigation being undertaken with respect to the subject of the verification activity.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n1. Verification of eligibility for coverage under a policy or program - aka enrolled/covered by a policy or program\r\n2. Verification of record - e.g., person has record in an immunization registry\r\n3. Verification of enumeration - e.g. NPI\r\n4. Verification of Board Certification - provider specific\r\n5. Verification of Certification - e.g. JAHCO, NCQA, URAC\r\n6. Verification of Conformance - e.g. entity use with HIPAA, conformant to the CCHIT EHR system criteria\r\n7. Verification of Provider Credentials\r\n8. Verification of no adverse findings - e.g. on National Provider Data Bank, Health Integrity Protection Data Base (HIPDB)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"VERIF"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21907"}]},{"code":"_ActPaymentCode","display":"ActPaymentCode","definition":"Code identifying the method or the movement of payment instructions.\r\n\r\nCodes are drawn from X12 data element 591 (PaymentMethodCode)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20900"}]},{"code":"_ActPharmacySupplyType","display":"ActPharmacySupplyType","definition":"Identifies types of dispensing events","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20901"}]},{"code":"_ActPolicyType","display":"ActPolicyType","definition":"A mandate, regulation, obligation, principle, requirement, rule, or expectation of how an entity is to conduct itself or execute an activity, which may be dictated and enforced by an authority of competent jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"POLICY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22182"}]},{"code":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode","display":"ActProductAcquisitionCode","definition":"The method that a product is obtained for use by the subject of the supply act (e.g. patient). Product examples are consumable or durable goods.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20903"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode","display":"ActSpecimenTransportCode","definition":"Transportation of a specimen.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22388"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","display":"ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","definition":"Set of codes related to specimen treatments","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCTRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20905"}]},{"code":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","display":"ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","definition":"**Description:** Describes the type of substance administration being performed. This should not be used to carry codes for identification of products. Use an associated role or entity to carry such information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SBADM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21517"}]},{"code":"_ActTaskCode","display":"ActTaskCode","definition":"**Description:** A task or action that a user may perform in a clinical information system (e.g., medication order entry, laboratory test results review, problem list entry).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22047"}]},{"code":"_ActTransportationModeCode","display":"ActTransportationModeCode","definition":"Characterizes how a transportation act was or will be carried out.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via private transport, via public transit, via courier.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21545"}]},{"code":"_ObservationType","display":"ObservationType","definition":"Identifies the kinds of observations that can be performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20930"}]},{"code":"_ROIOverlayShape","display":"ROIOverlayShape","definition":"Shape of the region on the object being referenced","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20931"}]},{"code":"C","display":"corrected","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that result data has been corrected.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22831"}]},{"code":"DIET","display":"Diet","definition":"Code set to define specialized/allowed diets","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10376"}]},{"code":"DRUGPRG","display":"drug program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for prescription drugs to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22132"}]},{"code":"F","display":"final","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is complete. No further results are to come. This maps to the 'complete' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22830"}]},{"code":"PRLMN","display":"preliminary","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is incomplete. There are further results to come. This maps to the 'active' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22829"}]},{"code":"SECOBS","display":"SecurityObservationType","definition":"An observation identifying security metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security metadata are used to name security labels.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* According to ISO/TS 22600-3:2009(E) A.9.1.7 SECURITY LABEL MATCHING, Security label matching compares the initiator's clearance to the target's security label. All of the following must be true for authorization to be granted:\r\n\r\n * The security policy identifiers shall be identical\r\n * The classification level of the initiator shall be greater than or equal to that of the target (that is, there shall be at least one value in the classification list of the clearance greater than or equal to the classification of the target), and\r\n * For each security category in the target label, there shall be a security category of the same type in the initiator's clearance and the initiator's classification level shall dominate that of the target.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** SecurityObservationType security label fields include:\r\n\r\n * Confidentiality classification\r\n * Compartment category\r\n * Sensitivity category\r\n * Security mechanisms used to ensure data integrity or to perform authorized data transformation\r\n * Indicators of an IT resource completeness, veracity, reliability, trustworthiness, or provenance.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* SecurityObservationType codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23471"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDFFS","display":"subsidized fee for service program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage on a fee for service basis for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized fee for service program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22138"}]},{"code":"WRKCOMP","display":"(workers compensation program","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22146"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationInformationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationInformationCode","definition":"Explanatory codes that provide information derived by an Adjudicator during the course of adjudicating an invoice.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain are purely informational and do not materially affect the adjudicated invoice. That is, these codes do not impact or explain financial adjustments to an invoice. A companion domain (ActAdjudicationReasonCode) includes reasons which have a financial impact on an Invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication information code is 54540 - Patient has reached Plan Maximum for current year.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20852"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","display":"ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20856"}]},{"code":"_ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","display":"ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","definition":"Denotes the specific service that has been performed. This is obtained from the professional service catalog pertaining to the discipline of the health service provider. Professional services are generally cognitive in nature and exclude surgical procedures. E.g. Provided training, Provided drug therapy review, Gave smoking-cessation counseling, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21511"}]},{"code":"_ActIdentityDocumentCode","display":"ActIdentityDocumentCode","definition":"Code identifying the type of identification document (e.g. passport, drivers license)\r\n\r\n**Implementation Note:**The proposal called for a domain, but a code was also provided. When codes are available for the value set the code IDENTDOC (identity document) will be used as the headcode for the specializable value set.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22267"}]},{"code":"_ActOrderCode","display":"ActOrderCode","definition":"The type of order that was fulfilled by the clinical service","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20899"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorization","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorization","definition":"An Act which characterizes a Privilege can have additional observations to provide a finer definition of the requested or conferred privilege. This domain describes the categories under which this additional information is classified.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21535"}]},{"code":"_ActProcedureCode","display":"ActProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying code for healthcare interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20902"}]},{"code":"_ActRegistryCode","display":"ActRegistryCode","definition":"This is the domain of registry types. Examples include Master Patient Registry, Staff Registry, Employee Registry, Tumor Registry.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20904"}]},{"code":"_ActSecurityObjectCode","display":"ActSecurityObjectCode","definition":"**Description:**An access control object used to manage permissions and capabilities of users within information systems. (See HL7 RBAC specification fo examples of thes objects.)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22641"}]},{"code":"_AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","display":"AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","definition":"**Description:**\r\n\r\nRepresents types of consent that patient must sign prior to receipt of service, which is required for billing purposes.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * Advanced beneficiary medically necessity notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary agreement to pay notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary requests payer billed.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22095"}]},{"code":"_CPT4","display":"CPT4","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22176"}]},{"code":"_ExternallyDefinedActCodes","display":"ExternallyDefinedActCodes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20919"}]},{"code":"_HL7DefinedActCodes","display":"HL7DefinedActCodes","definition":"Domain provides the root for HL7-defined detailed or rich codes for the Act classes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20921"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","definition":"**Description:** Includes those concepts that are provided to justify the fact that an adverse event or product problem is required to be reported in an expedited fashion.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22078"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","definition":"**Description:** Includes relevant pieces of information about a product or its process of creation. The vocabulary domain is used to characterize products when they are cited in adverse event or product problem reports.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Weight, color, dimensions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22079"}]},{"code":"_ObservationActAgeGroupType","display":"ObservationActAgeGroupType","definition":"**Description:**To allow queries to specify useful information about the age of the patient without disclosing possible protected health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22046"}]},{"code":"COPAY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17501"}]},{"code":"DEDUCT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17500"}]},{"code":"DOSEIND","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17793"}]},{"code":"PRA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16675"}]},{"code":"STORE","display":"Storage","definition":"The act of putting something away for safe keeping. The \"something\" may be physical object such as a specimen, or information, such as observations regarding a specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21456"}]},{"code":"ACCTRECEIVABLE","display":"account receivable","definition":"An account for collecting charges, reversals, adjustments and payments, including deductibles, copayments, coinsurance (financial transactions) credited or debited to the account receivable account for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21361"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CASH","display":"Cash","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CC","display":"credit card","definition":"**Description:** Types of advance payment to be made on a plastic card usually issued by a financial institution used of purchasing services and/or products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"PBILLACCT","display":"patient billing account","definition":"An account representing charges and credits (financial transactions) for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21301"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_CreditCard","display":"CreditCard","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode","display":"ActAdjudicationGroupCode","definition":"Catagorization of grouping criteria for the associated transactions and/or summary (totals, subtotals).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20851"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AA","display":"adjudicated with adjustments","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges).\r\n\r\nAlso includes the concept 'Adjudicate as zero' and items not covered under a particular Policy.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AR","display":"adjudicated as refused","definition":"The invoice element has passed through the adjudication process but payment is refused due to one or more reasons.\r\n\r\nIncludes items such as patient not covered, or invoice element is not constructed according to payer rules (e.g. 'invoice submitted too late').\r\n\r\nIf one invoice element line item in the invoice element structure is rejected, the remaining line items may not be adjudicated and the complete group is treated as rejected.\r\n\r\nA refused invoice element can be forwarded to the next payer (for Coordination of Benefits) or modified and resubmitted to refusing payer.\r\n\r\nInvoice element cannot be reversed (nullified) as there is nothing to reverse.\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is not saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AS","display":"adjudicated as submitted","definition":"The invoice element was/will be paid exactly as submitted, without financial adjustment(s).\r\n\r\nIf the dollar amount stays the same, but the billing codes have been amended or financial adjustments have been applied through the adjudication process, the invoice element is treated as \"Adjudicated with Adjustment\".\r\n\r\nIf information items are included in the adjudication results that do not affect the monetary amounts paid, then this is still Adjudicated as Submitted (e.g. 'reached Plan Maximum on this Claim').\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"CONT","display":"contract","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Contract Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17974"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DAY","display":"day","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar day within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17969"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"LOC","display":"location","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by service location (e.g clinic).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17976"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"MONTH","display":"month","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar month within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17970"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PERIOD","display":"period","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17971"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PROV","display":"provider","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Provider Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17975"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"WEEK","display":"week","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar week within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17972"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"YEAR","display":"year","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar year within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17973"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DISPLAY","display":"Display","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be displayed to the receiver of the adjudication result.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"FORM","display":"Print on Form","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be printed on the specified form, which is then provided to the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"NAT","display":"Insufficient authorization","definition":"The requesting party has insufficient authorization to invoke the interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"SUPPRESSED","display":"record suppressed","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have been suppressed due to consent or privacy restrictions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23274"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"VALIDAT","display":"validation issue","definition":"**Description:**The specified element did not pass business-rule validation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode","display":"Authorization Issue Management Code","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"KEY204","display":"Unknown key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., was not found. Used for transactions other than additions, e.g. transfer of a non-existent patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY205","display":"Duplicate key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., already exists. Used in response to addition transactions (Admit, New Order, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY206","display":"non-matching identification","definition":"**Description:** Metadata associated with the identification (e.g. name or gender) does not match the identification being verified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23272"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSOLETE","display":"obsolete record returned","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have a status of 'obsolete'.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23275"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"CPTM","display":"CPT modifier codes","definition":"**Description:**CPT modifier codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22151"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"HCPCSA","display":"HCPCS Level II and Carrier-assigned","definition":"**Description:**HCPCS Level II (HCFA-assigned) and Carrier-assigned (Level III) modifiers are reported in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition and in the Medicare Bulletin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable medical services, as opposed to codes for similar services to identify them for clinical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22219"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"_ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services that are not medical procedures, such as social services or governmental program services.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Building a wheelchair ramp, help with groceries, giving someone a ride, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22220"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"BLK","display":"block funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a prescribed group (volume) of services to a single patient which occur over a period of time. Services included in the block may vary.\r\n\r\nThis billing arrangement is also known as Program of Care for some specific Payors and Program Fees for other Payors.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CAP","display":"capitation funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where the payment made to a Provider is determined by analyzing one or more demographic attributes about the persons/patients who are enrolled with the Provider (in their practice).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17484"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CONTF","display":"contract funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a particular volume of one or more interventions/procedures or groups of interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FINBILL","display":"financial","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges for non-clinical items. This includes interest in arrears, mileage, etc. Clinical content is not included in Invoices submitted with this type of billing arrangement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19723"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"ROST","display":"roster funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where funding is based on a list of individuals registered as patients of the Provider.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"SESS","display":"sessional funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a sum to provide a group (volume) of interventions/procedures to one or more patients within a defined period of time, typically on the same date. Interventions/procedures included in the session may vary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17483"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FFS","display":"fee for service","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a separate fee for each intervention/procedure/event or product.\r\n\r\nFee for Service is used when an individual intervention/procedure/event is used for billing purposes. In other words, fees are associated with the intervention/procedure/event. For example, a specific CCI (Canadian Classification of Interventions) code has an associated fee and is used for billing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"ROIFS","display":"fully specified ROI","definition":"A fully specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) delineates a ROI in which only those dimensions participate that are specified by boundary criteria, whereas all other dimensions are excluded. For example a ROI to mark an episode of \"ST elevation\" in a subset of the EKG leads V2, V3, and V4 would include 4 boundaries, one each for time, V2, V3, and V4.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17897"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"ROIPS","display":"partially specified ROI","definition":"A partially specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) specifies a ROI in which at least all values in the dimensions specified by the boundary criteria participate. For example, if an episode of ventricular fibrillations (VFib) is observed, it usually doesn't make sense to exclude any EKG leads from the observation and the partially specified ROI would contain only one boundary for time indicating the time interval where VFib was observed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"_ActCredentialedCareCode","display":"act credentialed care","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by a credentialing agency, i.e. government or non-government agency. Failure in executing this Act may result in loss of credential to the person or organization who participates as performer of the Act. Excludes employment agreements.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Hospital license; physician license; clinic accreditation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21826"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterCode","display":"ActEncounterCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActEncounterClass (ENC)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ENC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalServiceCode","definition":"General category of medical service provided to the patient during their encounter.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"AUTOATTCH","display":"auto attachment","definition":"**Description:** Automobile Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DOCUMENT","display":"document","definition":"**Description:** Document Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"HEALTHREC","display":"health record","definition":"**Description:** Health Record Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMG","display":"image attachment","definition":"**Description:** Image Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABRESULTS","display":"lab results","definition":"**Description:** Lab Results Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MODEL","display":"model","definition":"**Description:** Digital Model Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"WIATTCH","display":"work injury report attachment","definition":"**Description:** Work Injury related additional Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"XRAY","display":"x-ray","definition":"**Description:** Digital X-Ray Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDecision","display":"_ActDecision","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies types of consent directives governing the collection, access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"EMRGONLY","display":"emergency only","definition":"Privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for all purposes except for emergency treatment generally, which may include treatment during a disaster, a threat, in an emergency department and for break the glass purposes of use as specified by applicable domain policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* To specify the scope of an \"EMRGONLY\" consent directive within a policy domain, use one or more of the following Purpose of Use codes in the ActReason code system OID: 2.16.840.1.113883.5.8.\r\n\r\n * ETREAT (Emergency Treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition.\r\n * BTG (break the glass): To perform policy override operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition affecting potential harm, death or patient safety by end users who are not provisioned for this purpose of use. Includes override of organizational provisioning policies and may include override of subject of care consent directive restricting access.\r\n * ERTREAT (emergency room treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition in an emergency room or similar emergent care context by end users provisioned for this purpose, which does not constitute as policy override such as in a \"Break the Glass\" purpose of use.\r\n * THREAT (threat): To perform one or more operations on information used to prevent injury or disease to living subjects who may be the target of violence.\r\n * DISASTER (disaster): To perform one or more operations on information used for provision of immediately needed health care to a population of living subjects located in a disaster zone.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"emergency only\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) 5.13 Exceptional access","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23325"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GRANTORCHOICE","display":"grantor choice","definition":"A grantor's terms of agreement to which a grantee may assent or dissent, and which may include an opportunity for a grantee to request restrictions or extensions.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor typically is able to stipulate preferred terms of agreement when the grantor has control over the topic of the agreement, which a grantee must accept in full or may be offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If the grantor's term of agreement must be accepted in full, then this is considered \"basic consent\". If a grantee is offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms, then the agreement is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A PHR account holder \\[grantor\\] may require any PHR user \\[grantee\\] to accept the terms of agreement in full, or may permit a PHR user to extend or restrict terms selected by the account holder or requested by the PHR user.\r\n * Non-healthcare: The owner of a resource server \\[grantor\\] may require any authorization server \\[grantee\\] to meet authorization requirements stipulated in the grantor's terms of agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIED","display":"implied consent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement is based on the grantor's behavior, which may result from not expressly assenting to the consent directive offered, or from having no right to assent or dissent offered by the grantee.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent occurs when the behavior of the grantor is understood by a reasonable person to signal agreement to the grantee's terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied consent with no opportunity to assent or dissent to certain terms is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient schedules an appointment with a provider, and either does not take the opportunity to expressly assent or dissent to the provider's consent directive, does not have an opportunity to do so, as in the case where emergency care is required, or simply behaves as though the patient \\[grantor\\] agrees to the rights granted to the provider \\[grantee\\] in an implicit consent directive.\r\n * An injured and unconscious patient is deemed to have assented to emergency treatment by those permitted to do so under jurisdictional laws, e.g., Good Samaritan laws.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Upon receiving a driver's license, the driver is deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to undergoing field sobriety tests.\r\n * A corporation that does business in a foreign nation is deemed to have deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to abide by that nation's laws.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23755"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIEDD","display":"implied consent with opportunity to dissent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement, which is based on the grantor's behavior, and includes a right to dissent to certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor assenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to dissent to grantor selected terms or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent with an \"opportunity to dissent\" occurs when the grantor's behavior is understood by a reasonable person to signal assent to the grantee's terms of agreement whether the grantor requests or the grantee approves further restrictions, is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Examples: A healthcare provider deems a patient's assent to disclosure of health information to family members and friends, but offers an opportunity or permits the patient to dissent to such disclosures.\r\n * A health information exchanges deems a patient to have assented to disclosure of health information for treatment purposes, but offers the patient an opportunity to dissents to disclosure to particular provider organizations.\r\n * Non-healthcare Examples: A bank deems a banking customer's assent to specified collection, access, use, or disclosure of financial information as a requirement of holding a bank account, but provides the user an opportunity to limit third-party collection, access, use or disclosure of that information for marketing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23756"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOCONSENT","display":"no consent","definition":"No notification or opportunity is provided for a grantor to assent or dissent to a grantee's terms of agreement.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A \"No Consent\" policy scheme provides no opportunity for accommodation of an individual's preferences, and may not comply with Fair Information Practice Principles \\[FIPP\\] by enabling the data subject to object, access collected information, correct errors, or have accounting of disclosures.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The grantee's terms of agreement, may be available to the grantor by reviewing the grantee's privacy policies, but there is no notice by which a grantor is apprised of the policy directly or able to acknowledge.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is automatically included in and available (often according to certain rules) through a health information exchange. Note that this differs from implied consent, where the patient is assumed to have consented.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is collected, accessed, used, or disclosed for research, public health, security, fraud prevention, court order, or law enforcement.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's healthcare or non-healthcare internet searches are aggregated for secondary uses such as behavioral tracking and profiling.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's location and activities in a shopping mall are tracked by RFID tags on purchased items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23757"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOPP","display":"notice of privacy practices","definition":"An implied privacy consent directive or notification, which the data subject may or may not acknowledge. The notification specifies permitted actions, which may include access, use, or disclosure of any and all personal information. The notification specifies the scope of personal information, which may include de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, that may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository. The notification specifies the purposes for which personal information may be used such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, disaster, quality and safety reporting; as required by law including court order, law enforcement, national security, military authorities; and for data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\"."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23370"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OPTIN","display":"opt-in","definition":"A grantor's assent to the terms of an agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to dissent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Acceptance of a grantee's terms pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with no opportunity for a grantor to restrict certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] signs a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, and revocation policies.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] signs an employer's \\[grantee's\\] non-disclosure and non-compete agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTINR","display":"opt-in with restrictions","definition":"A grantor's assent to the grantee's terms of an agreement with an opportunity for to dissent to certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor dissenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to assent to grantor's pre-approved restrictions or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with restrictions is considered \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to narrow the permissions sought by the grantee.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient assent to grantee's consent directive terms for collection, access, use, or disclosure of health information, and dissents to disclosure to certain recipients as allowed by the provider's pre-approved restriction list.\r\n * Non-Healthcare: A cell phone user assents to the cell phone's privacy practices and terms of use, but dissents from location tracking by turning off the cell phone's tracking capability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23758"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUT","display":"op-out","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the terms of agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to assent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with no opportunity for a grantor to permit certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] declines to sign a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, revocation policies, and consequences of not assenting.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] refuses to sign an employer's \\[grantee's\\] agreement not to join unions or participate in a strike where state law protects employee's collective bargaining rights.\r\n * A citizen \\[grantor\\] refuses to enroll in mandatory government \\[grantee\\] health insurance based on religious beliefs, which is an exemption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUTE","display":"opt-out with exceptions","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the grantee's terms of agreement except for certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement while assenting to certain permissions sought by the grantee or requesting approval of additional grantor terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with exceptions is considered a \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to accept certain permissions sought by the grantee or request additional grantor terms, while rejecting other grantee terms.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] dissents to a health information exchange consent directive with the exception of disclosure based on a limited \"time to live\" shared secret \\[e.g., a token or password\\], which the patient can give to a provider when seeking care.\r\n * Non-healthcare: A social media user \\[grantor\\] dissents from public access to their account, but assents to access to a circle of friends.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23759"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"ICOL","display":"information collection","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information collected in an electronic health record. This entails that the information may be used in analysis, modified, updated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22203"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IDSCL","display":"information disclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have collected healthcare information disclosed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22204"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"INFA","display":"information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access healthcare information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22200"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IRDSCL","display":"information redisclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Information re-disclosed without the patient's consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22205"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"RESEARCH","display":"research information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information in an electronic health record accessed for research purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22206"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"ID","display":"Identified","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that it has received a container.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"IP","display":"In Position","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is in position for specimen transfer (e.g., container removal from track, pipetting, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Left Equipment","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container has been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Missing","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container did not arrive at its next expected location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"O","display":"In Process","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the specific container is being processed by the equipment. It is useful as a response to a query about Container Status, when the specific step of the process is not relevant.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"R","display":"Process Completed","definition":"Status is used by one system to inform another that the processing has been completed, but the container has not been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"X","display":"Container Unavailable","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is no longer available within the scope of the system (e.g., tube broken or discarded).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"AUTO","display":"auto-repeat permission","definition":"Specifies whether or not automatic repeat testing is to be initiated on specimens.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16860"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"ENDC","display":"endogenous content","definition":"A baseline value for the measured test that is inherently contained in the diluent. 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In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22153"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCSAccommodationCode","display":"HCPCSAccommodationCode","definition":"**Description:**External value set for accommodation types used in the U.S. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) including modifiers.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22152"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"AMB","display":"ambulatory","definition":"A comprehensive term for health care provided in a healthcare facility (e.g. a practitioneraTMs office, clinic setting, or hospital) on a nonresident basis. 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Sometimes referred to as an outpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16239"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"EMER","display":"emergency","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place at a dedicated healthcare service delivery location where the patient receives immediate evaluation and treatment, provided until the patient can be discharged or responsibility for the patient's care is transferred elsewhere (for example, the patient could be admitted as an inpatient or transferred to another facility.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16240"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"FLD","display":"field","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place both outside a dedicated service delivery location and outside a patient's residence. 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Expressed in monetary terms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14805"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"REV","display":"Standard Charge Reversal","definition":"A type of transaction that represents a reversal of a previous charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms. It has the opposite effect of a standard charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14806"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"GDPRCD","display":"GDPR Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nWhere processing is based on consent, the controller shall be able to demonstrate that the data subject has consented to processing of his or her personal data. If the data subject's consent is given in the context of a written declaration which also concerns other matters, the request for consent shall be presented in a manner which is clearly distinguishable from the other matters, in an intelligible and easily accessible form, using clear and plain language. Any part of such a declaration which constitutes an infringement of this Regulation shall not be binding. The data subject shall have the right to withdraw his or her consent at any time. The withdrawal of consent shall not affect the lawfulness of processing based on consent before its withdrawal. Prior to giving consent, the data subject shall be informed thereof. It shall be as easy to withdraw as to give consent. When assessing whether consent is freely given, utmost account shall be taken of whether, inter alia, the performance of a contract, including the provision of a service, is conditional on consent to the processing of personal data that is not necessary for the performance of that contract. Consent should be given by a clear affirmative act establishing a freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her, such as by a written statement, including by electronic means, or an oral statement. This could include ticking a box when visiting an internet website, choosing technical settings for information society services or another statement or conduct which clearly indicates in this context the data subject's acceptance of the proposed processing of his or her personal data. Silence, pre-ticked boxes or inactivity should not therefore constitute consent. Consent should cover all processing activities carried out for the same purpose or purposes. When the processing has multiple purposes, consent should be given for all of them. If the data subject's consent is to be given following a request by electronic means, the request must be clear, concise and not unnecessarily disruptive to the use of the service for which it is provided.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Article 4.11 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ 11) 'Consent' of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her. Article 7 GDPR Conditions for consent https://gdpr-info.eu/art-7-gdpr Recital 32 Conditions for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-32 Recital 42 Burden of proof and requirements for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-42/> Recital 43 Freely given consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-43 GDPR Consent Brief https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/consent/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions Art. 6 GDPR Lawfulness of processing Art. 7 GDPR Conditions for consent Art. 8 GDPR Conditions applicable to child's consent in relation to information society services Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data Art. 22 GDPR Automated individual decision-making, including profiling Art. 49 GDPR Derogations for specific situations\r\n\r\nRelevant GDPR Recitals: (32) Conditions for consent (33) Consent to certain areas of scientific research (38) Special protection of children's personal data (40) Lawfulness of data processing (42) Burden of proof and requirements for consent (43) Freely given consent (50) Further processing of personal data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data (54) Processing of sensitive data in public health sector (71) Profiling (111) Exceptions for certain cases of international transfers (155) Processing in the employment context (161) Consenting to the participation in clinical trials (171) Repeal of Directive 95/46/EC and transitional provisions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRResearchCD","display":"GDPR Research Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive that complies with regulatory requirements for a consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nGDPR research consent directive has the additional caveat that it is often not possible to fully identify the purpose of personal data processing for scientific research purposes at the time of data collection. Therefore, data subjects should be allowed to give their consent to certain areas of scientific research when in keeping with recognized ethical standards for scientific research. Data subjects should have the opportunity to give their consent only to certain areas of research or parts of research projects to the extent allowed by the intended purpose.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* HL7 Purpose of Use codes include specialize research purposes of use, which could be used to convey a data subject's purpose of use restrictions related to areas of research or parts of research projects. See citations for GDPRResearchCD and below: Recital 33 Consent to certain areas of scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-33/> Recital 157 Information from registries and scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-157 Recital 159 Processing for scientific research purposes\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-159/","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRCONSENT","display":"GDPR Consent","definition":"Processing of personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, is lawful only if the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of his or her personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, for one or more specific purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition to use the data may not be lifted by the data subject; and for personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The description is based on the following GDPR provisions: Article 6.1.a https://gdpr-info.eu/art-6-gdpr/ 1Processing shall be lawful only if and to the extent that at least one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given consent to the processing of his or her personal data for one or more specific purposes. Article 9.1, 9.2a., 9.2.e https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ 1. Processing of personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation shall be prohibited. 2. Paragraph 1 shall not apply if one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of those personal data for one or more specified purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition referred to in paragraph 1 may not be lifted by the data subject; and (e) processing relates to personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"OIC","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting the collection of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to collection of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OIS","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting access, use, or disclosure of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOC","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting collection of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to collection consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOS","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to sharing consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"DENTAL","display":"dental care policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that that covers benefits for dental services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DISEASE","display":"disease specific policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for healthcare services provided for named conditions under the policy, e.g., cancer, diabetes, or HIV-AIDS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGPOL","display":"drug policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for prescription drugs, pharmaceuticals, and supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EHCPOL","display":"extended healthcare","definition":"Private insurance policy that provides coverage in addition to other policies (e.g. in addition to a Public Healthcare insurance policy).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19722"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"HIP","display":"health insurance plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers healthcare benefits by protecting covered parties from medical expenses arising from health conditions, sickness, or accidental injury as well as preventive care. Health insurance policies explicitly exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Health insurance policies are offered by health insurance plans that typically reimburse providers for covered services on a fee-for-service basis, that is, a fee that is the allowable amount that a provider may charge. This is in contrast to managed care plans, which typically prepay providers a per-member/per-month amount or capitation as reimbursement for all covered services rendered. Health insurance plans include indemnity and healthcare services plans.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HSAPOL","display":"health spending account","definition":"Insurance policy that provides for an allotment of funds replenished on a periodic (e.g. annual) basis. The use of the funds under this policy is at the discretion of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19720"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"LTC","display":"long term care policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers benefits for long-term care services people need when they no longer can care for themselves. This may be due to an accident, disability, prolonged illness or the simple process of aging. Long-term care services assist with activities of daily living including:\r\n\r\n * Help at home with day-to-day activities, such as cooking, cleaning, bathing and dressing\r\n * Care in the community, such as in an adult day care facility\r\n * Supervised care provided in an assisted living facility\r\n * Skilled care provided in a nursing home","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22109"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MCPOL","display":"managed care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.\r\n\r\nManaged care policies specifically exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Managed care policies are offered by managed care plans that contract with selected providers or health care organizations to provide comprehensive health care at a discount to covered parties and coordinate the financing and delivery of health care. Managed care uses medical protocols and procedures agreed on by the medical profession to be cost effective, also known as medical practice guidelines. Providers are typically reimbursed for covered services by a capitated amount on a per member per month basis that may reflect difference in the health status and level of services anticipated to be needed by the member.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22147"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MENTPOL","display":"mental health policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for mental health services and prescriptions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"POS","display":"point of service policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that has features of both an HMO and a FFS plan. Like an HMO, a POS plan encourages the use its HMO network to maintain discounted fees with participating providers, but recognizes that sometimes covered parties want to choose their own provider. The POS plan allows a covered party to use providers who are not part of the HMO network (non-participating providers). However, there is a greater cost associated with choosing these non-network providers. A covered party will usually pay deductibles and coinsurances that are substantially higher than the payments when he or she uses a plan provider. Use of non-participating providers often requires the covered party to pay the provider directly and then to file a claim for reimbursement, like in an FFS plan.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPOL","display":"substance use policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for substance use services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VISPOL","display":"vision care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes for a policy that provides coverage for health care expenses arising from vision services.\r\n\r\nA health insurance policy that covers benefits for vision care services, prescriptions, and products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MVA","display":"Motor vehicle accident","definition":"Incident or accident as the result of a motor vehicle accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16509"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SCHOOL","display":"School Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a school place accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17468"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SPT","display":"Sporting Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a sporting accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17469"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"WPA","display":"Workplace accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a work place accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","display":"ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","definition":"**Definition:** A code specifying the particular kind of Patient Safety Incident that the Incident class instance represents.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Medication incident\", \"slips, trips and falls incident\".The actual value set for the domain will be determined by each (realm) implementation, whose Patient Safety terminology will be specific, although probably linked to the WHO Patient Safety Taxonomy that is currently under development","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"ACADR","display":"adverse drug reaction access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access adverse drug reaction information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALL","display":"all access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access all information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALLG","display":"allergy access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access allergy information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACCONS","display":"informational consent access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access informational consent information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDEMO","display":"demographics access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access demographics information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22254"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDI","display":"diagnostic imaging access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access diagnostic imaging information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACIMMUN","display":"immunization access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access immunization information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22255"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACLAB","display":"lab test result access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access lab test result information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMED","display":"medication access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEDC","display":"medical condition access","definition":"**Definition:** Provide consent to view or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEN","display":"mental health access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access mental health information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22904"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACOBS","display":"common observations access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access common observation information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22253"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPOLPRG","display":"policy or program information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access coverage policy or program for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22252"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPROV","display":"provider information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access provider information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22251"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPSERV","display":"professional service access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access professional service information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22250"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACSUBSTAB","display":"substance abuse access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access substance abuse information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22905"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"INFAUT","display":"authorized information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or a patient's consent directive, which may be implied, deemed, opt-in, opt-out, or explicit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22643"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFCRT","display":"only on court order","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with judicial system protocol, such as in the case of a subpoena or court order.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFDNG","display":"only if danger to others","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information where deemed necessary to avert potential danger to other persons in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, disclosure about a person threatening violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFEMER","display":"only in an emergency","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with emergency information transfer protocol dictated by jurisdictional law, organization policy, or standards of practice. For example, sharing of health information during disaster response.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFPWR","display":"only if public welfare risk","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information necessary to avert potential public welfare risk in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, reporting that a person is a victim of abuse or demonstrating suicidal tendencies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFREG","display":"regulatory information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information for public health, welfare, and safety purposes in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, public health reporting of notifiable conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFOACCESS","display":"access information","definition":"Authorization to obtain information with no further permission to collect and store it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24088"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOCOLLECT","display":"collect information","definition":"Authorization to gather and store information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24089"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODEIDENTIFIY","display":"deidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or remove identifying characteristics of an entity or individual that is a subject of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODISCLOSE","display":"disclose information","definition":"Authorization to make information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOMASK","display":"mask information","definition":"Authorization to alter information in order to conceal it from unauthorized recipients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24092"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREADONLY","display":"read only information","definition":"Authorization to access information within a specific context for communication purposes only. Storing, manipulating, and further disclosure are prohibited and may be technically disabled.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24093"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDACT","display":"redact information","definition":"Authorization to remove information that a recipient is not authorized to access.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24094"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDISCLOSE","display":"redisclose information","definition":"Authorization to make disclosed information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24095"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREIDENTIFY","display":"reidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or relink deidentified information so that an entity or individual that is the subject of that information identifiable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24096"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOUSE","display":"use information","definition":"Authorization to employ or alter information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24097"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLCAT","display":"all categories","definition":"**Description:** All patient information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ALLGCAT","display":"allergy category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's allergy and intolerance records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21614"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ARCAT","display":"adverse drug reaction category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's adverse drug reactions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22811"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"COBSCAT","display":"common observation category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's common observation records (height, weight, blood pressure, temperature, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DEMOCAT","display":"demographics category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's demographics (such as name, date of birth, gender, address, etc).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21618"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DICAT","display":"diagnostic image category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's diagnostic image records (orders & results).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21613"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUCAT","display":"immunization category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's vaccination records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABCAT","display":"lab test category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's lab test records (orders & results)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21611"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MEDCCAT","display":"medical condition category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medical condition records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21616"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MENCAT","display":"mental health category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's mental health records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22871"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"PSVCCAT","display":"professional service category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's professional service records (such as smoking cessation, counseling, medication review, mental health).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21615"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"RXCAT","display":"medication category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medication records (orders, dispenses and other active medications).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21612"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"JurisIP","display":"jurisdictional information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24074"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"OrgIP","display":"organizational information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information, which does not conflict with jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PersIP","display":"personal information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24082"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling alcohol or drug-abuse information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to alcohol or drug-abuse information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23338"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"GDIS","display":"genetic disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling genetic disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to genetic disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23339"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV/AIDS information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling HIV or AIDS information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to HIV or AIDS information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23340"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"MST","display":"military sexual trauma information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to sexual assault or repeated, threatening sexual harassment that occurred while the patient was in the military, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for military sexual trauma is based on the patient being subject to control by a higher ranking military perpetrator and/or censure by others within the military unit. Due to the relatively unfettered access to healthcare information by higher ranking military personnel and those who have command over the patient, there is a need to sequester this information outside of the typical controls on access to military health records.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23888"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PREGNANT","display":"pregnancy information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about an individual's current or past pregnancy status, deemed sensitive by the individual or by policy, which may be afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nInformation about a patient's current or past pregnancy status may be considered sensitive in circumstances in which that status could result in discrimination or stigmatization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SCA","display":"sickle cell anemia information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sickle cell disease information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols are based on organizational policies related to sickle cell disease information, which is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then the Act valued with this ActCode should be associated with an Act valued with any applicable laws from the ActPrivacyLaw code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\nSDV code covers violence perpetrated by related and non-related persons. This code should be specific to physical and mental trauma caused by a related person only. The access control concerns are keeping the patient safe from the perpetrator who may have an abusive psychological control over the patient, may be stalking the patient, or may try to manipulate care givers into allowing the perpetrator to make contact with the patient. The definition needs to be clarified.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23342"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SEX","display":"sexuality and reproductive health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexuality and reproductive health information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexuality and reproductive health information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23343"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SPI","display":"specially protected information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information deemed specially protected by law or policy including substance abuse, substance use, psychiatric, mental health, behavioral health, and cognitive disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23889"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"STD","display":"sexually transmitted disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexually transmitted disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexually transmitted disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23344"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"TBOO","display":"taboo","definition":"Policy for handling information not to be initially disclosed or discussed with patient except by a physician assigned to patient in this case. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sensitive patient information that must be initially discussed with the patient by an attending physician before being disclosed to the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* This definition conflates a rule and a characteristic, and there may be a similar issue with ts sibling codes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23345"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIO","display":"violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to harm by violence, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Harm by violence is perpetrated by an unrelated person.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for information about mental or physical harm resulting from violence caused by an unrelated person may include manipulation of care givers or access to records that enable the perpetrator contact or locate the patient, but the perpetrator will likely not have established abusive psychological control over the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"IDS","display":"Identifier Sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an identifier of an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Usage Note: Such policies may govern the sensitivity of information related to an identifier of an act, such as the identifier of a contract; a role, such as a citizen, a patient, a practitioner, or an organization; or an entity such as a medical device due to potential impact on the privacy, well-being, safety or integrity of an information subject. For example, protection against identity fraud or counterfeit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24800"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SICKLE","display":"sickle cell","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23459"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUTOPOL","display":"automobile","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in an automobile accident. Will also typically covered non-named parties to the policy, such as pedestrians and passengers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PUBLICPOL","display":"public healthcare","definition":"Insurance policy funded by a public health system such as a provincial or national health plan. Examples include BC MSP (British Columbia Medical Services Plan) OHIP (Ontario Health Insurance Plan), NHS (National Health Service).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19718"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"WCBPOL","display":"worker's compensation","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19719"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","display":"ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of health insurance policy that covers health services provided to covered parties. A health insurance policy is a written contract for insurance between the insurance company and the policyholder, and contains pertinent facts about the policy owner (the policy holder), the health insurance coverage, the insured subscribers and dependents, and the insurer. Health insurance is typically administered in accordance with a plan, which specifies (1) the type of health services and health conditions that will be covered under what circumstances (e.g., exclusion of a pre-existing condition, service must be deemed medically necessary; service must not be experimental; service must provided in accordance with a protocol; drug must be on a formulary; service must be prior authorized; or be a referral from a primary care provider); (2) the type and affiliation of providers (e.g., only allopathic physicians, only in network, only providers employed by an HMO); (3) financial participations required of covered parties (e.g., co-pays, coinsurance, deductibles, out-of-pocket); and (4) the manner in which services will be paid (e.g., under indemnity or fee-for-service health plans, the covered party typically pays out-of-pocket and then file a claim for reimbursement, while health plans that have contractual relationships with providers, i.e., network providers, typically do not allow the providers to bill the covered party for the cost of the service until after filing a claim with the payer and receiving reimbursement).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that provides a regular payment to compensate for income lost due to the covered party's inability to work because of illness or injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EWB","display":"employee welfare benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy under a benefit plan run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits other than pension-related to employees and their families. Typically provides health-related benefits, benefits for disability, disease or unemployment, or day care and scholarship benefits, among others. An employer sponsored health policy includes coverage of health care expenses arising from sickness or accidental injury, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for dental or vision benefits, which are typically provided under a separate policy. Coverage excludes health care expenses covered by accident or disability, workers' compensation, liability or automobile insurance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"FLEXP","display":"flexible benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers qualified benefits under a Flexible Benefit plan such as group medical insurance, long and short term disability income insurance, group term life insurance for employees only up to $50,000 face amount, specified disease coverage such as a cancer policy, dental and/or vision insurance, hospital indemnity insurance, accidental death and dismemberment insurance, a medical expense reimbursement plan and a dependent care reimbursement plan.\r\n\r\n *Discussion:* See UnderwriterRoleTypeCode flexible benefit plan which is defined as a benefit plan that allows employees to choose from several life, health, disability, dental, and other insurance plans according to their individual needs. Also known as cafeteria plans. Authorized under Section 125 of the Revenue Act of 1978.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"LIFE","display":"life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy under which the insurer agrees to pay a sum of money upon the occurrence of the covered partys death. In return, the policyholder agrees to pay a stipulated amount called a premium at regular intervals. Life insurance indemnifies the beneficiary for the loss of the insurable interest that a beneficiary has in the life of a covered party. For persons related by blood, a substantial interest established through love and affection, and for all other persons, a lawful and substantial economic interest in having the life of the insured continue. An insurable interest is required when purchasing life insurance on another person. Specific exclusions are often written into the contract to limit the liability of the insurer; for example claims resulting from suicide or relating to war, riot and civil commotion.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:*A life insurance policy may be used by the covered party as a source of health care coverage in the case of a viatical settlement, which is the sale of a life insurance policy by the policy owner, before the policy matures. Such a sale, at a price discounted from the face amount of the policy but usually in excess of the premiums paid or current cash surrender value, provides the seller an immediate cash settlement. Generally, viatical settlements involve insured individuals with a life expectancy of less than two years. In countries without state-subsidized healthcare and high healthcare costs (e.g. United States), this is a practical way to pay extremely high health insurance premiums that severely ill people face. Some people are also familiar with life settlements, which are similar transactions but involve insureds with longer life expectancies (two to fifteen years).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22148"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PNC","display":"property and casualty insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A type of insurance that covers damage to or loss of the policyholderaTMs property by providing payments for damages to property damage or the injury or death of living subjects. The terms \"casualty\" and \"liability\" insurance are often used interchangeably. Both cover the policyholder's legal liability for damages caused to other persons and/or their property.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"REI","display":"reinsurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An agreement between two or more insurance companies by which the risk of loss is proportioned. Thus the risk of loss is spread and a disproportionately large loss under a single policy does not fall on one insurance company. Acceptance by an insurer, called a reinsurer, of all or part of the risk of loss of another insurance company.\r\n\r\n**Discussion:** Reinsurance is a means by which an insurance company can protect itself against the risk of losses with other insurance companies. Individuals and corporations obtain insurance policies to provide protection for various risks (hurricanes, earthquakes, lawsuits, collisions, sickness and death, etc.). Reinsurers, in turn, provide insurance to insurance companies.\r\n\r\nFor example, an HMO may purchase a reinsurance policy to protect itself from losing too much money from one insured's particularly expensive health care costs. An insurance company issuing an automobile liability policy, with a limit of $100,000 per accident may reinsure its liability in excess of $10,000. A fire insurance company which issues a large policy generally reinsures a portion of the risk with one or several other companies. Also called *risk control insurance or stop-loss insurance.*","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SURPL","display":"surplus line insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** \r\n\r\n1. A risk or part of a risk for which there is no normal insurance market available.\r\n2. Insurance written by unauthorized insurance companies. Surplus lines insurance is insurance placed with unauthorized insurance companies through licensed surplus lines agents or brokers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"UMBRL","display":"umbrella liability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A form of insurance protection that provides additional liability coverage after the limits of your underlying policy are reached. An umbrella liability policy also protects you (the insured) in many situations not covered by the usual liability policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22122"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20876"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"ALEC","display":"alternate electronic","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a submitted invoice that arrived to the payor from an electronic source that did not provide a conformant set of HL7 messages (e.g. web claim submission).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20077"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"BONUS","display":"bonus","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"CFWD","display":"carry forward adjusment","definition":"An amount still owing to the payor but the payment is 0$ and this cannot be settled until a future payment is made.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EDU","display":"education fees","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for tuition and continuing education.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EPYMT","display":"early payment fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a shorter payment frequency (i.e. next day versus biweekly payments.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"GARN","display":"garnishee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","display":"submitted invoice","definition":"Payment is based on a payment intent for a previously submitted Invoice, based on formal adjudication results..","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PINV","display":"paper invoice","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a paper (original, may have been faxed) invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PPRD","display":"prior period adjustment","definition":"An amount that was owed to the payor as indicated, by a carry forward adjusment, in a previous payment advice","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PROA","display":"professional association deduction","definition":"Professional association fee that is collected by the payor from the practitioner/provider on behalf of the association","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RECOV","display":"recovery","definition":"Retroactive adjustment such as fee rate adjustment due to contract negotiations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RETRO","display":"retro adjustment","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"TRAN","display":"transaction fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVTYPE","display":"invoice type","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by invoice type (e.g. RXDINV - Pharmacy Dispense)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYEE","display":"payee","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYOR","display":"payor","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"SENDAPP","display":"sending application","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of a messaging application on a single processor. It is a registered identifier known to the receivers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"UNSPSC","display":"United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification","definition":"**Description:**United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification, managed by Uniform Code Council (UCC): www.unspsc.org","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22179"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode"}]},{"code":"_CPT5","display":"CPT5","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22177"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCS","display":"HCPCS","definition":"**Description:**Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) Codes are procedure identifying codes. HCPCS is Health Care Finance AdministrationaTMs (HFCA) coding scheme to group procedures performed for payment to providers. contains codes for medical equipment, injectable drugs, transportation services, and other services not found in CPT4.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22175"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD10PCS","display":"ICD10PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-10-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22173"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD9PCS","display":"ICD9PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-9-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-9-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22174"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare products.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for A substance used as a medication or in the preparation of medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","definition":"The detail item codes to identify charges or changes to the total billing of a claim due to insurance rules and payments.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","definition":"An identifying data string for medical facility accommodations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20886"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying data string for oral health procedure codes, e.g. extract tooth.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20885"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"GTIN","display":"Global Trade Item Number","definition":"**Description:**Global Trade Item Number is an identifier for trade items developed by GS1 (comprising the former EAN International and Uniform Code Council).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22181"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"UPC","display":"Universal Product Code","definition":"**Description:**Universal Product Code is one of a wide variety of bar code languages widely used in the United States and Canada for items in stores.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22180"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"COIN","display":"coinsurance","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a percentage of the eligible amount for the service/product that is typically charged after the covered party has met the policy deductible. This amount represents the covered party's coinsurance that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21946"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COPAYMENT","display":"patient co-pay","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a defined amount per service/product of the eligible amount for the service/product. This amount represents the covered party's copayment that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"DEDUCTIBLE","display":"deductible","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay in a particular period (e.g. annual) before the benefits are payable by the adjudicator. This amount represents the covered party's deductible that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"PAY","display":"payment","definition":"The guarantor, who may be the patient, pays the entire charge for a service. Reasons for such action may include: there is no insurance coverage for the service (e.g. cosmetic surgery); the patient wishes to self-pay for the service; or the insurer denies payment for the service due to contractual provisions such as the need for prior authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21362"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"SPEND","display":"spend down","definition":"That total amount of the eligible charges which a covered party must periodically pay for services and/or products prior to the Medicaid program providing any coverage. This amount represents the covered party's spend down that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21947"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COINS","display":"co-insurance","definition":"The covered party pays a percentage of the cost of covered services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify adjudicator specified components to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge. As for example after hours increase in the office visit fee.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20883"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify provider supplied charges or changes to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20884"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge by a tax factor applied to the amount. As for example 7% provincial sales tax.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"AFTHRS","display":"non-normal hours","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing outside of normal working hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"ISOL","display":"isolation allowance","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing in a remote location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"OOO","display":"out of office","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing at a location other than normal working location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"CANCAPT","display":"cancelled appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient cancels an appointment with insufficient time for the provider to make another appointment with another patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"DSC","display":"discount","definition":"A reduction in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example a 5% discount for volume purchase.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"ESA","display":"extraordinary service assessment","definition":"A premium on a service fee is requested because, due to extenuating circumstances, the service took an extraordinary amount of time or supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FFSTOP","display":"fee for service top off","definition":"Under agreement between the parties (payor and provider), a guaranteed level of income is established for the provider over a specific, pre-determined period of time. The normal course of business for the provider is submission of fee-for-service claims. Should the fee-for-service income during the specified period of time be less than the agreed to amount, a top-up amount is paid to the provider equal to the difference between the fee-for-service total and the guaranteed income amount for that period of time. The details of the agreement may specify (or not) a requirement for repayment to the payor in the event that the fee-for-service income exceeds the guaranteed amount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21311"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FNLFEE","display":"final fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual final fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21314"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FRSTFEE","display":"first fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual initial fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21313"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MARKUP","display":"markup or up-charge","definition":"An increase in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example, 12% markup on product cost.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20038"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MISSAPT","display":"missed appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient does not show for an appointment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20039"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERFEE","display":"periodic fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual periodic fee associated with treating a patient. For example, expected billing cycle such as monthly, quarterly. The actual period (e.g. monthly, quarterly) is specified in the unit quantity of the Invoice Element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21312"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERMBNS","display":"performance bonus","definition":"The amount for a performance bonus that is being requested from a payor for the performance of certain services (childhood immunizations, influenza immunizations, mammograms, pap smears) on a sliding scale. That is, for 90% of childhood immunizations to a maximum of $2200/yr. An invoice is created at the end of the service period (one year) and a code is submitted indicating the percentage achieved and the dollar amount claimed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21310"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"RESTOCK","display":"restocking fee","definition":"A charge is requested because the patient failed to pick up the item and it took an amount of time to return it to stock for future use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"TRAVEL","display":"travel","definition":"A charge to cover the cost of travel time and/or cost in conjuction with providing a service or product. It may be charged per kilometer or per hour based on the effective agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"URGENT","display":"urgent","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for providing an expedited response to an urgent situation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21315"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode","display":"ActEncounterAccommodationCode","definition":"Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"FST","display":"federal sales tax","definition":"Federal tax on transactions such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"HST","display":"harmonized sales Tax","definition":"Joint Federal/Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"PST","display":"provincial/state sales tax","definition":"Tax levied by the provincial or state jurisdiction such as Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee and other cost elements such as bonus, retroactive adjustment and transaction fees.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20875"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailCode","definition":"Codes representing a service or product that is being invoiced (billed). The code can represent such concepts as \"office visit\", \"drug X\", \"wheelchair\" and other billable items such as taxes, service charges and discounts.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated","display":"InvoiceElementAdjudicated","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts adjudicated for all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated within a time period based on the adjudication date of the Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementPaid","display":"InvoiceElementPaid","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts paid for all Invoice Groupings that were paid within a time period based on the payment date.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted","display":"InvoiceElementSubmitted","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts billed for all Invoice Groupings that were submitted within a time period. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nThe domain is only specified for an intermediate invoice element group (non-root or non-top level) for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain reflect the type of Invoice such as Pharmacy Dispense, Clinical Service and Clinical Product. The domain is only specified for the root (top level) invoice element group for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDDRGING","display":"compound drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound ingredients being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20033"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDINDING","display":"compound ingredient invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying an ingredient drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20034"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDSUPING","display":"compound supply invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound supplies being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20035"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGING","display":"drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20032"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"FRAMEING","display":"frame invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the frame fee and the frame dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"LENSING","display":"lens invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the lens fee and the lens dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PRDING","display":"product invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the product (good or supply) being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or discount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"COVGE","display":"coverage problem","definition":"Insurance coverage problems have been encountered. Additional explanation information to be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17594"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"EFORM","display":"electronic form to follow","definition":"Electronic form with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"FAX","display":"fax to follow","definition":"Fax with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"GFTH","display":"good faith indicator","definition":"The medical service was provided to a patient in good faith that they had medical coverage, although no evidence of coverage was available before service was rendered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17592"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"LATE","display":"late invoice","definition":"Knowingly over the payor's published time limit for this invoice possibly due to a previous payor's delays in processing. Additional reason information will be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17593"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"MANUAL","display":"manual review","definition":"Manual review of the invoice is requested. Additional information to be supplied. This may be used in the case of an appeal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19713"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"OOJ","display":"out of jurisdiction","definition":"The medical service and/or product was provided to a patient that has coverage in another jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"ORTHO","display":"orthodontic service","definition":"The service provided is required for orthodontic purposes. If the covered party has orthodontic coverage, then the service may be paid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21317"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PAPER","display":"paper documentation to follow","definition":"Paper documentation (or other physical format) with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PIE","display":"public insurance exhausted","definition":"Public Insurance has been exhausted. Invoice has not been sent to Public Insuror and therefore no Explanation Of Benefits (EOB) is provided with this Invoice submission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PYRDELAY","display":"delayed by a previous payor","definition":"Allows provider to explain lateness of invoice to a subsequent payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17591"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REFNR","display":"referral not required","definition":"Rules of practice do not require a physician's referral for the provider to perform a billable service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REPSERV","display":"repeated service","definition":"The same service was delivered within a time period that would usually indicate a duplicate billing. However, the repeated service is a medical necessity and therefore not a duplicate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"UNRELAT","display":"unrelated service","definition":"The service provided is not related to another billed service. For example, 2 unrelated services provided on the same day to the same patient which may normally result in a refused payment for one of the items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21316"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"VERBAUTH","display":"verbal authorization","definition":"The provider has received a verbal permission from an authoritative source to perform the service or supply the item being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"CPINV","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CP","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CPINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSINV","display":"clinical service invoice","definition":"Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.\r\n\r\n\\[1\\] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.\r\n\r\nFor example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).\r\n\r\n\\[2\\] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. 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The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.\r\n\r\nFor example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.\r\n\r\n\\[3\\] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.\r\n\r\nFor example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CSINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSPINV","display":"clinical service and product","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more services and one or more product. 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These will not require identification of participants and associations from a clinical context such as patient and provider.\r\n\r\nExamples are interest charges and mileage.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19716"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"OHSINV","display":"oral health service","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more oral health services. 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Eye exams are invoiced as a clinical service invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20030"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"_ActObservationList","display":"ActObservationList","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActListCode"}]},{"code":"_ActTherapyDurationWorkingListCode","display":"ActTherapyDurationWorkingListCode","definition":"Codes used to identify different types of 'duration-based' working lists. 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Also known as Maternity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17460"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"ONC","display":"Oncology","definition":"Provision of treatment and/or diagnosis related to tumors and/or cancer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17457"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"PALL","display":"Palliative","definition":"Provision of care for patients who are living or dying from an advanced illness.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17452"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"PED","display":"Pediatrics","definition":"Provision of diagnosis and treatment of diseases and disorders affecting children.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17461"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"PHAR","display":"Pharmaceutical","definition":"Pharmaceutical care performed by a pharmacist.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19975"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"PHYRHB","display":"Physical Rehab","definition":"Provision of treatment for physical injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17455"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"PSYCH","display":"Psychiatric","definition":"Provision of treatment of psychiatric disorder relating to mental illness.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17458"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"SURG","display":"Surgical","definition":"Provision of surgical treatment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17451"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicalServiceCode"}]},{"code":"ACU","display":"short term/acute","definition":"**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient is only expected to consume for the duration of the current order or limited set of orders and which is not expected to be renewed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21756"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"CHRON","display":"continuous/chronic","definition":"**Definition:**A list of medications which are expected to be continued beyond the present order and which the patient should be assumed to be taking unless explicitly stopped.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21755"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"ONET","display":"one time","definition":"**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient is intended to be administered only once.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21757"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"PRN","display":"as needed","definition":"**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient will consume intermittently based on the behavior of the condition for which the medication is indicated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21758"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"CTLSUB","display":"Controlled Substance","definition":"A monitoring program that focuses on narcotics and/or commonly abused substances that are subject to legal restriction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16232"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"INV","display":"investigational","definition":"**Definition:**A monitoring program that focuses on a drug which is under investigation and has not received regulatory approval for the condition being investigated","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22860"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"LU","display":"limited use","definition":"**Description:**A drug that can be prescribed (and reimbursed) only if it meets certain criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22025"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"OTC","display":"non prescription medicine","definition":"Medicines designated in this way may be supplied for patient use without a prescription. The exact form of categorisation will vary in different realms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"RX","display":"prescription only medicine","definition":"Some form of prescription is required before the related medicine can be supplied for a patient. The exact form of regulation will vary in different realms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"SA","display":"special authorization","definition":"**Definition:**A drug that requires prior approval (to be reimbursed) before being dispensed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22861"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"SAC","display":"special access","definition":"**Description:**A drug that requires special access permission to be prescribed and dispensed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode"}]},{"code":"IND01","display":"imaging study requiring contrast","definition":"**Description:**Contrast agent required for imaging study.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21679"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode"}]},{"code":"IND02","display":"colonoscopy prep","definition":"**Description:**Provision of prescription or direction to consume a product for purposes of bowel clearance in preparation for a colonoscopy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21680"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode"}]},{"code":"IND03","display":"prophylaxis","definition":"**Description:**Provision of medication as a preventative measure during a treatment or other period of increased risk.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21681"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode"}]},{"code":"IND04","display":"surgical prophylaxis","definition":"**Description:**Provision of medication during pre-operative phase; e.g., antibiotics before dental surgery or bowel prep before colon surgery.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21682"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode"}]},{"code":"IND05","display":"pregnancy prophylaxis","definition":"**Description:**Provision of medication for pregnancy --e.g., vitamins, antibiotic treatments for vaginal tract colonization, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21683"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode"}]},{"code":"CARELIST","display":"care plan","definition":"List of acts representing a care plan. 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E.g. Emergency vacation supply, weekend supply (when prescriber is unavailable to provide a renewal prescription)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16220"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"FF","display":"First Fill","definition":"The initial fill against an order. (This includes initial fills against refill orders.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16209"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"FS","display":"Floor stock","definition":"A supply action to restock a smaller more local dispensary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16222"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"MS","display":"Manufacturer Sample","definition":"A supply of a manufacturer sample","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16219"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"RF","display":"Refill","definition":"A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16215"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"UD","display":"Unit Dose","definition":"A supply action that provides sufficient material for a single dose.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16223"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"UDE","display":"unit dose equivalent","definition":"A supply action that provides sufficient material for a single dose via multiple products. E.g. 2 50mg tablets for a 100mg unit dose.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21824"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPharmacySupplyType"}]},{"code":"_ActConsent","display":"_ActConsent","definition":"Specifies the type or actual definition of a contractually binding agreement or a non-binding representation of that agreement between a grantor and a grantee as to the exchange of the grantee's considerations in return for the grantor's control of certain assets. The type of assets exchanged include rights, license, terms of service, valued items, information and real property assets and control over such assets such as physical and locatable property; intellectual property; biospecimen; genomic and genetic information related to an individual including that disclosed by genetically related individuals with or without the individual's consent; personal identifiable, pseudonymized, anonymized, de-identified per some rubric, and relinkable variants.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Types or actual definitions of a contractually binding agreement or a non-binding representation of that agreement include:\r\n\r\n * \\_ActDecision (formally ActConsentDirective), which specifies the type of decision made by the grantor. The decision types are mapped to ISO/TS 17975 Health informatics - Principles and data requirements for consent in the Collection, Use or Disclosure of personal health information;\r\n * \\_ActPrivacyConsentDirective, which is the parent of types of registry participation consent directives, and of realm specific privacy consent directive policies such as \\_USPrivacyConsentDirective and \\_GDPRPrivacyConsentDirective.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24098"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationActionPolicy","display":"_ActInformationActionPolicy","definition":"The type of action permitted on information by jurisdictional, organizational, or personal policy.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24087"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationPolicy","display":"_ActInformationPolicy","definition":"Information management directives related to privacy, security, integrity, and control concerns, which may be governed by specific laws; based on private sector self-governance; adopted \"best practices\" recognized by a community of interest; or terms of license, participation, or service as implemented in jurisdictional, organizational, or personal policies.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyPolicy","display":"ActPrivacyPolicy","definition":"A policy deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization.\r\n\r\n*Definition:* A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation relating to privacy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* ActPrivacyPolicyType codes support the designation of the 1..\\* policies that are applicable to an Act such as a Consent Directive, a Role such as a VIP Patient, or an Entity such as a patient who is a minor. 1..\\* ActPrivacyPolicyType values may be associated with an Act or Role to indicate the policies that govern the assignment of an Act or Role confidentialityCode. Use of multiple ActPrivacyPolicyType values enables fine grain specification of applicable policies, but must be carefully assigned to ensure cogency and avoid creation of conflicting policy mandates.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Statutory title may be named in the ActClassPolicy Act Act.title to specify which privacy policy is being referenced.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23323"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"ActTrustPolicyType","display":"trust policy","definition":"A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation conveyed as security metadata between senders and receivers required to establish the reliability, authenticity, and trustworthiness of their transactions.\r\n\r\nTrust security metadata are observation made about aspects of trust applicable to an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\nTrust applicable to IT resources is established and maintained in and among security domains, and may be comprised of observations about the domain's trust authority, trust framework, trust policy, trust interaction rules, means for assessing and monitoring adherence to trust policies, mechanisms that enforce trust, and quality and reliability measures of assurance in those mechanisms. \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1 and NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, identity proofing , level of assurance, and Trust Framework.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23658"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"COVPOL","display":"benefit policy","definition":"**Description:**A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation unilaterally imposed on benefit coverage under a policy or program by a sponsor, underwriter or payor on:\r\n\r\n * The activity of another party\r\n * The behavior of another party\r\n * The manner in which an act is executed\r\n\r\n**Examples:**A clinical protocol imposed by a payer to which a provider must adhere in order to be paid for providing the service. A formulary from which a provider must select prescribed drugs in order for the patient to incur a lower copay.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22183"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"SecurityPolicy","display":"security policy","definition":"Types of security policies that further specify the ActClassPolicy value set.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * obligation to encrypt\r\n * refrain from redisclosure without consent","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23371"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPolicyType"}]},{"code":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective","display":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective","definition":"European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) consent directives.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24109"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActGenericConsentDirective","display":"_ActGenericConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies types of consent directives authorizing a registry or repository to collect and, under certain terms, manage the access, use, and disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.\r\n\r\nRegistries governed by registry consent directives are data management systems, which use metadata to support the collection, access, use, and disclosure of personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects stored in federated repositories. Such registries are used for a variety of purposes by federated health information exchanges, health information systems, personal record systems, and research organizations to locate and retrieve personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information stored externally to their systems.\r\n\r\nRepositories governed by registry consent directives are data stores used to collect, access, use, and disclose personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects and metadata used to manage the repository contents. Such repositories are used for a variety of purposes by centralized health information exchanges, health information systems used by providers and payers, personal record systems, and research organizations. A repository typically includes a registry component that provides the data store with content management capabilities for internal purposes. A repository may also interface with one or more external registries, which provide federated content management.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specific US privacy consent directives in accordance with US federal, state, regional, organizational, or personal privacy policies.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw","display":"General Data Protection Regulation","definition":"GDPR is a regulation on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (Data Protection Directive). Promulgated by the European Parliament and Council of the European Union. Regulation available at L119, 4 May 2016, p. 1-88.\r\n\r\nGDPR privacy policies specifying types of lawful personal data processing based on a controller meeting one or more processing condition such as specified by law, compliance with data controller legal obligations, protection of data subject's vital interests, perform tasks in the public interest, related to legal claims, research and statistics, management of health or social care systems, legitimate interests of controller or third party. Processing sensitive personal data, including genetic, biometric and health data, as well as personal data from which racial and ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or ideological convictions or membership in a union can be attributed to a person, requires meeting at least one sensitive personal processing condition.\r\n\r\nGDPR 'processing' means any operation or set of operations which is performed on personal data or on sets of personal data, whether or not by automated means, such as collection, recording, organisation, structuring, storage, adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making available, alignment or combination, restriction, erasure or destruction. Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\n * Confidentiality: e.g., U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; L (low) for pseudonymized U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; M (moderate) for indirectly identifiable information such as test scores and work times; N (normal) for personal information; and R (restricted) for sensitive personal information\r\n * DPR sensitivity \\[personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation, some of which are defined at Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n * GDPR processing policies and GDPR ConsentDirectiveTypes, such as data subject consent and research consent.\r\n * Other security category codes, such as compartment codes for legitimate relationship,\r\n * Handling instructions including\r\n * Purpose of use stipulated in a GDPR consent or contract restricting processing or related to the scope of the processing policy such as public health, research, and legal obligations\r\n * Obligation policies such as GDPR Information Obligations https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/information-obligations, data minimization and deleting when processing is complete\r\n * Refrain policies such as no relinking\r\n\r\nSee Intersoft GDPR at https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/personal-data/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ Relevant Recitals (26) Not applicable to anonymous data (30) Online identifiers for profiling and identification (34) Genetic data (35) Health data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data at Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/\r\n\r\nAuthorities\r\n\r\n * European Data Protection Supervisor - Security Measures for Personal Data Processing (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority Isle of Man - Know your data - Mapping the 5 W's (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority UK - Key definitions (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What is personal data? (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What personal data is considered sensitive? (Link)\r\n * EU publications - Handbook on European data protection law - Personal data, page 83 (Link)\r\n\r\nExpert contribution A&L Goodbody - The GDPR: A Guide for Businesses - Definition of Personal & Sensitive Data, Page 8 (Link) Bird & Bird - Sensitive data and lawful processing (Link) https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/justice-and-fundamental-rights/data-protection/2018-reform-eu-data-protection-rules\\_en General Data Protection Regulation https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1528874672298&uri=CELEX%3A32016R0679 Communication on data protection - guidance on direct application of the GDPR http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1517578296944&uri=CELEX%3A52018DC0043 Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","display":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","definition":"*Definition:* A jurisdictional mandate in the U.S. relating to privacy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActPrivacyLaw codes may be associated with an Act or a Role to indicate the legal provision to which the assignment of an Act.confidentialityCode or Role.confidentialtyCode complies. May be used to further specify rationale for assignment of other ActPrivacyPolicy codes in the US realm, e.g., ETH and 42CFRPart2 can be differentiated from ETH and Title38Part1.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23760"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentDirective","display":"ActConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyLaw","display":"ActPrivacyLaw","definition":"A jurisdictional mandate, regulation, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization, which is imposed on:\r\n\r\n * The activity of a governed party\r\n * The behavior of a governed party\r\n * The manner in which an act is executed by a governed party","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23328"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation characterizing the value or importance of a resource and may include its vulnerability. (Based on ISO7498-2:1989. Note: The vulnerability of personally identifiable sensitive information may be based on concerns that the unauthorized disclosure may result in social stigmatization or discrimination.) Description: Types of Sensitivity policy that apply to Acts or Roles. A sensitivity policy is adopted by an enterprise or group of enterprises (a 'policy domain') through a formal data use agreement that stipulates the value, importance, and vulnerability of information. A sensitivity code representing a sensitivity policy may be associated with criteria such as categories of information or sets of information identifiers (e.g., a value set of clinical codes or branch in a code system hierarchy). These criteria may in turn be used for the Policy Decision Point in a Security Engine. A sensitivity code may be used to set the confidentiality code used on information about Acts and Roles to trigger the security mechanisms required to control how security principals (i.e., a person, a machine, a software application) may act on the information (e.g., collection, access, use, or disclosure). Sensitivity codes are never assigned to the transport or business envelope containing patient specific information being exchanged outside of a policy domain as this would disclose the information intended to be protected by the policy. When sensitive information is exchanged with others outside of a policy domain, the confidentiality code on the transport or business envelope conveys the receiver's responsibilities and indicates the how the information is to be safeguarded without unauthorized disclosure of the sensitive information. This ensures that sensitive information is treated by receivers as the sender intends, accomplishing interoperability without point to point negotiations.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an employee's sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. 'Taboo' would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly. Sensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable InformationSensitivityPolicy Act.code may be useful in some scenarios if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23329"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"COMPT","display":"compartment","definition":"This is the healthcare analog to the US Intelligence Community's concept of a Special Access Program. Compartment codes may be used in as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in security category label field.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 2382-8 definition of Compartment - \"A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceCode","display":"ActBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services, as opposed to codes for similar services used to identify them for functional purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"**Description:**An identifying code for oral health interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22178"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"LOAN","display":"Loan","definition":"Temporary supply of a product without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"TRANSFER","display":"Transfer","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"CHAR","display":"charity program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided directly to a beneficiary who typically has no other source of coverage without charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided to crime victims for injuries or losses related to the occurrence of a crime.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22124"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EAP","display":"employee assistance program","definition":"**Definition:** An employee assistance program is run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits and covering all or part of the cost for employees to receive counseling, referrals, and advice in dealing with stressful issues in their lives. These may include substance abuse, bereavement, marital problems, weight issues, or general wellness issues. The services are usually provided by a third-party, rather than the company itself, and the company receives only summary statistical data from the service provider. Employee's names and services received are kept confidential.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22125"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"GOVEMP","display":"government employee health program","definition":"**Definition:** A set of codes used to indicate a government program that is an organized structure for administering and funding coverage of a benefit package for covered parties meeting eligibility criteria, typically related to employment, health and financial status. Government programs are established or permitted by legislation with provisions for ongoing government oversight. Regulation mandates the structure of the program, the manner in which it is funded and administered, covered benefits, provider types, eligibility criteria and financial participation. A government agency is charged with implementing the program in accordance to the regulation\r\n\r\n**Example:** Federal employee health benefit program in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22126"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HIRISK","display":"high risk pool program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides health coverage to individuals who are considered medically uninsurable or high risk, and who have been denied health insurance due to a serious health condition. In certain cases, it also applies to those who have been quoted very high premiums a\" again, due to a serious health condition. The pool charges premiums for coverage. Because the pool covers high-risk people, it incurs a higher level of claims than premiums can cover. The insurance industry pays into the pool to make up the difference and help it remain viable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22127"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"indigenous peoples health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated indigenous peoples health programs.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Indian Health Service in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22128"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MILITARY","display":"military health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides coverage for health services to military personnel, retirees, and dependents. A covered party who is a subscriber can choose from among Fee-for-Service (FFS) plans, and their Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO), or Plans offering a Point of Service (POS) Product, or Health Maintenance Organizations.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., TRICARE, CHAMPUS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"RETIRE","display":"retiree health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government mandated program with specific eligibility requirements based on premium contributions made during employment, length of employment, age, and employment status, e.g., being retired, disabled, or a dependent of a covered party under this program. Benefits typically include ambulatory, inpatient, and long-term care, such as hospice care, home health care and respite care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SOCIAL","display":"social service program","definition":"**Definition:** A social service program funded by a public or governmental entity.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Programs providing habilitation, food, lodging, medicine, transportation, equipment, devices, products, education, training, counseling, alteration of living or work space, and other resources to persons meeting eligibility criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22144"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VET","display":"veteran health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated veteran health programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22145"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SREC","display":"specimen received","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been received by the participating organization/department.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21675"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"SSTOR","display":"specimen in storage","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been placed into storage at a participating location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"STRAN","display":"specimen in transit","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been put in transit to a participating receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"ACID","display":"Acidification","definition":"The lowering of specimen pH through the addition of an acid","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ALK","display":"Alkalization","definition":"The act rendering alkaline by impregnating with an alkali; a conferring of alkaline qualities.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"DEFB","display":"Defibrination","definition":"The removal of fibrin from whole blood or plasma through physical or chemical means","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"FILT","display":"Filtration","definition":"The passage of a liquid through a filter, accomplished by gravity, pressure or vacuum (suction).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"LDLP","display":"LDL Precipitation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"NEUT","display":"Neutralization","definition":"The act or process by which an acid and a base are combined in such proportions that the resulting compound is neutral.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"RECA","display":"Recalcification","definition":"The addition of calcium back to a specimen after it was removed by chelating agents","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"UFIL","display":"Ultrafiltration","definition":"The filtration of a colloidal substance through a semipermeable medium that allows only the passage of small molecules.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ARTBLD","display":"ActSpecObsArtBldCode","definition":"Describes the artificial blood identifier that is associated with the specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DILUTION","display":"ActSpecObsDilutionCode","definition":"An observation that reports the dilution of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"EVNFCTS","display":"ActSpecObsEvntfctsCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActLabObsEnvfctsCode domain. (Environmental Factors)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"INTFR","display":"ActSpecObsInterferenceCode","definition":"An observation that relates to factors that may potentially cause interference with the observation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"VOLUME","display":"ActSpecObsVolumeCode","definition":"An observation that reports the volume of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14369"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DRUG","display":"Drug therapy","definition":"The introduction of a drug into a subject with the intention of altering its biologic state with the intent of improving its health status.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21518"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"FD","display":"food","definition":"**Description:** The introduction of material into a subject with the intent of providing nutrition or other dietary supplements (e.g. minerals or vitamins).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUNIZ","display":"Immunization","definition":"The introduction of an immunogen with the intent of stimulating an immune response, aimed at preventing subsequent infections by more viable agents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21519"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","display":"AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Administration of the proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated as proposed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode","display":"SupplyDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Supplying the product at this time may be inappropriate or indicate compliance issues with the associated therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HISTORIC","display":"record recorded as historical","definition":"**Description:** While the record was accepted in the repository, there is a more recent version of a record of this type.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23273"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"PATPREF","display":"violates stated preferences","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OE","display":"order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a service to be performed for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATDOC","display":"patient documentation task","definition":"A person enters documentation about a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATINFO","display":"patient information review task","definition":"A person (e.g., clinician, the patient herself) reviews patient information in the electronic medical record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode","display":"act medication therapy duration working list","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies different types of 'duration-based' mediation working lists.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Continuous/Chronic\" \"Short-Term\" and \"As Needed\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientTransportationModeCode","display":"ActPatientTransportationModeCode","definition":"Definition: Characterizes how a patient was or will be transported to the site of a patient encounter.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via ambulance, via public transit, on foot.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTransportationModeCode"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2CD","display":"42 CFR Part 2 consent directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's privacy consent directive that complies with 42 CFR Part 2.31 Consent requirements https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-31.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a written consent to a disclosure under the regulations in Part 2.\r\n\r\n(1) The name of the patient. (2) The specific name(s) or general designation(s) of the part 2 program(s), entity(ies), or individual(s) permitted to make the disclosure. (3) How much and what kind of information is to be disclosed, including an explicit description of the substance use disorder information that may be disclosed. (4) (i) The name(s) of the individual(s) to whom a disclosure is to be made; or (ii)Entities with a treating provider relationship with the patient. If the recipient entity has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed, such as a hospital, a health care clinic, or a private practice, the name of that entity; or (iii)Entities without a treating provider relationship with the patient. (A) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is a third-party payer, the name of the entity; or (B) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is not covered by paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, such as an entity that facilitates the exchange of health information or a research institution, the name(s) of the entity(-ies); and (1) The name(s) of an individual participant(s); or (2) The name(s) of an entity participant(s) that has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed; or (3) A general designation of an individual or entity participant(s) or class of participants that must be limited to a participant(s) who has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed. (i) When using a general designation, a statement must be included on the consent form that the patient (or other individual authorized to sign in lieu of the patient), confirms their understanding that, upon their request and consistent with this part, they must be provided a list of entities to which their information has been disclosed pursuant to the general designation (see Section 2.13(d)). (ii) \\[Reserved\\] (5) The purpose of the disclosure. In accordance with Section 2.13(a), the disclosure must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the stated purpose. (6) A statement that the consent is subject to revocation at any time except to the extent that the part 2 program or other lawful holder of patient identifying information that is permitted to make the disclosure has already acted in reliance on it. Acting in reliance includes the provision of treatment services in reliance on a valid consent to disclose information to a third-party payer (7) The date, event, or condition upon which the consent will expire if not revoked before. This date, event, or condition must ensure that the consent will last no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is provided. (8) The signature of the patient and, when required for a patient who is a minor, the signature of an individual authorized to give consent under Section 2.14; or, when required for a patient who is incompetent or deceased, the signature of an individual authorized to sign under Section 2.15. Electronic signatures are permitted to the extent that they are not prohibited by any applicable law. (9) The date on which the consent is signed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive, \"42CFRPart2CD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR § 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"CompoundResearchCD","display":"Compound HIPAA Research Authorization and Informed Consent for Research","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research when combined with a Common Rule or Federal Drug Administration consent to participate in research also known as a compound authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) has developed the Informed Consent and Authorization Toolkit for Minimal Risk Research to facilitate the process of obtaining informed consent and Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) authorization from potential research subjects. This toolkit contains information for people responsible for ensuring that potential research subjects are informed in a manner that is consistent with medical ethics and regulatory guidelines. From https://www.ahrq.gov/sites/default/files/publications/files/ictoolkit.pdf.\r\n\r\nUsed to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"CompoundResearchCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section.\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\nA HIPAA Authorization must comply with 45 CFR Section164.508(c) Implementation specifications: Core elements and requirements - (1) Core elements. A valid authorization under this Section must contain at least the following elements: (i) A description of the information to be used or disclosed that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful fashion. (ii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, authorized to make the requested use or disclosure. (iii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, to whom the covered entity may make the requested use or disclosure. (iv) A description of each purpose of the requested use or disclosure. The statement \"at the request of the individual\" is a sufficient description of the purpose when an individual initiates the authorization and does not, or elects not to, provide a statement of the purpose. (v) An expiration date or an expiration event that relates to the individual or the purpose of the use or disclosure. The statement \"end of the research study,\" \"none,\" or similar language is sufficient if the authorization is for a use or disclosure of protected health information for research, including for the creation and maintenance of a research database or research repository. (vi) Signature of the individual and date. If the authorization is signed by a personal representative of the individual, a description of such representative's authority to act for the individual must also be provided. (2)Required statements. In addition to the core elements, the authorization must contain statements adequate to place the individual on notice of all of the following: (i) The individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and either: (A) The exceptions to the right to revoke and a description of how the individual may revoke the authorization; or (B) To the extent that the information in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is included in the notice required by Section 164.520, a reference to the covered entity's notice. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsentCD","display":"HIPAA Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's consent directive under 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsentCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAResearchAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"HIPAAResearchAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROAD","display":"HIPAA Right of Access Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf, stipulating the policy elements of an individual's written and signed right of access directive requesting that a covered entity send the individual's protected health information (PHI) to a third party.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.524(c)(3)(ii) If an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf\r\n\r\nThis right applies to PHI in a designated record set, which is defined as \"Designated record set means: (1) A group of records maintained by or for a covered entity that is: (i) The medical records and billing records about individuals maintained by or for a covered health care provider; (ii) The enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medical management record systems maintained by or for a health plan; or (iii) Used, in whole or in part, by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals. \\[https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/45/164.501\\]. Also see HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 \\[https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html\\#maximumflatfee\\].\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.524 use \"HIPAAROAD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health and substance use treatment in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014. In Michigan, while providers are not required to use this new standard form (MDHHS-5515), they are required to accept it.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2","display":"42 CFR Part2","definition":"A code representing 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records. 42 CFR Part 2 stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who has applied for or been given diagnosis or treatment for alcohol or drug abuse at a federally assisted program, which includes non-disclosure of health information relating to health care paid for by a federally assisted substance use disorder program without patient consent. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, and disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf use \"42CFRPart2\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 42 CFR Part 2 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23761"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"CommonRule","display":"Common Rule","definition":"A code representing U.S. Federal laws governing research-related privacy policies known as the \"Common Rule\". The Common Rule is the U.S. Federal regulations governing the protection of human subjects in research (codified at Subpart A of 45 CFR part 46), which has been adopted by 15 U.S. Federal departments and agencies in an effort to promote uniformity, understanding, and compliance with human subject protections. Existing regulations governing the protection of human subjects in Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-regulated research (21 CFR parts 50, 56, 312, and 812) are separate from the Common Rule but include similar requirements.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information or biospecimen is governed by the Common Rule use \"COMMONRULE\" as the security label policy code. Information or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23762"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuth","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508) Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual to use or disclose protected health information for other purposes, or to authorize another covered entity to disclose protected health information to the requesting covered entity, are termed \"authorizations\".\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where use or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuth\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent\".\r\n\r\nThe Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use 'HIPAAConsent' as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code 'R' (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAANOPP","display":"HIPAA notice of privacy practices","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.520), which stipulates an individual's right to adequate notice of the uses and disclosures of protected health information that may be made by the covered entity, and of the individual's rights and the covered entity's legal duties with respect to protected health information. Relevant HIPAA Privacy Rule provisions are at Section 164.520 (a) Standard: Notice of privacy practices. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-520.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, if collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices, use \"HIPAANOPP\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23763"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAPsyNotes","display":"HIPAA psychotherapy notes","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508), which stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who is the subject of psychotherapy notes, and requires authorization for certain uses and disclosure of that information.\r\n\r\nDefinition of Psychotherapy notes 45 CFR Section 164.501 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-501.pdf: Psychotherapy notes means notes recorded (in any medium) by a health care provider who is a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversation during a private counseling session or a group, joint, or family counseling session and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record. Psychotherapy notes excludes medication prescription and monitoring, counseling session start and stop times, the modalities and frequencies of treatment furnished, results of clinical tests, and any summary of the following items: Diagnosis, functional status, the treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.\r\n\r\nSee Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required. (2)Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf: Notwithstanding any provision of this subpart, other than the transition provisions in Section 164.532, a covered entity must obtain an authorization for any use or disclosure of psychotherapy notes, except: (i) To carry out the following treatment, payment, or health care operations: (A) Use by the originator of the psychotherapy notes for treatment; (B) Use or disclosure by the covered entity for its own training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in mental health learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills in group, joint, family, or individual counseling; or (C) Use or disclosure by the covered entity to defend itself in a legal action or other proceeding brought by the individual; and (ii) A use or disclosure that is required by Section 164.502(a)(2)(ii) or permitted by Section 164.512(a); Section 164.512(d) with respect to the oversight of the originator of the psychotherapy notes; Section 164.512(g)(1); Section 164.512(j)(1)(i).\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , use \"HIPAAPsyNotes\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23764"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROA","display":"HIPAA Right of Access","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.govinfo.gov/app/details/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524, which stipulates that an individual has a right of access to inspect and obtain a copy of protected health information about the individual in a designated record set, for as long as the protected health information is maintained in the designated record set with exceptions stipulated in HIPAA Privacy Rule Section 164.524. Exceptions include psychotherapy notes and information compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or for use in, a civil, criminal, or administrative action or proceeding.\r\n\r\nIf an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information.\r\n\r\nFor discussion on extent of right, grounds for denial, and documentation requirements see: HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html and HHS FAQ on Right of Access vs. HIPAA Authorization https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/2041/why-depend-on-the-individuals-right/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed under 45 CFR Section 164.5224 use \"HIPAAROA\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAASelfPay","display":"HIPAA self-pay","definition":"A code representing 45 CFR 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of an individual to restrict disclosure of information related to health care items or services for which the individual pays out of pocket in full to a health plan or payer.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf. (vi) A covered entity must agree to the request of an individual to restrict disclosure of protected health information about the individual to a health plan if: (A) The disclosure is for the purpose of carrying out payment or health care operations and is not otherwise required by law; and (B) The protected health information pertains solely to a health care item or service for which the individual, or person other than the health plan on behalf of the individual, has paid the covered entity in full.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf use \"HIPAASelfPay\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23765"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"Title38Section7332","display":"Title 38 Section 7332","definition":"A code representing Title 38 Section 7332, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of veterans diagnosed and treated for substance use disorders, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia.\r\n\r\nhttps://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html . (1) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any patient or subject which are maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity (including education, training, treatment, rehabilitation, or research) relating to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia which is carried out by or for the Department under this title shall, except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), be confidential, and (section 5701 of this title to the contrary notwithstanding) such records may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized under subsection (b). (2) Paragraph (1) prohibits the disclosure to any person or entity other than the patient or subject concerned of the fact that a special written consent is required in order for such records to be disclosed. (b) (1) The content of any record referred to in subsection (a) may be disclosed by the Secretary in accordance with the prior written consent of the patient or subject with respect to whom such record is maintained, but only to such extent, under such circumstances, and for such purposes as may be allowed in regulations prescribed by the Secretary. (2) Whether or not any patient or subject, with respect to whom any given record referred to in subsection (a) is maintained, gives written consent, the content of such record may be disclosed by the Secretary as follows: (A) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a bona fide medical emergency. (B) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or program evaluation, but such personnel may not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient or subject in any report of such research, audit, or evaluation, or otherwise disclose patient or subject identities in any manner. (C) (i) In the case of any record which is maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, to a Federal, State, or local public-health authority charged under Federal or State law with the protection of the public health, and to which Federal or State law requires disclosure of such record, if a qualified representative of such authority has made a written request that such record be provided as required pursuant to such law for a purpose authorized by such law. (ii) A person to whom a record is disclosed under this paragraph may not redisclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made. (D) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of competent jurisdiction granted after application showing good cause therefor. In assessing good cause the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient or subject, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized disclosure. (E) To an entity described in paragraph (1)(B) of section 5701(k) of this title, but only to the extent authorized by such section. (F) (i) To a representative of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity, when a practitioner deems the content of the given record necessary for that representative to make an informed decision regarding the patient's treatment. (ii) In this subparagraph, the term \"representative\" means an individual, organization, or other body authorized under section 7331 of this title and its implementing regulations to give informed consent on behalf of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity. (G) To a State controlled substance monitoring program, including a program approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 280g-3), to the extent necessary to prevent misuse and diversion of prescription medicines. (H) (i) To a non-Department entity (including private entities and other Federal agencies) for purposes of providing health care, including hospital care, medical services, and extended care services, to Veterans or performing other health care-related activities or functions. (ii) An entity to which a record is disclosed under this subparagraph may not disclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made or as permitted by law. (I) To a third party in order to recover or collect reasonable charges for care furnished to, or paid on behalf of, a Veteran in connection with a non-service connected disability as permitted by section 1729 of this title or for a condition for which recovery is authorized or with respect to which the United States is deemed to be a third party beneficiary under the Act entitled 'An Act to provide for the recovery from tortiously liable third persons of the cost of hospital and medical care and treatment furnished by the United States' (Public Law 87-693; 42 U.S.C. 2651 et seq.; commonly known as the 'Federal Medical Care Recovery Act').\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 38 U.S. Code Section 7332 - Confidentiality of certain medical records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html use \"Title38Section7332\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a Title 38 Section 7332 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23766"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"a) HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"Code retired in December 2019 and replaced by code HIPAAConsent. Originally entered with copy/paste error in code value.\r\n\r\nA code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\" The Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsent\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedAssent","display":"Informed Assent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in research. Assent means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in a clinical investigation. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent. The minor's assent must be accompanied by parental or guardian consent that the minor participate in a specified research. The assent is not legally binding, however, the accompanying consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 21 CFR Part 50, Subpart D - Additional Safeguards for Children in Clinical Investigations. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/21/part-50/subpart-D","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedConsent","display":"Informed Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in a specified research study. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USBroadResearchConsent","display":"Broad Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in unspecified research studies, including storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable biospecimens and data. If broad consent is obtained, any subsequent storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of the individual’s identifiable biospecimens and data consistent with the broad consent would not require additional consent, so long as additional conditions are met, including limited review by an IRB. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","display":"AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"COMPLY","display":"Compliance Alert","definition":"There may be an issue with the patient complying with the intentions of the proposed therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DACT","display":"drug action detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"DOSE","display":"Dosage problem","definition":"Proposed dosage instructions for therapy differ from standard practice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16680"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DUPTHPY","display":"Duplicate Therapy Alert","definition":"The proposed therapy appears to duplicate an existing therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"TIME","display":"timing detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode","display":"TimingDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientAnnotationType","display":"ActPatientAnnotationType","definition":"**Description:**Provides a categorization for annotations recorded directly against the patient .","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_ECGAnnotationType","display":"ECGAnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode","display":"InteractionDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSA","display":"Observation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to conditions or characteristics of the patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"PREVINEF","display":"previously ineffective","definition":"**Definition:**The same or similar treatment has previously been attempted with the patient without achieving a positive effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22834"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"EMAUTH","display":"emergency authorization override","definition":"Used to temporarily override normal authorization rules to gain access to data in a case of emergency. Use of this override code will typically be monitored, and a procedure to verify its proper use may be triggered when used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"AIRTRNS","display":"airborne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through indirect contact via oral or nasal inhalation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANANTRNS","display":"animal to animal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one animal to another proximate animal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANHUMTRNS","display":"animal to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an animal to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BDYFLDTRNS","display":"body fluid contact transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with any body fluid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21911"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BLDTRNS","display":"blood borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products whether the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure or not.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"DERMTRNS","display":"transdermal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject via agent migration through intact skin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ENVTRNS","display":"environmental exposure transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an environmental surface or source to a living subject by direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FECTRNS","display":"fecal-oral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through oral contact with material contaminated by person or animal fecal material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21916"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOMTRNS","display":"fomite transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an non-living material to a living subject through direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOODTRNS","display":"food-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a food source to a living subject via oral consumption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"HUMHUMTRNS","display":"human to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a person to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21919"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"INDTRNS","display":"indeterminate disease transmission mode","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject via an undetermined route.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"LACTTRNS","display":"lactation transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with mammalian milk or colostrum.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"NOSTRNS","display":"nosocomial transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from any entity to a living subject while the living subject is in the patient role in a healthcare facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21921"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PARTRNS","display":"parenteral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject where the acquisition of the agent is not via the alimentary canal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PLACTRNS","display":"transplacental transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject to the progeny of that living subject via agent migration across the maternal-fetal placental membranes while in utero.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"SEXTRNS","display":"sexual transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with genital or oral tissues as part of a sexual act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"TRNSFTRNS","display":"transfusion transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products where the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"VECTRNS","display":"vector-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject acting as a required intermediary in the agent transmission process to a recipient living subject via direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"WATTRNS","display":"water-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a contaminated water source to a living subject whether the water is ingested as a food or not. The route of entry of the water may be through any bodily orifice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"REPRESENTATIVE_BEAT","display":"ECG representative beat waveforms","definition":"This Observation Series type contains waveforms of a \"representative beat\" (a.k.a. \"median beat\" or \"average beat\"). The waveform samples are measured in relative time, relative to the beginning of the beat as defined by the Observation Series effective time. The waveforms are not directly acquired from the subject, but rather algorithmically derived from the \"rhythm\" waveforms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"RHYTHM","display":"ECG rhythm waveforms","definition":"This Observation type contains ECG \"rhythm\" waveforms. The waveform samples are measured in absolute time (a.k.a. \"subject time\" or \"effective time\"). These waveforms are usually \"raw\" with some minimal amount of noise reduction and baseline filtering applied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19323"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"DEMO","display":"all demographic information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling all demographic information about an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to all demographic about an information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"DOB","display":"date of birth information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's date of birth, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality.Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's date of birth, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23353"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"GENDER","display":"gender and sexual orientation information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23354"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"LIVARG","display":"living arrangement information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's living arrangement, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's living arrangement, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23355"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"MARST","display":"marital status information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's marital status, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's marital status, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23356"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"PATLOC","display":"patient location","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an individual's location, which is deemed sensitive when the disclosure could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject, and requires additional protection.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional, organizational, or individual mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw or ActConsentDirective code from the ActCode system to and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"RACE","display":"race information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's race, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's race, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23357"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"REL","display":"religion information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's religious affiliation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's religion, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23358"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"FDACOATING","display":"coating","definition":"FDA label coating","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19260"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDACOLOR","display":"color","definition":"FDA label color","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19259"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDAIMPRINTCD","display":"imprint code","definition":"FDA label imprint code","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19256"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDALOGO","display":"logo","definition":"FDA label logo","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19262"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"FDA label scoring","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19261"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"FDA label shape","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19258"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASIZE","display":"size","definition":"FDA label size","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19257"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"GENE","display":"gene","definition":"**Description:** A DNA segment that contributes to phenotype/function. In the absence of demonstrated function a gene may be characterized by sequence, transcription or homology","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_GeneticObservationType"}]},{"code":"I","display":"Isolation","definition":"Accommodations used in the care of diseases that are transmitted through casual contact or respiratory transmission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"P","display":"Private","definition":"Accommodations in which there is only 1 bed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"S","display":"Suite","definition":"Uniquely designed and elegantly decorated accommodations with many amenities available for an additional charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"SP","display":"Semi-private","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 2 beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"W","display":"Ward","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 3 or more beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20866"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_HL7TriggerEventCode","display":"HL7TriggerEventCode","definition":"The trigger event referenced by the Control Act instance. Values are drawn from the available trigger events used in the release of HL7 identified by the versionCode.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationActCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationActCode","definition":"The specific chemical or radiological substance administered or to be administered into the body for therapeutic effect.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"OBSANTC","display":"antigen count","definition":"**Description:** Indicates the valid antigen count.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"OBSANTV","display":"antigen validity","definition":"**Description:** Indicates whether an antigen is valid or invalid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23242"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"PAT_ADV_EVNT","display":"patient adverse event","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing problems that a patient experienced after receiving a vaccine product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"VAC_PROBLEM","display":"vaccine product problem","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing a problem with the actual vaccine product such as physical defects (cloudy, particulate matter) or inability to confer immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType","display":"EntityInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that may apply to a sensitive attribute on an Entity.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* EntitySensitivity codes are used to convey a policy that is applicable to sensitive information conveyed by an entity attribute. May be used to bind a Role.confidentialityCode associated with an Entity per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23351"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Roles.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\""},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23346"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ADOL","display":"adolescent information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an adolescent, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality per applicable organizational or jurisdictional policy. An enterprise may have a policy that requires that adolescent patient information be provided heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which an adolescent is the information subject. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23330"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"CEL","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"VIP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIP","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CEL"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DIA","display":"diagnosis information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a diagnosis, health condition or health problem, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23332"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRGIS","display":"drug information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a drug, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Drug information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to drug information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"employee information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PDS","display":"patient default information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which is deemed sensitive within the enterprise (i.e., by default regardless of whether the patient requested that the information be deemed sensitive for another reason.) For example information reported by the patient about another person, e.g., a family member, may be deemed sensitive by default. Organizational policy may allow the sensitivity tag to be cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nFor example, VA deems employee information sensitive by default. Information about a patient who is being stalked or a victim of abuse or violence may be deemed sensitive by default per a provider organization's policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PHY","display":"physician requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about a patient, which a physician or other licensed healthcare provider deems sensitive. Once tagged by the provider, this may trigger alerts for follow up actions according to organizational policy or jurisdictional law.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to certain types of information designated by a physician as sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nUse cases in which this code could be used are, e.g., in systems that lack the ability to automatically detect sensitive information and must rely on manual tagging; a system that lacks an applicable sensitivity tag, or for ad hoc situations where criticality of the situation requires that the tagging be done immediately by the provider before coding or transcription of consult notes can be completed, e.g., upon detection of a patient with suicidal tendencies or potential for violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23931"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRS","display":"patient requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which the patient deems sensitive, and the patient requests that collection, access, use, or disclosure of that information be restricted. For example, a minor patient may request that information about reproductive health not be disclosed to the patient's family or to particular providers and payers.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"FOOD","display":"Food Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with certain foods","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TPROD","display":"Therapeutic Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent therapeutic product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17807"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time 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adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17542"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17536"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17535"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual amout","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17538"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17537"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17532"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17531"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17534"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17533"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17560"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17559"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17562"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17561"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17557"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17573"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17569"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17568"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17571"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17570"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17564"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17567"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17566"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"SBBLELAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLELCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"21611-9","display":"age patient qn est","definition":"**Definition:**Estimated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"21612-7","display":"age patient qn reported","definition":"**Definition:**Reported age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21631"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"29553-5","display":"age patient qn calc","definition":"**Definition:**Calculated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21632"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30525-0","display":"age patient qn definition","definition":"**Definition:**General specification of age with no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30972-4","display":"age at onset of adverse event","definition":"**Definition:**Age at onset of associated adverse event; no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21633"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"REP_HALF_LIFE","display":"representative half-life","definition":"**Description:**This observation represents an 'average' or 'expected' half-life typical of the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOATING","display":"coating","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, indicating whether it has one or more coatings such as sugar coating, film coating, or enteric coating. Only coatings to the external surface or the dosage form should be considered (for example, coatings to individual pellets or granules inside a capsule or tablet are excluded from consideration).\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true for the presence or false for the absence of one or more coatings on a solid dosage form.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21604"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOLOR","display":"color","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the color or colors that most predominantly define the appearance of the dose form. SPLCOLOR is not an FDA specification for the actual color of solid dosage forms or the names of colors that can appear in labeling.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a single coded value or a list of multiple coded values, specifying one or more distinct colors that approximate of the color(s) of distinct areas of the solid dosage form, such as the different sides of a tablet or one-part capsule, or the different halves of a two-part capsule. Bands on banded capsules, regardless of the color, are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. Imprints on the dosage form, regardless of their color are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. If more than one color exists on a particular side or half, then the most predominant color on that side or half is recorded. If the gelatin capsule shell is colorless and transparent, use the predominant color of the contents that appears through the colorless and transparent capsule shell. Colors can include: Black;Gray;White;Red;Pink;Purple;Green;Yellow;Orange;Brown;Blue;Turquoise.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21608"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMAGE","display":"image","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic representing a single file reference that contains two or more views of the same dosage form of the product; in most cases this should represent front and back views of the dosage form, but occasionally additional views might be needed in order to capture all of the important physical characteristics of the dosage form. Any imprint and/or symbol should be clearly identifiable, and the viewer should not normally need to rotate the image in order to read it. Images that are submitted with SPL should be included in the same directory as the SPL file.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21610"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMPRINT","display":"imprint","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the alphanumeric text that appears on the solid dosage form, including text that is embossed, debossed, engraved or printed with ink. The presence of other non-textual distinguishing marks or symbols is recorded by SPLSYMBOL.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Included in SPLIMPRINT are alphanumeric text that appears on the bands of banded capsules and logos and other symbols that can be interpreted as letters or numbers.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be of type Character String (ST). Excluded from SPLIMPRINT are internal and external cut-outs in the form of alphanumeric text and the letter 'R' with a circle around it (when referring to a registered trademark) and the letters 'TM' (when referring to a 'trade mark'). To record text, begin on either side or part of the dosage form. Start at the top left and progress as one would normally read a book. Enter a semicolon to show separation between words or line divisions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21607"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the number of equal pieces that the solid dosage form can be divided into using score line(s).\r\n\r\n**Example:** One score line creating two equal pieces is given a value of 2, two parallel score lines creating three equal pieces is given a value of 3.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** Whether three parallel score lines create four equal pieces or two intersecting score lines create two equal pieces using one score line and four equal pieces using both score lines, both have the scoring value of 4. Solid dosage forms that are not scored are given a value of 1. Solid dosage forms that can only be divided into unequal pieces are given a null-value with nullFlavor other (OTH).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21606"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the two dimensional representation of the solid dose form, in terms of the outside perimeter of a solid dosage form when the dosage form, resting on a flat surface, is viewed from directly above, including slight rounding of corners. SPLSHAPE does not include embossing, scoring, debossing, or internal cut-outs. SPLSHAPE is independent of the orientation of the imprint and logo. Shapes can include: Triangle (3 sided); Square; Round; Semicircle; Pentagon (5 sided); Diamond; Double circle; Bullet; Hexagon (6 sided); Rectangle; Gear; Capsule; Heptagon (7 sided); Trapezoid; Oval; Clover; Octagon (8 sided); Tear; Freeform.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21609"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSIZE","display":"size","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the longest single dimension of the solid dosage form as a physical quantity in the dimension of length (e.g., 3 mm). The length is should be specified in millimeters and should be rounded to the nearest whole millimeter.\r\n\r\n**Example:** SPLSIZE for a rectangular shaped tablet is the length and SPLSIZE for a round shaped tablet is the diameter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21605"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSYMBOL","display":"symbol","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, to describe whether or not the medicinal product has a mark or symbol appearing on it for easy and definite recognition. Score lines, letters, numbers, and internal and external cut-outs are not considered marks or symbols. See SPLSCORING and SPLIMPRINT for these characteristics.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true indicating the presence and false for the absence of marks or symbols.\r\n\r\n**Example:**","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21603"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADMDX","display":"admitting diagnosis","definition":"Admitting diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the basis for a hospital admission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"DISDX","display":"discharge diagnosis","definition":"Discharge diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the time of hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"INTDX","display":"intermediate diagnosis","definition":"Intermediate diagnoses are those diagnoses documented for administrative purposes during the course of a hospital stay.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"NOI","display":"nature of injury","definition":"The type of injury that the injury coding specifies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"_CaseTransmissionMode","display":"case transmission mode","definition":"Code for the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case. Includes sexually transmitted, airborne, bloodborne, vectorborne, foodborne, zoonotic, nosocomial, mechanical, dermal, congenital, environmental exposure, indeterminate.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType"}]},{"code":"AGGREGATE","display":"aggregate measure observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is carrying out an aggregation calculation, contained in the value element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRMTH","display":"composite measure method","definition":"Indicates what method is used in a quality measure to combine the component measure results included in an composite measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRSCRWGHT","display":"component measure scoring weight","definition":"An attribute of a quality measure describing the weight this component measure score is to carry in determining the overall composite measure final score. The value is real value greater than 0 and less than 1.0. Each component measure score will be multiplied by its CMPMSRSCRWGHT and then summed with the other component measures to determine the final overall composite measure score. The sum across all CMPMSRSCRWGHT values within a single composite measure SHALL be 1.0. The value assigned is scoped to the composite measure referencing this component measure only.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23791"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"COPY","display":"copyright","definition":"Identifies the organization(s) who own the intellectual property represented by the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CRS","display":"clinical recommendation statement","definition":"Summary of relevant clinical guidelines or other clinical recommendations supporting this eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DEF","display":"definition","definition":"Description of individual terms, provided as needed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23433"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DISC","display":"disclaimer","definition":"Disclaimer information for the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"FINALDT","display":"finalized date/time","definition":"The timestamp when the eMeasure was last packaged in the Measure Authoring Tool.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23440"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"GUIDE","display":"guidance","definition":"Used to allow measure developers to provide additional guidance for implementers to understand greater specificity than could be provided in the logic for data criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23434"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"IDUR","display":"improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result (e.g., a higher score indicates better quality OR a lower score indicates better quality OR quality is within a range).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23431"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"ITMCNT","display":"items counted","definition":"Describes the items counted by the measure (e.g., patients, encounters, procedures, etc.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23441"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"KEY","display":"keyword","definition":"A significant word that aids in discoverability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MEDT","display":"measurement end date","definition":"The end date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23439"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSD","display":"measurement start date","definition":"The start date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23438"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRADJ","display":"risk adjustment","definition":"The method of adjusting for clinical severity and conditions present at the start of care that can influence patient outcomes for making valid comparisons of outcome measures across providers. Indicates whether an eMeasure is subject to the statistical process for reducing, removing, or clarifying the influences of confounding factors to allow more useful comparisons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRAGG","display":"rate aggregation","definition":"Describes how to combine information calculated based on logic in each of several populations into one summarized result. It can also be used to describe how to risk adjust the data based on supplemental data elements described in the eMeasure. (e.g., pneumonia hospital measures antibiotic selection in the ICU versus non-ICU and then the roll-up of the two).\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The description does NOT align well with the definition used in the HQMF specfication; correct the MSGAGG definition, and the possible distinction of MSRAGG as a child of AGGREGATE.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRIMPROV","display":"health quality measure improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result. This should reflect information on which way is better, an increase or decrease in score.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRJUR","display":"jurisdiction","definition":"The list of jurisdiction(s) for which the measure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTR","display":"reporter type","definition":"Type of person or organization that is expected to report the issue.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTTIME","display":"timeframe for reporting","definition":"The maximum time that may elapse following completion of the measure until the measure report must be sent to the receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSCORE","display":"measure scoring","definition":"Indicates how the calculation is performed for the eMeasure (e.g., proportion, continuous variable, ratio)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSET","display":"health quality measure care setting","definition":"Location(s) in which care being measured is rendered\r\n\r\nUsage Note: MSRSET is used rather than RoleCode because the setting applies to what is being measured, as opposed to participating directly in the health quality measure documantion itself).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTOPIC","display":"health quality measure topic type","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTP","display":"measurement period","definition":"The time period for which the eMeasure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23432"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTYPE","display":"measure type","definition":"Indicates whether the eMeasure is used to examine a process or an outcome over time (e.g., Structure, Process, Outcome).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23030"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"RAT","display":"rationale","definition":"Succinct statement of the need for the measure. Usually includes statements pertaining to Importance criterion: impact, gap in care and evidence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"REF","display":"reference","definition":"Identifies bibliographic citations or references to clinical practice guidelines, sources of evidence, or other relevant materials supporting the intent and rationale of the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"SDE","display":"supplemental data elements","definition":"Comparison of results across strata can be used to show where disparities exist or where there is a need to expose differences in results. For example, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) in the U.S. defines four required Supplemental Data Elements (payer, ethnicity, race, and gender), which are variables used to aggregate data into various subgroups. Additional supplemental data elements required for risk adjustment or other purposes of data aggregation can be included in the Supplemental Data Element section.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23437"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"STRAT","display":"stratification","definition":"Describes the strata for which the measure is to be evaluated. There are three examples of reasons for stratification based on existing work. These include: (1) evaluate the measure based on different age groupings within the population described in the measure (e.g., evaluate the whole \\[age 14-25\\] and each sub-stratum \\[14-19\\] and \\[20-25\\]); (2) evaluate the eMeasure based on either a specific condition, a specific discharge location, or both; (3) evaluate the eMeasure based on different locations within a facility (e.g., evaluate the overall rate for all intensive care units and also some strata include additional findings \\[specific birth weights for neonatal intensive care units\\]).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23435"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TRANF","display":"transmission format","definition":"Can be a URL or hyperlinks that link to the transmission formats that are specified for a particular reporting program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23436"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"USE","display":"notice of use","definition":"Usage notes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23025"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TIME_ABSOLUTE","display":"absolute time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in the \"absolute\" time domain. This is the same time domain that all HL7 timestamps use. It is time as measured by the Gregorian calendar","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"TIME_RELATIVE","display":"relative time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in a \"relative\" time domain. The time is measured relative to the earliest effective time in the Observation Series containing this sequence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSequenceType","display":"ECGObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSeriesType","display":"ECGObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBSSER"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecObsCode","display":"ActSpecObsCode","definition":"Identifies the type of observation that is made about a specimen that may affect its processing, analysis or further result interpretation","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCOBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20906"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AnnotationType","display":"AnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationType","display":"GeneticObservationType","definition":"**Description:** None provided","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22650"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ImmunizationObservationType","display":"ImmunizationObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Observation codes which describe characteristics of the immunization material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23241"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Type","definition":"A code that is used to indicate the type of case safety report received from sender. The current code example reference is from the International Conference on Harmonisation (ICH) Expert Workgroup guideline on Clinical Safety Data Management: Data Elements for Transmission of Individual Case Safety Reports. The unknown/unavailable option allows the transmission of information from a secondary sender where the initial sender did not specify the type of report.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: Spontaneous, Report from study, Other.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","display":"LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","definition":"**Definition:**The set of LOINC codes for the act of determining the period of time that has elapsed since an entity was born or created.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_MedicationObservationType","display":"MedicationObservationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes the kinds of coded observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. These are observations that are not measurable, but instead can be defined with codes. Coded observation types include: Allergy, Intolerance, Medical Condition, Pregnancy status, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21524"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","display":"ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","definition":"Codes used to define various metadata aspects of a health quality measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSequenceType","display":"ObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSeriesType","display":"ObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","display":"PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Reporting codes that are related to an immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23244"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType","display":"PopulationInclusionObservationType","definition":"Observation types for specifying criteria used to assert that a subject is included in a particular population.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23543"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PreferenceObservationType","display":"_PreferenceObservationType","definition":"Types of observations that can be made about Preferences.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADVERSE_REACTION","display":"Adverse Reaction","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of an unexpected negative occurrence in the subject suspected to result from the subject's exposure to one or more agents. Observation values would be the symptom resulting from the reaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ASSERTION","display":"Assertion","definition":"**Description:**Refines classCode OBS to indicate an observation in which observation.value contains a finding or other nominalized statement, where the encoded information in Observation.value is not altered by Observation.code. For instance, observation.code=\"ASSERTION\" and observation.value=\"fracture of femur present\" is an assertion of a clinical finding of femur fracture.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CASESER","display":"case seriousness criteria","definition":"**Definition:**An observation that provides a characterization of the level of harm to an investigation subject as a result of a reaction or event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22833"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CDIO","display":"case disease imported observation","definition":"An observation that states whether the disease was likely acquired outside the jurisdiction of observation, and if so, the nature of the inter-jurisdictional relationship.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23467"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CRIT","display":"criticality","definition":"A clinical judgment as to the worst case result of a future exposure (including substance administration). When the worst case result is assessed to have a life-threatening or organ system threatening potential, it is considered to be of high criticality.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CTMO","display":"case transmission mode observation","definition":"An observation that states the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23466"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"DX","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"DX"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"GISTIER","display":"GIS tier","definition":"**Description:** Accuracy determined as per the GIS tier code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"HHOBS","display":"household situation observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of a person’s living situation in a household including the household composition and circumstances.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ISSUE","display":"detected issue","definition":"There is a clinical issue for the therapy that makes continuation of the therapy inappropriate.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The definition of this code does not correctly represent the concept space of its specializations (children)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBJ","display":"knowledge subject","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture the main clinical knowledge subject which may be a medication, a laboratory test, a disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBT","display":"knowledge subtopic","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture a knowledge subtopic which might be treatment, etiology, or prognosis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"OINT","display":"intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to an agent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21498"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"SEV","display":"Severity Observation","definition":"A subjective evaluation of the seriousness or intensity associated with another observation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","definition":"This domain includes observations used to characterize a privilege, under which this additional information is classified.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*A privilege to prescribe drugs has a RESTRICTION that excludes prescribing narcotics; a surgical procedure privilege has a PRE-CONDITION that it requires prior Board approval.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21585"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","display":"AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","definition":"**Definition:** Indicates the class of actions taken with regard to a substance administration related adverse event. This characterization offers a judgment of the practitioner's response to the patient's problem.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Example values include dose withdrawn, dose reduced, dose not changed.\r\n\r\n**NOTE:** The concept domain is currently supported by a value set created by the International Conference on Harmonization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationType","display":"CommonClinicalObservationType","definition":"Used in a patient care message to report and query simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21527"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_FDALabelData","display":"FDALabelData","definition":"FDA label data","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestCode","display":"observation allergy test","definition":"**Description:**Dianostic procedures ordered or performed to evaluate whether a sensitivity to a substance is present. This test may be associated with specimen collection and/or substance administration challenge actiivities.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Skin tests and eosinophilia evaluations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21942"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestType","display":"ObservationAllergyTestType","definition":"Indicates the type of allergy test performed or to be performed. E.g. the specific antibody or skin test performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21494"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationCausalityAssessmentType","display":"observation causality assessment","definition":"**Description:**A kind of observation that allows a Secondary Observation (source act) to assert (at various levels of probability) that the target act of the association (which may be of any type of act) is implicated in the etiology of another observation that is named as the subject of the Secondary Observation\r\n\r\n**Example:**Causality assertions where an accident is the cause of a symptom; predisposition assertions where the genetic state plus environmental factors are implicated in the development of a disease; reaction assertions where a substance exposure is associated with a finding of wheezing.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21941"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDosageDefinitionPreconditionType","display":"observation dosage definition precondition type","definition":"**Definition:**\r\n\r\nThe set of observation type concepts that can be used to express pre-conditions to a particular dosage definition.\r\n\r\nRationale: Used to constrain the set of observations to those related to the applicability of a dosage, such as height, weight, age, pregnancy, liver function, kidney function, etc. For example, in drug master-file type records indicating when a specified dose is applicable.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","display":"ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIndicationType","display":"ObservationIndicationType","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes between the kinds of measurable observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. Measurable observation types include: Lab Results, Height, Weight.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21525"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQueryMatchType","display":"ObservationQueryMatchType","definition":"**Definition:** An observation related to a query response.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The degree of match or match weight returned by a matching algorithm in a response to a query.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","display":"ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the type of Vision Prescription Observation that is being described.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientCharacteristicObservationType","display":"PatientCharacteristicObservationType","definition":"Indicates the type of characteristics a patient should have for a given therapy to be appropriate. E.g. Weight, Age, certain lab values, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21526"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","display":"SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","definition":"Types of measurement observations typically performed in a clinical (non-lab) setting. E.g. Height, Weight, Blood-pressure","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21523"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CLSSRM","display":"classroom","definition":"**Description:** The class room associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"GRADE","display":"grade","definition":"**Description:** The school grade or level the patient was in when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHL","display":"school","definition":"**Description:** The school the patient attended when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHLDIV","display":"school division","definition":"**Description:** The school division or district associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"TEACHER","display":"teacher","definition":"**Description:** The patient's teacher when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Criteria which specify subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23544"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Criteria which specify the removal of a subject, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator, only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient (or subject) reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). The denominator can be the same as the initial population, or it may be a subset of the initial population to further constrain it for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different denominators. Continuous Variable eMeasures do not have a denominator, but instead define a measure population.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"IPOP","display":"initial population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23547"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSROBS","display":"measure observation","definition":"Defines the observation to be performed for each patient or event in the measure population. Measure observations for each case in the population are aggregated to determine the overall measure score for the population.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * the median time from arrival in the Emergency Room to departure\r\n * the median time from decision to admit to a hospital to the actual admission for Emergency Room patients","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23895"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the measure population as a narrative description (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period). This is used only in continuous variable eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23549"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPLEX","display":"measure population exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure's Initial Population and Measure Population. Measure Population Exclusions are used in Continuous Variable measures to help narrow the Measure Population before determining the value(s) of the continuous variable(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23550"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator for proportion measures, or related to (but not directly derived from) the denominator for ratio measures (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23551"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion). Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"PREFSTRENGTH","display":"preference strength","definition":"An observation about how important a preference is to the target of the preference.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PreferenceObservationType"}]},{"code":"CIRCLE","display":"circle","definition":"A circle defined by two (column,row) pairs. The first point is the center of the circle and the second point is a point on the perimeter of the circle.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"ELLIPSE","display":"ellipse","definition":"An ellipse defined by four (column,row) pairs, the first two points specifying the endpoints of the major axis and the second two points specifying the endpoints of the minor axis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POINT","display":"point","definition":"A single point denoted by a single (column,row) pair, or multiple points each denoted by a (column,row) pair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POLY","display":"polyline","definition":"A series of connected line segments with ordered vertices denoted by (column,row) pairs; if the first and last vertices are the same, it is a closed polygon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"B","display":"business information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling trade secrets such as financial information or intellectual property, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMPL","display":"employer information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employer which is deemed classified to protect an employee who is the information subject, and which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an employer, such as law enforcement or national security, the identity of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of an information subject who is an employee.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23348"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"LOCIS","display":"location information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to the location of the information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to the location of the information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23349"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SSP","display":"sensitive service provider information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a provider of sensitive services, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to providers who deliver sensitive healthcare services in order to protect the privacy, well-being, and safety of the provider and of patients receiving sensitive services.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23350"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLDONE","display":"already performed","definition":"**Definition:**The requested action has already been performed and so this request has no effect","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22847"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"FULFIL","display":"fulfillment alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is in some way out of alignment with the requested therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HELD","display":"held/suspended alert","definition":"**Definition:**There should be no actions taken in fulfillment of a request that has been held or suspended.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22848"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOLATE","display":"Refill Too Late Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly later than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOSOON","display":"Refill Too Soon Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly earlier than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ENDLATE","display":"End Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"STRTLATE","display":"Start Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"19","display":"Consulted Supplier","definition":"Consulted other supplier/pharmacy, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"2","display":"Assessed Patient","definition":"Assessed patient, therapy is appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"22","display":"appropriate indication or diagnosis","definition":"**Description:** The patient has the appropriate indication or diagnosis for the action to be taken.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"23","display":"prior therapy documented","definition":"**Description:** It has been confirmed that the appropriate pre-requisite therapy has been tried.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"3","display":"Patient Explanation","definition":"Patient gave adequate explanation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16698"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"4","display":"Consulted Other Source","definition":"Consulted other supply source, therapy still appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"5","display":"Consulted Prescriber","definition":"Consulted prescriber, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"7","display":"Interacting Therapy No Longer Active/Planned","definition":"Concurrent therapy triggering alert is no longer on-going or planned","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16702"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"15","display":"Replacement","definition":"Patient's existing supply was lost/wasted","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"16","display":"Vacation Supply","definition":"Supply date is due to patient vacation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"17","display":"Weekend Supply","definition":"Supply date is intended to carry patient over weekend","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"18","display":"Leave of Absence","definition":"Supply is intended for use during a leave of absence from an institution.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"20","display":"additional quantity on separate dispense","definition":"**Description:** Supply is different than expected as an additional quantity has been supplied in a separate dispense.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"6","display":"Prescriber Declined Change","definition":"Consulted prescriber and recommended change, prescriber declined","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16701"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"5"}]},{"code":"10","display":"Provided Patient Education","definition":"Provided education or training to the patient on appropriate therapy use","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16705"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"11","display":"Added Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Instituted an additional therapy to mitigate potential negative effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16706"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"12","display":"Temporarily Suspended Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Suspended existing therapy that triggered interaction for the duration of this therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16707"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"13","display":"Stopped Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Aborted existing therapy that triggered interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"9","display":"Instituted Ongoing Monitoring Program","definition":"Arranged to monitor patient for adverse effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16704"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"ANF","display":"adjudicated with adjustments and no financial impact","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges) without changing the amount.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AA"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRD","display":"trust accreditation","definition":"Type of security metadata about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGRE","display":"trust agreement","definition":"Type of security metadata about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTASSUR","display":"trust assurance","definition":"Type of security metadata about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERT","display":"trust certificate","definition":"Type of security metadata about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWK","display":"trust framework","definition":"Type of security metadata about a complete set of contracts, regulations, or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTMEC","display":"trust mechanism","definition":"Type of security metadata about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"ADALRT","display":"adult alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for an adult patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DOSEHINDA","display":"High Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage exceeds standard practice for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEH"}]},{"code":"DOSELINDA","display":"Low Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage is below suggested therapeutic levels for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17792"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEL"}]},{"code":"GEALRT","display":"geriatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of standard practice for a geriatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"PEALRT","display":"pediatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for a pediatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DALG","display":"Drug Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a pharmaceutical product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21504"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"}]},{"code":"EALG","display":"Environmental Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance other than a drug or a food. E.g. Latex, pollen, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21506"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"EINT"}]},{"code":"FALG","display":"Food Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance generally consumed for nutritional purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21505"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"}]},{"code":"AMBAIR","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"Fixed-wingAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"Fixed-wingAmbulance","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBAIR"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBGRND","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"GroundAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"GroundAmbulance","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBGRND"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBHELO","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"HelicopterAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"HelicopterAmbulance","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBHELO"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"ACCESSCONSCHEME","display":"access control scheme","definition":"An access control policy specific to the type of access control scheme, which is used to enforce one or more authorization policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Access control schemes are the type of access control policy, which is comprised of access control policy rules concerning the provision of the access control service.\r\n\r\nThere are two categories of access control policies, rule-based and identity-based, which are identified in CCITT Rec. X.800 aka ISO 7498-2. Rule-based access control policies are intended to apply to all access requests by any initiator on any target in a security domain. Identity-based access control policies are based on rules specific to an individual initiator, a group of initiators, entities acting on behalf of initiators, or originators acting in a specific role. Context can modify rule-based or identity-based access control policies. Context rules may define the entire policy in effect. Real systems will usually employ a combination of these policy types; if a rule-based policy is used, then an identity-based policy is usually in effect also.\r\n\r\nAn access control scheme may be based on access control lists, capabilities, labels, and context or a combination of these. An access control scheme is a component of an access control mechanism or \"service\") along with the supporting mechanisms required by that scheme to provide access control decision information (ADI) supplied by the scheme to the access decision facility (ADF also known as a PDP). (Based on ISO/IEC 10181-3:1996)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)\r\n * Discretionary Access Control (DAC)\r\n * History Based Access Control (HBAC)\r\n * Identity Based Access Control (IBAC)\r\n * Mandatory Access Control (MAC)\r\n * Organization Based Access Control (OrBAC)\r\n * Relationship Based Access Control (RelBac)\r\n * Responsibility Based Access Control (RespBAC)\r\n * Risk Adaptable Access Control (RAdAC)\r\n\r\n>","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23935"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTHPOL"}]},{"code":"COL","display":"collision coverage policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will cover the cost of damages to an automobile owned by the named insured that are caused by accident or intentionally by another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"UNINSMOT","display":"uninsured motorist policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will indemnify a loss for which another motorist is liable if that motorist is unable to pay because he or she is uninsured. Coverage under the policy applies to bodily injury damages only. Injuries to the covered party caused by a hit-and-run driver are also covered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"COGN","display":"cognitive disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to cognitive disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which are afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nExamples may include dementia, traumatic brain injury, attention deficit, hearing and visual disability such as dyslexia and other disorders and related conditions which impair learning and self-sufficiency. However, the cognitive disabilities to which this term may apply versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"DVD","display":"developmental disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to developmental disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nA diverse group of chronic conditions that are due to mental or physical impairments impacting activities of daily living, self-care, language acuity, learning, mobility, independent living and economic self-sufficiency. Examples may include Down syndrome and Autism spectrum. However, the developmental disabilities to which this term applies versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"EMOTDIS","display":"emotional disturbance information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to emotional disturbance disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nTypical used to characterize behavioral and mental health issues of adolescents where the disorder may be temporarily diagnosed in order to avoid the potential and unnecessary stigmatizing diagnoses of disorder long term.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23930"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"AE","display":"American Express","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DN","display":"Diner's Club","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DV","display":"Discover Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"MC","display":"Master Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"V","display":"Visa","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14812"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTE","display":"diagnosis list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a diagnosis for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHINSTE","display":"discharge instruction entry","definition":"A person provides a discharge instruction to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUME","display":"discharge summary entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a discharge summary for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATEDUE","display":"patient education entry","definition":"A person provides a patient-specific education handout to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATREPE","display":"pathology report entry task","definition":"A pathologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTE","display":"problem list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a problem for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"RADREPE","display":"radiology report entry task","definition":"A radiologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUMREV","display":"discharge summary review task","definition":"A person reviews a discharge summary of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEREV"}]},{"code":"CODE_DEPREC","display":"code has been deprecated","definition":"**Description:**The specified code has been deprecated and should no longer be used. Select another code from the code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CODE_INVAL"}]},{"code":"ABUSE","display":"commonly abused/misused alert","definition":"**Description:**The proposed therapy is frequently misused or abused and therefore should be used with caution and/or monitoring.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"FRAUD","display":"potential fraud","definition":"**Description:**The request is suspected to have a fraudulent basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYDOC","display":"Poly-orderer Alert","definition":"A similar or identical therapy was recently ordered by a different practitioner.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYPHRM","display":"Poly-supplier Alert","definition":"This patient was recently supplied a similar or identical therapy from a different pharmacy or supplier.","designation":[{"language":"en","use":{"system":"http://snomed.info/sct","code":"900000000000013009"},"value":"Poly-pharmacy Alert"}],"property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"ACOCOMPT","display":"accountable care organization compartment","definition":"A group of health care entities, which may include health care providers, care givers, hospitals, facilities, health plans, and other health care constituents who coordinate care for reimbursement based on quality metrics for improving outcomes and lowering costs, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of membership in that group.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in accountable care workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a an accountable care workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CDSSCOMPT","display":"CDS system compartment","definition":"This compartment code may be used as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission for its Clinical Decision Support system (CDSS) to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in the security category label field.\r\n\r\nThis code permits a CDS system to algorithmically process information with this compartment tag for the purpose of alerting an unauthorized end user that masked information is needed to address an emergency or a patient safety issue, such as a contraindicated medication. The alert would advise the end user to \"break the glass\", to access the masked information in an accountable manner, or to ask the patient about possibly masked information.\r\n\r\nFor example, releasing a list of sensitive medications with this compartment tag means that while the CDS system is permitted to use this list in its contraindication analysis, this sensitive information should not be shared directly with unauthorized end-users or end-user-facing Apps. Based on the results of the CDS system analysis (e.g., warnings about prescriptions) the end-user (e.g., a clinician) may still have the ability to access to the sensitive information by invoking \"break-the-glass protocol\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security label with the CDS system compartment may be used in conjunction with other security labels, e.g., a label authorizing an end user with adequate clearance to access the same CDS system compartment tagged information. For example, a patient may restrict sharing sensitive information with most care team members except in an emergency or to prevent an adverse event, and may consent to sharing with their sensitive service care team providers, e.g., for mental health or substance abuse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CTCOMPT","display":"care team compartment","definition":"Care coordination across participants in a care plan requires sharing of a healthcare consumer's information specific to that workflow. A care team member should only have access to that information while participating in that workflow or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in care coordination workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a care team member workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"FMCOMPT","display":"financial management compartment","definition":"Financial management department members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient account, billing and claims workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a financial management workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HRCOMPT","display":"human resource compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of human resources department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23580"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"LRCOMPT","display":"legitimate relationship compartment","definition":"Providers and care givers who have an established relationship per criteria determined by policy are considered to have an established care provision relations with a healthcare consumer, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of that relationship. Providers and care givers should only have access to that information while participating in legitimate relationship workflows or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in legitimate relationship workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a legitimate relationship workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"PACOMPT","display":"patient administration compartment","definition":"Patient administration members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient administration workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a patient administration workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RESCOMPT","display":"research project compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of a research project.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RMGTCOMPT","display":"records management compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of records management department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17795"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"LACT","display":"Lactation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated when breast-feeding","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"Pregnancy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated during pregnancy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"WGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17794"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"INTOLIST","display":"intolerance list","definition":"List of intolerance observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19982"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"PROBLIST","display":"problem list","definition":"List of problem observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19980"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"RISKLIST","display":"risk factors","definition":"List of risk factor observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19983"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"CONTROLLED","display":"CONTROLLED","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CONTROLLED\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUI","display":"CUI","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTH","display":"CUI//HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTHP","display":"(CUI//HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIP","display":"(CUI)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCY","display":"CUI//PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy controlled unclassified basic privacy information is private and must be protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCYP","display":"(CUI//PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTH","display":"CUI//SP-HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use that differ from those for CUI Basic. The CUI Registry indicates which laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies include such specific requirements. CUI Specified controls may be more stringent than, or may simply differ from, those required by CUI Basic; the distinction is that the underlying authority spells out the controls for CUI Specified information and does not for CUI Basic information. CUI Basic controls apply to those aspects of CUI Specified where the authorizing laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies do not provide specific guidance. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTHP","display":"(CUI//SP-HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCY","display":"CUI//SP-PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCYP","display":"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"UUI","display":"(U)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(U)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is neither Executive Order 13556 nor classified information authorities cover as protected. Although this information is not controlled or classified, agencies must still handle it in accordance with Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Regulatory Source: 32 CFR § 2002.20 Marking. Federal Register Page 63344 63344 (ii) Authorized holders permitted to designate CUI must portion mark both CUI and uncontrolled unclassified portions.\r\n\r\nCUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Marking: Portion marking of CUI is optional in a fully unclassified document, but is permitted and encouraged to facilitate information sharing and proper handling of the information. Agency heads may approve the required use of CUI Portion marking on all CUI generated within their agency. As such, users should consult their agency CUI policy when creating CUI documents. When CUI Portion Markings are used and a portion does not contain CUI a \"U\" is placed in parentheses to indicate that the portion contains Uncontrolled Unclassified Information. (Page 14)\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Markings are placed at the beginning of the portion to which they apply and must be used throughout the entire document. They are presented in all capital letters and separated as indicated in this handbook and the CUI Registry. The presence of EVEN ONE item of CUI in a document requires CUI marking of that document. Because of this, CUI Portion Markings can be of great assistance in determining if a document contains CUI and therefore must be marked as such. Remember: When portion markings are used and any portion does not contain CUI, a \"(U)\" is placed in front of that portion to indicate that it contains Uncontrolled - or non-CUI - Unclassified Information. (Page 15)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CPLYCC","display":"comply with confidentiality code","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the information handling directions of the Confidentiality Code associated with an information target.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCC may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with a Confidentiality Code to comply with applicable level of protection required by the assigned confidentiality code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCD","display":"comply with consent directive","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable information subject consent directives.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCD may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActConsent code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActConsentDirective code to comply with applicable consent directives.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCUI","display":"comply with controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In the US, CPLYCUI may be used as a security label code to inform recipients of information designated by a US Federal Agency as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, executive orders, and other guidances, such as included in DURSAs, to persist, mark, and enforce required CUI controls\r\n\r\nBackground:\r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls.\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * • Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJPP","display":"comply with jurisdictional privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActPrivacyLaw code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.JurisIP code to comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJSP","display":"comply with jurisdictional security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable jurisdictional security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOPP","display":"comply with organizational privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable organizational privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.OrgIP code to comply with applicable organizational privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOSP","display":"comply with organizational security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the organizational security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable organizational security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"_DEADrugSchedule","display":"DEADrugSchedule","definition":"DEA schedule for a drug.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CTLSUB"}]},{"code":"BR","display":"breikost (GE)","definition":"A diet exclusively composed of oatmeal, semolina, or rice, to be extremely easy to eat and digest.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"DM","display":"diabetes mellitus diet","definition":"A diet that uses carbohydrates sparingly. Typically with a restriction in daily energy content (e.g. 1600-2000 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FAST","display":"fasting","definition":"No enteral intake of foot or liquids whatsoever, no smoking. Typically 6 to 8 hours before anesthesia.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FORMULA","display":"formula diet","definition":"A diet consisting of a formula feeding, either for an infant or an adult, to provide nutrition either orally or through the gastrointestinal tract via tube, catheter or stoma.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23529"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"GF","display":"gluten free","definition":"Gluten free diet for celiac disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LF","display":"low fat","definition":"A diet low in fat, particularly to patients with hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LP","display":"low protein","definition":"A low protein diet for patients with renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LQ","display":"liquid","definition":"A strictly liquid diet, that can be fully absorbed in the intestine, and therefore may not contain fiber. Used before enteral surgeries.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LS","display":"low sodium","definition":"A diet low in sodium for patients with congestive heart failure and/or renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"N","display":"normal diet","definition":"A normal diet, i.e. no special preparations or restrictions for medical reasons. This is notwithstanding any preferences the patient might have regarding special foods, such as vegetarian, kosher, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"NF","display":"no fat","definition":"A no fat diet for acute hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAF","display":"phenylalanine free","definition":"Phenylketonuria diet.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAR","display":"parenteral","definition":"Patient is supplied with parenteral nutrition, typically described in terms of i.v. medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"RD","display":"reduction diet","definition":"A diet that seeks to reduce body fat, typically low energy content (800-1600 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"schonkost (GE)","definition":"A diet that avoids ingredients that might cause digestion problems, e.g., avoid excessive fat, avoid too much fiber (cabbage, peas, beans).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SUPPLEMENT","display":"nutritional supplement","definition":"A diet that is not intended to be complete but is added to other diets.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23530"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"T","display":"tea only","definition":"This is not really a diet, since it contains little nutritional value, but is essentially just water. Used before coloscopy examinations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"VLI","display":"low valin, leucin, isoleucin","definition":"Diet with low content of the amino-acids valin, leucin, and isoleucin, for \"maple syrup disease.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"AUTO-HIGH","display":"Auto-High Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13958"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"AUTO-LOW","display":"Auto-Low Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"PRE","display":"Pre-Dilution","definition":"The dilution of the specimen made prior to being loaded onto analytical equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"RERUN","display":"Rerun Dilution","definition":"The value of the dilution of a sample after it had been analyzed at a prior dilution value","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"DNAINT","display":"Drug Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21507"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"CANPRG","display":"women's cancer detection program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that provides low-income, uninsured, and underserved women access to timely, high-quality screening and diagnostic services, to detect breast and cervical cancer at the earliest stages.\r\n\r\n**Example:** To improve women's access to screening for breast and cervical cancers, Congress passed the Breast and Cervical Cancer Mortality Prevention Act of 1990, which guided CDC in creating the National Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection Program (NBCCEDP), which provides access to critical breast and cervical cancer screening services for underserved women in the United States. An estimated 7 to 10% of U.S. women of screening age are eligible to receive NBCCEDP services. Federal guidelines establish an eligibility baseline to direct services to uninsured and underinsured women at or below 250% of federal poverty level; ages 18 to 64 for cervical screening; ages 40 to 64 for breast screening.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"ENDRENAL","display":"end renal program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government program that administers publicly funded coverage of kidney dialysis and kidney transplant services.\r\n\r\nExample: In the U.S., the Medicare End-stage Renal Disease program (ESRD), the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) American Kidney Fund (AKF) The Organ Transplant Fund.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"HIVAIDS","display":"HIV-AIDS program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded HIV-AIDS program for beneficiaries meeting financial and health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., the Ryan White program, which is administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22136"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"DOSECOND","display":"dosage-condition alert","definition":"**Description:**Proposed dosage is inappropriate due to patient's medical condition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSE"}]},{"code":"DOSEDUR","display":"Dose-Duration Alert","definition":"Proposed length of therapy differs from standard practice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16684"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSE"}]},{"code":"DOSEH","display":"High Dose Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage exceeds 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date.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16221"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"EM"}]},{"code":"21","display":"authorization confirmed","definition":"**Description:** Indicates that the permissions have been externally verified and the request should be processed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22812"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"EMAUTH"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPTR","display":"encrypt at rest","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext when \"at rest\" or in storage.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPTT","display":"encrypt in transit","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext while \"in transit\" or being transported by any means.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPTU","display":"encrypt in use","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext while in use such that operations permitted on the target information are limited by the license granted to the end user.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"FFC","display":"First Fill - Complete","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFP","display":"First Fill - Part Fill","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16211"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFPS","display":"first fill, part fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"FFSS","display":"first fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength. (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"TF","display":"Trial Fill","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16212"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFCS","display":"first fill complete, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFC"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"TFS","display":"trial fill partial strength","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TF"}]},{"code":"FNAINT","display":"Food Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21508"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"NOTACTN","display":"no longer actionable","definition":"**Definition:**The status of the request being fulfilled has changed such that it is no longer actionable. This may be because the request has expired, has already been completely fulfilled or has been otherwise stopped or disabled. (Not used for 'suspended' orders.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIV","display":"not equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not sufficiently equivalent to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"TIMING","display":"event timing incorrect alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy is being performed at a time which diverges from the time the therapy was requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22844"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"BOOSTER","display":"Booster Immunization","definition":"An additional immunization administration within a series intended to bolster or enhance immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21521"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"INITIMMUNIZ","display":"Initial Immunization","definition":"The first immunization administration in a series intended to produce immunity","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21520"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"ACUTE","display":"inpatient acute","definition":"An acute inpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13956"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"NONAC","display":"inpatient non-acute","definition":"Any category of inpatient encounter except 'acute'","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16238"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"INFAO","display":"access only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access or \"read\" only, which entails that the information is not to be copied, screen printed, saved, emailed, stored, re-disclosed or altered in any way. This level ensures that data which is masked or to which access is restricted will not be.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Opened and then emailed or screen printed for use outside of the consent directive purpose.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22201"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFASO","display":"access and save only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access and save only, which entails that access to the saved copy will remain locked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22202"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFCON","display":"after explicit consent","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information as explicitly consented to by the subject of the information or the subject's representative.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFAUT"}]},{"code":"FIBRIN","display":"Fibrin","definition":"The Fibrin Index of the specimen. In the case of only differentiating between Absent and Present, recommend using 0 and 1","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"HEMOLYSIS","display":"Hemolysis","definition":"An observation of the hemolysis index of the specimen in g/L","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"ICTERUS","display":"Icterus","definition":"An observation that describes the icterus index of the specimen. It is recommended to use mMol/L of bilirubin","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"LIPEMIA","display":"Lipemia","definition":"An observation used to describe the Lipemia Index of the specimen. It is recommended to use the optical turbidity at 600 nm (in absorbance units).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"IPPOP","display":"initial patient population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the patients to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23548"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IPOP"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detectyed issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20854"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues regarding the administration or supply of an item to a patient.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20907"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the financial acts domain.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of issues detected regarding the performance of a clinical action on a 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length defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LEN_RANGE"}]},{"code":"ANNU","display":"annuity policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy that, after an initial premium or premiums, pays out a sum at pre-determined intervals.\r\n\r\nFor example, a policy holder may pay $10,000, and in return receive $150 each month until he dies; or $1,000 for each of 14 years or death benefits if he dies before the full term of the annuity has elapsed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"TLIFE","display":"term life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable only if the insured dies during a specified period. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"ULIFE","display":"universal life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable upon the insuredaTMs death or diagnosis of a terminal illness. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"RENT","display":"Rent","definition":"Temporary supply of a product with financial compensation, without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17962"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LOAN"}]},{"code":"HMO","display":"health maintenance organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that provides coverage for health care only through contracted or employed physicians and hospitals located in particular geographic or service areas. HMOs emphasize prevention and early detection of illness. Eligibility to enroll in an HMO is determined by where a covered party lives or works.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"PPO","display":"preferred provider organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A network-based, managed care plan that allows a covered party to choose any health care provider. However, if care is received from a \"preferred\" (participating in-network) provider, there are generally higher benefit coverage and lower deductibles.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515MMHC","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-Michigan Mental Health Code","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health governed by the Michigan Mental Health Code Act 258 of 1974, which require patient authorization for purposes other than treatment, payment, and coordination of care, in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515Part2","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-US 42 CFR Part 2","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to substance use information governed under US 42 CFR Part 2 in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"CURMEDLIST","display":"current medication list","definition":"List of current medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19977"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"DISCMEDLIST","display":"discharge medication list","definition":"List of discharge medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19979"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"HISTMEDLIST","display":"medication history","definition":"Historical list of medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19978"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"MICROORGRREV","display":"microbiology organisms results review task","definition":"A person reviews organisms of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MICROSENSRREV","display":"microbiology sensitivity test results review task","definition":"A person reviews the sensitivity test of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MARWLREV","display":"medication administration record work list review task","definition":"A clinician reviews a work list of medications to be administered to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MLREV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVGEN","display":"not generically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not generically equivalent (having the identical biological action) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22843"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVTHER","display":"not therapeutically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not therapeutically equivalent (having the same overall patient effect) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22842"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"ANONY","display":"anonymize","definition":"Custodian system must remove any information that could result in identifying the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23374"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AOD","display":"accounting of disclosure","definition":"Custodian system must make available to an information subject upon request an accounting of certain disclosures of the individual's protected health information over a period of time. Policy may dictate that the accounting include information about the information disclosed, the date of disclosure, the identification of the receiver, the purpose of the disclosure, the time in which the disclosing entity must provide a response and the time period for which accountings of disclosure can be requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23373"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDIT","display":"audit","definition":"Custodian system must monitor systems to ensure that all users are authorized to operate on information objects.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23375"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDTR","display":"audit trail","definition":"Custodian system must monitor and maintain retrievable log for each user and operation on information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23376"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"CPLYPOL","display":"comply with policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYPOL may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of the tagged information to comply with applicable policy without specifying the specific policy type(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DECLASSIFYLABEL","display":"declassify security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as unclassified in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DEID","display":"deidentify","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELAU","display":"delete after use","definition":"Custodian system must remove target information from access after use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DOWNGRDLABEL","display":"downgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must downgrade information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a less protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRIVLABEL","display":"derive security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels derived from compilations of information by aggregation or disaggregation in order to classify information compiled in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPT","display":"encrypt","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"HUAPRV","display":"human approval","definition":"Custodian system must require human review and approval for permission requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"LABEL","display":"assign security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels in order to classify information created in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In security systems, security policy label assignments do not change, they may supersede prior assignments, and such reassignments are always tracked for auditing and other purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MASK","display":"mask","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext. User may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MINEC","display":"minimum necessary","definition":"Custodian must limit access and disclosure to the minimum information required to support an authorized user's purpose of use.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Limiting the information available for access and disclosure to that an authorized user or receiver \"needs to know\" in order to perform permitted workflow or purpose of use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PERSISTLABEL","display":"persist security label","definition":"Custodian security system must persist the binding of security labels to classify information received or imported by information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRIVMARK","display":"privacy mark","definition":"Custodian must create and/or maintain human readable security label tags as required by policy.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 description of privacy mark: \"If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PSEUD","display":"pseudonymize","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"REDACT","display":"redact","definition":"Custodian system must remove information, which is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed from records made available to otherwise authorized users.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"UPGRDLABEL","display":"upgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a more protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PROCESSINLINELABEL","display":"process inline security label","definition":"Custodian security system must take note that the data object contains inline security labels and process them.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23850"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"Age Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"COND","display":"Condition Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to an existing/recent patient condition or diagnosis","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"CREACT","display":"common reaction alert","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a common but non-patient specific reaction to the product.\r\n\r\n**Example:**There is no record of a specific sensitivity for the patient, but the presence of the sensitivity is common and therefore caution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEN","display":"Genetic Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient genetic indicators.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEND","display":"Gender Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient gender.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LAB","display":"Lab Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to recent lab test results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"REACT","display":"Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated based on the potential for a patient reaction to the proposed product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16672"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"RREACT","display":"Related Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a potential patient reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LABOE","display":"laboratory test order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a laboratory test to be done for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"MEDOE","display":"medication order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for the administration of one or more medications to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"ALG","display":"Allergy","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21499"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"DINT","display":"Drug Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to a drug.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21501"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"EINT","display":"Environmental Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to environmental conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21503"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"FINT","display":"Food Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to food.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21502"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"NAINT","display":"Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21500"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"OrgCUI","display":"organizational basic controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of basic controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgDEID","display":"organizational de-identified informati)on policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgLDS","display":"organizational limited data set information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgNSI","display":"organizational non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgPI","display":"organizational public information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of public information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgSP-CUI","display":"organizational specified controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgUUI","display":"organizational uncontrolled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by the organization or governing jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"ALLERLREV","display":"allergy list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of known allergies of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23268"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEE","display":"clinical note entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a clinical note about a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"IMMLREV","display":"immunization list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of immunizations due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23269"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"REMLREV","display":"reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of health care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23270"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"ALLERLE","display":"allergy list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a known allergy for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CDSREV","display":"clinical decision support intervention review","definition":"A person reviews a recommendation/assessment provided automatically by a clinical decision support application for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEREV","display":"clinical note review task","definition":"A person reviews a clinical note of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTREV","display":"diagnosis list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of diagnoses of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"IMMLE","display":"immunization list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters an immunization due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"LABRREV","display":"laboratory results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of laboratory results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MICRORREV","display":"microbiology results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MLREV","display":"medication list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of medication orders submitted to a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"OREV","display":"orders review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of orders submitted to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATREPREV","display":"pathology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a pathology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTREV","display":"problem list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of problems of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RADREPREV","display":"radiology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a radiology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"REMLE","display":"reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a health care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RISKASSESS","display":"risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATPREFALT","display":"violates stated preferences, alternate available","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record. An alternate therapy meeting those constraints is available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATPREF"}]},{"code":"PersDEID","display":"personal de-identified information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the information subject or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24083"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersLDS","display":"personal limited data set information policy","definition":"Personal policy personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24085"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersNSI","display":"personal non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24084"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersPI","display":"personal public information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24086"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","display":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","definition":"Information the US Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls. However, CUI does not include classified information (see definition above) or information a non-executive branch entity possesses and maintains in its own systems that did not come from, or was not created or possessed by or for, an executive branch agency or an entity acting for an agency. Law, regulation, or Government-wide policy may require or permit safeguarding or dissemination controls in three ways: Requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information but providing no specific controls, which makes the information CUI Basic; requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information and providing specific controls for doing so, which makes the information CUI Specified; or requiring or permitting agencies to control the information and specifying only some of those controls, which makes the information CUI Specified, but with CUI Basic controls where the authority does not specify. Based on CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html .\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf. For definitions of key terms see CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"SecurityLabelMark","display":"Security Label Mark","definition":"An abstract code for displayed Security Label tags.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* These marks may be based on any of the HL7 Security Labeling related codes from various code systems and values sets, which are organized according to the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System into HL7 Security Observation Type Named Tag Sets and valued with codes associated with the HL7 Security Observation Value Tag Set Names.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"CUIMark","display":"CUI Mark","definition":"An originator must mark, persist, display, and convey computable and renderable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) marks as required by policy. A recipient must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI marks on information received based on agreements with the originator..\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * As CUI custodians, Federal Agencies and their contractors must mark, persist, display, and convey these marks.\r\n * All CUI receivers must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI markings on information further disclosed\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PRIVMARK"}]},{"code":"DENTPRG","display":"dental program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for dental care to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"DISEASEPRG","display":"public health program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for health and social services to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria related to a particular disease.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Reproductive health, sexually transmitted disease, and end renal disease programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MANDPOL","display":"mandatory health program","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22149"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MENTPRG","display":"mental health program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded mental health program for beneficiaries meeting financial and mental health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22141"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SAFNET","display":"safety net clinic program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded program to support provision of care to underserved populations through safety net clinics.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., safety net providers such as federally qualified health centers (FQHC) receive funding under PHSA Section 330 grants administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22142"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPRG","display":"substance use program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded substance use program for beneficiaries meeting financial, substance use behavior, and health status criteria. Beneficiaries may be required to enroll as a result of legal proceedings. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22143"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDIZ","display":"subsidized health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22137"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"ALGY","display":"Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to the proposed product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16674"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"INT","display":"Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to the proposed product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16673"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"NOAUTH","display":"no disclosure without subject authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without information subject's authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOCOLLECT","display":"no collection","definition":"Prohibition on collection or storage of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23395"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCD","display":"no disclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational approved patient restriction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23396"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCDS","display":"no disclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOINTEGRATE","display":"no integration","definition":"Prohibition on Integration into other records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23397"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOLIST","display":"no unlisted entity disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to entities on specific access list.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23398"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOMOU","display":"no disclosure without MOU","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without an interagency service agreement or memorandum of understanding (MOU).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23399"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOORGPOL","display":"no disclosure without organizational authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23400"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPAT","display":"no disclosure to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosing information to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The information may be labeled with the ActInformationSensitivity TBOO code, triggering application of this RefrainPolicy code as a handling caveat controlling access.\r\n\r\nMaps to FHIR NOPAT: Typically, this is used on an Alert resource, when the alert records information on patient abuse or non-compliance.\r\n\r\nFHIR print name is \"keep information from patient\". Maps to the French realm - code: INVISIBLE\\_PATIENT.\r\n\r\n * displayName: Document non visible par le patient\r\n * codingScheme: 1.2.250.1.213.1.1.4.13\r\n\r\nFrench use case: A label for documents that the author chose to hide from the patient until the content can be disclose to the patient in a face to face meeting between a healthcare professional and the patient (in French law some results like cancer diagnosis or AIDS diagnosis must be announced to the patient by a healthcare professional and should not be find out by the patient alone).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPERSISTP","display":"no collection beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on collection of the information beyond time necessary to accomplish authorized purpose of use is prohibited.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23401"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSCLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCDS","display":"no redisclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLW","display":"no disclosure without jurisdictional authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without authorization under jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23403"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORELINK","display":"no relinking","definition":"Prohibition on associating de-identified or pseudonymized information with other information in a manner that could or does result in disclosing information intended to be masked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23404"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOREUSE","display":"no reuse beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on use of the information beyond the purpose of use initially authorized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23405"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOVIP","display":"no unauthorized VIP disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to principals with access permission to specific VIP information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23406"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"ORCON","display":"no disclosure without originator authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except as permitted by the information originator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23407"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLE","display":"wellness reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a wellness or preventive care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23267"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLE"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLREV","display":"wellness reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of wellness or preventive care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23271"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLREV"}]},{"code":"MAXOCCURS","display":"repetitions above maximum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is above the maximum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"MINOCCURS","display":"repetitions below minimum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is below the minimum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"RSDID","display":"de-identified information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes, but without consent to re-identify the information under any circumstance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22207"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RSREID","display":"re-identifiable information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes re-identified under specific circumstances outlined in the consent.\r\n\r\n**Example::** Where there is a need to inform the subject of potential health issues.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22208"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RFC","display":"Refill - Complete","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16216"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFF","display":"Refill (First fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFP","display":"Refill - Part Fill","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16217"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFS","display":"refill partial strength","definition":"A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21819"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"TB","display":"Trial Balance","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16213"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFCS","display":"refill complete partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21820"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFC"}]},{"code":"RFFS","display":"refill partial strength (first fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFF"}]},{"code":"RFPS","display":"refill part fill partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21822"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFP"}]},{"code":"FALLRISK","display":"falls risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Falls Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RISKASSESS"}]},{"code":"RALG","display":"Related Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RAR","display":"Related Prior Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded prior adverse reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16679"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RINT","display":"Related Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"SECALTINTOBS","display":"security alteration integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the mechanism used for authorized transformations of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security alteration integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation with a code used to indicate the mechanism used for authorized transformation of an IT resource, including:\r\n\r\n * translation\r\n * syntactic transformation\r\n * semantic mapping\r\n * redaction\r\n * masking\r\n * pseudonymization\r\n * anonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23478"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECDATINTOBS","display":"security data integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the data integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the security mechanism used to preserve resource accuracy and consistency. Data integrity is defined by ISO 22600-23.3.21 as: \"The property that data has not been altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner\", and by ISO/IEC 2382-8: The property of data whose accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made.\"\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security data integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation, include cryptographic hash function and digital signature.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTCONOBS","display":"security integrity confidence observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity confidence of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity confidence observation metadata, which may value the observation, include highly reliable, uncertain reliability, and not reliable.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security integrity confidence observation on an Act may indicate that a valued Act.uncertaintycode attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservationValue. This supports the business requirements for increasing or decreasing the assessment of the reliability or trustworthiness of an IT resource based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act statement level of uncertainty.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23477"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVOBS","display":"security integrity provenance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the provenance integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the lifecycle completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status such as its creation, modification, suspension, and deletion; locations in which the resource has been collected or archived, from which it may be retrieved, and the history of its distribution and disclosure. Integrity provenance metadata about an IT resource may be used to assess its veracity, reliability, and trustworthiness.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance observation metadata, which may value the observation about an IT resource, include:\r\n\r\n * completeness or workflow status, such as authentication\r\n * the entity responsible for original authoring or informing about an IT resource\r\n * the entity responsible for a report or assertion about an IT resource relayed \"second-hand\"\r\n * the entity responsible for excerpting, transforming, or compiling an IT resource","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTSTOBS","display":"security integrity status observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Indicates the completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status, which may impact users that are authorized to access and use the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity status observation metadata, which may value the observation, include codes from the HL7 DocumentCompletion code system such as legally authenticated, in progress, and incomplete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23476"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVABOBS","display":"security integrity provenance asserted by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that made assertions about the resource. The asserting entity may not be the original informant about the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance asserted by observation metadata, which may value the observation, including:\r\n\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVRBOBS","display":"security integrity provenance reported by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that reported the existence of the resource. The reporting entity may not be the original author of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance reported by observation metadata, which may value the observation, include:\r\n\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCATOBS","display":"security category observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the category of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security category metadata is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"A nonhierarchical grouping of sensitive information used to control access to data more finely than with hierarchical security classification alone.\"\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security category observation supports requirement to specify the type of IT resource to facilitate application of appropriate levels of information security according to a range of levels of impact or consequences that might result from the unauthorized disclosure, modification, or use of the information or information system. A resource is assigned to a specific category of information (e.g., privacy, medical, proprietary, financial, investigative, contractor sensitive, security management) defined by an organization or in some instances, by a specific law, Executive Order, directive, policy, or regulation. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security categories include:\r\n\r\n * Compartment: A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk. (ISO 2382-8). A security label tag that \"segments\" an IT resource by indicating that access and use is restricted to members of a defined community or project. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)\r\n * Sensitivity: The characteristic of an IT resource which implies its value or importance and may include its vulnerability. (ISO 7492-2) Privacy metadata for information perceived as undesirable to share. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCLASSOBS","display":"security classification observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the classification of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security classification is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"The determination of which specific degree of protection against access the data or information requires, together with a designation of that degree of protection.\" Security classification metadata is based on an analysis of applicable policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm that could result from unauthorized disclosure.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security classification observation may indicate that the confidentiality level indicated by an Act or Role confidentiality attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityClassificationObservationValue. This supports the business requirement for increasing or decreasing the level of confidentiality (classification or declassification) based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act or Role confidentiality.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security classification include: HL7 Confidentiality Codes such as very restricted, unrestricted, and normal. Intelligence community examples include top secret, secret, and confidential.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Security classification observation type codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityClassificationObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23472"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCONOBS","display":"security control observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the control of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security control metadata convey instructions to users and receivers for secure distribution, transmission, and storage; dictate obligations or mandated actions; specify any action prohibited by refrain policy such as dissemination controls; and stipulate the permissible purpose of use of an IT resource.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security control observation supports requirement to specify applicable management, operational, and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) prescribed for an information system to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its information. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security control metadata include:\r\n\r\n * handling caveats\r\n * dissemination controls\r\n * obligations\r\n * refrain policies\r\n * purpose of use constraints","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23474"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTOBS","display":"security integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security integrity observation supports the requirement to guard against improper information modification or destruction, and includes ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity. (44 U.S.C., SEC. 3542)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity metadata include:\r\n\r\n * Integrity status, which indicates the completeness or workflow status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)\r\n * Integrity confidence, which indicates the reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource\r\n * Integrity control, which indicates pertinent handling caveats, obligations, refrain policies, and purpose of use for the resource\r\n * Data integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used to ensure that the accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made (ISO/IEC DIS 2382-8)\r\n * Alteration integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used for authorized transformations of the resource\r\n * Integrity provenance, which indicates the entity responsible for a report or assertion relayed \"second-hand\" about an IT resource","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBS","display":"SECTRSTOBS","definition":"An observation identifying trust metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used as a trust attribute to populate a computable trust policy, trust credential, trust assertion, or trust label field in a security label or trust policy, which are principally used for authentication, authorization, and access control decisions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBS","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBS","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBS","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\n**For example,**\r\n\r\n * A Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. For example, a particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\r\n * A Certificate Practice Statement (CSP), which is a statement of the practices which an Authority employs in issuing and managing certificates. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBS","display":"trust framework observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBS","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBS","display":"trust mechanism observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"ConfidentialMark","display":"confidential mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered as \"Confidential\", which indicates to end users that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing must be protected at a level of protection as dictated by applicable policy.\r\n\r\nMay be used to indicate proprietary or classified information that is, for example, business, intelligence, or project related, e.g., secret ingredients in a therapeutic substance; location of disaster health facilities and providers, or the name of a manufacturer or project contractor. Example use cases include a display to alert authorized business system users that they are viewing additionally protected proprietary and business confidential information deemed proprietary under an applicable jurisdictional or organizational policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nThe ConfidentialMark (confidential mark) description is based on the HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"COPYMark","display":"copy of original mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is a copy of an authoritative source for the information. The copy is not considered authoritative but is a duplicate of the authoritative content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Applicable policy will dictate how the COPY mark will be displayed. Typical renderings include the marking appearing at the top or \"banner\" of electronic or hardcopy pages, or as watermarks set diagonally across each page.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DeliverToAddresseeOnlyMark","display":"deliver only to addressee mark","definition":"A displayed mark on an electronic transmission or physical container such as an electronic transmittal wrapper, batch file, message header, or a physical envelop or package indicating that the contents, whether electronic or hardcopy information, must only be delivered to the authorized recipient(s) named in the address.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Required by US 32 CRF Part 2002 for container storing or transmitting CUI.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RedisclosureProhibitionMark","display":"prohibition against redisclosure mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as a prescribed text warning that the electronic or hardcopy information shall not be further disclosed without consent of the subject of the information. For example, in order to warn a recipient of 42 CFR Part 2 information of the redisclosure restrictions, the rule mandates that end users receive a written prohibition against redisclosure unless authorized by patient consent or otherwise permitted by Part 2. See 42 CFR § 2.32 Prohibition on re-disclosure. (a)Notice to accompany disclosure. Each disclosure made with the patient's written consent must be accompanied by one of the following written statements: (1) This information has been disclosed to you from records protected by federal confidentiality rules ( 42 CFR part 2). The federal rules prohibit you from making any further disclosure of information in this record that identifies a patient as having or having had a substance use disorder either directly, by reference to publicly available information, or through verification of such identification by another person unless further disclosure is expressly permitted by the written consent of the individual whose information is being disclosed or as otherwise permitted by 42 CFR part 2. A general authorization for the release of medical or other information is NOT sufficient for this purpose (see § 2.31). The federal rules restrict any use of the information to investigate or prosecute with regard to a crime any patient with a substance use disorder, except as provided at § § 2.12(c)(5) and 2.65; or (2) 42 CFR part 2 prohibits unauthorized disclosure of these records. https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/42/2.32\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Example of marking requirement from SAMHSA FAQ Response to question 13:\r\n\r\nWould a logon or splash page notification on an HIO's portal that contains the Part 2 notice prohibiting redisclosure be sufficient to meet Part 2's requirement that disclosures made with patient consent be accompanied by such a statement?\r\n\r\nNo. Part 2 requires each disclosure made with written patient consent to be accompanied by a written statement that the information disclosed is protected by federal law and that the recipient cannot make any further disclosure of it unless permitted by the regulations (42 CFR § 2.32). A logon page is the page where a user logs onto a computer system; a splash page is an introductory page to a web site. A logon or splash page notification on a HIO's portal including the statement as required by § 2.32 would not be sufficient notification regarding prohibitions on redisclosure since it would not accompany a specific disclosure. The notification must be tied to the Part 2 information being disclosed in order to ensure that the recipient of that information knows that specific information is protected by Part 2 and cannot be redisclosed except as authorized by the express written consent of the person to whom it pertains or as otherwise permitted by Part 2. https://www.samhsa.gov/about-us/who-we-are/laws-regulations/confidentiality-regulations-faqs","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RestrictedConfidentialityMark","display":"restricted confidentiality mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as \"Restricted Confidentiality\", which indicates that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing, must be protected at a restricted level of confidentiality protection as defined by HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted). Examples: Includes information that is additionally protected such as sensitive conditions mental health, HIV, substance abuse, domestic violence, child abuse, genetic disease, and reproductive health; or sensitive demographic information such as a patient's standing as an employee or a celebrity. Use cases include a display to alert authorized EHR users that they are viewing additionally protected health information deemed sensitive by an applicable jurisdictional, organizational, or personal privacy policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The definition is based on HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted), which is described as:\r\n\r\nPrivacy metadata indicating highly sensitive, potentially stigmatizing information, which presents a high risk to the information subject if disclosed without authorization. May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law, e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment. Foundational definitions of Confidentiality: From HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\nUsage Note from HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\": Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nThis metadata indicates that the receiver may be obligated to comply with applicable, prevailing (default) jurisdictional privacy law or disclosure authorization.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes. Map: Partial Map to ISO 13606-4 Sensitivity Level (3) Clinical Care: Default for normal clinical care access (i.e. most clinical staff directly caring for the patient should be able to access nearly all of the EHR). Maps to normal confidentiality for treatment information but not to ancillary care, payment and operations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DRAFTMark","display":"Draft Mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hard-copy information is still under development and is not yet considered to be ready for normal use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"AUTHPOL","display":"authorization policy","definition":"Authorisation policies are essentially security policies related to access-control and specify what activities a subject is permitted or forbidden to do, to a set of target objects. They are designed to protect target objects so are interpreted by access control agents or the run-time systems at the target system.\r\n\r\nA positive authorisation policy defines the actions that a subject is permitted to perform on a target. A negative authorisation policy specifies the actions that a subject is forbidden to perform on a target. Positive authorisation policies may also include filters to transform the parameters associated with their actions. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELEPOL","display":"delegation policy","definition":"Delegation policies specify which actions subjects are allowed to delegate to others. A delegation policy thus specifies an authorisation to delegate. Subjects must already possess the access rights to be delegated.\r\n\r\nDelegation policies are aimed at subjects delegating rights to servers or third parties to perform actions on their behalf and are not meant to be the means by which security administrators would assign rights to subjects. A negative delegation policy identifies what delegations are forbidden.\r\n\r\nA Delegation policy specifies the authorisation policy from which delegated rights are derived, the grantors, which are the entities which can delegate these access rights, and the grantees, which are the entities to which the access rights can be delegated. There are two types of delegation policy, positive and negative. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ObligationPolicy","display":"obligation policy","definition":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23372"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PrivacyMark","display":"privacy mark","definition":"An abstract code for human readable marks indicating, e.g., the level of confidentiality protection, an authorized compartment, the integrity, or the handling instruction required by applicable policy. Such markings must be displayed as directed by applicable policy on electronically rendered information content and any electronic transmittal envelope or container; or on hardcopy information and any physical transmittal envelope or container.\r\n\r\nExamples of protocols for marking displays on electronic or hardcopy rendered content: Across the top or \"banner\" of each page ; as a watermark placed diagonally cross each page; at the bottom or \"footer\" of each page; and may be displayed at the beginning of any portion within the content that required markings different than other portions of the content. The banner or top of page marking typically acts as a \"high watermark\" by including all of the markings made on any marked portions within the entirety of the information content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A \"Privacy Mark\" is a Security Control Observation (SECCONOBS) named tag set as specified by the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System (HCS). A Privacy Mark Named Tag Set is valued with a Privacy Mark leaf code \"tag\", which is a member of the Security Control Observation Value (\\_SecurityObservationValue) tag set. Related Security Control Observation named tag sets are Purpose of Use, Obligation Policy, and Refrain Policy, each with their own Security Control Observation Value tag sets.\r\n\r\nFoundational standard definitions: ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 - If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label. IEEE Security Glossary Compendium 93- CESG Memorandum No.1 Issue 1.2 Oct 1992 - Human readable word or phrase acting as an indicator of all or part of the security constraints that apply to a document so marked. NOTE: A machine readable representation of a marking.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* While policies requiring creators, processors, custodians, senders or recipients apply, enforce, and persist applicable Privacy Marks may be dictated by a jurisdiction, organization or personal privacy, security, or integrity policy, those required to comply may be governed under different policies, so compliance may need to be enforced through trust contracts. For example, information content marked with GDPR related policies may require adherence by processors or recipients outside of the European Union. For this reason, this code system is likely to evolve with the inclusion of multiple policy domains needing to communicate encoded policies in a standard, interoperable manner.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"RefrainPolicy","display":"refrain policy","definition":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"BH","display":"behavioral health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to behavioral and emotional disturbances affecting social adjustment and physical health, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"MH","display":"mental health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to psychological disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Mental health information may be deemed specifically sensitive and distinct from physical health, substance use disorders, and behavioral disabilities and disorders in some jurisdictions.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychiatry psychiatric disorder information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23341"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSYTHPN","display":"psychotherapy note information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychotherapy note information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In some jurisdiction, disclosure of psychotherapy notes requires patient consent.\r\n\r\nIf there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUD","display":"substance use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol or drug use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDMC","display":"subsidized managed care program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage through managed care contracts for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized managed care program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22139"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"SUBSUPP","display":"subsidized supplemental health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria for a supplemental health policy or program such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Supplemental health coverage program may cover the cost of a health program or policy financial participations, such as the copays and the premiums, and may provide coverage for services in addition to those covered under the supplemented health program or policy. In the U.S., Medicaid programs may pay the premium for a covered party who is also covered under the Medicare program or a private health policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized supplemental retiree health program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22140"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"ETHUD","display":"alcohol use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"OPIOIDUD","display":"opioid use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to opioid use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23892"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"TBS","display":"trial balance partial strength","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21823"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TB"}]},{"code":"ALRTENDLATE","display":"end too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22837"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"ALRTSTRTLATE","display":"start too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22838"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"INTERVAL","display":"outside requested time","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed outside the bounds of the time period requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22846"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"MINFREQ","display":"too soon within frequency based on the usage","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed too soon after the previous occurrence based on the requested frequency","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22845"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"DRG","display":"Drug Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NHP","display":"Natural Health Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with existing or recent natural health product therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NONRX","display":"Non-Prescription Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with a non-prescription drug (e.g. alcohol, tobacco, Aspirin)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"SALE","display":"Sale","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product for financial compensation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TRANSFER"}]},{"code":"BUS","display":"business constraint violation","definition":"**Description:**A local business rule relating multiple elements has been violated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"CODE_INVAL","display":"code is not valid","definition":"**Description:**The specified code is not valid against the list of codes allowed for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"FORMAT","display":"invalid format","definition":"**Description:**The element does not follow the formatting or type rules defined for the field.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21655"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"ILLEGAL","display":"illegal","definition":"**Description:**The request is missing elements or contains elements which cause it to not meet the legal standards for actioning.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21652"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"LEN_RANGE","display":"length out of range","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified falls out of the range defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21656"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"MISSCOND","display":"conditional element missing","definition":"**Description:**The specified element must be specified with a non-null value under certain conditions. 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reasons, regardless of whether or not they were paid for the time off or were seeking other jobs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23920"}]},{"code":"NotInLaborForce","display":"Not In Labor Force","definition":"Persons not classified as employed or unemployed, meaning those who have no job and are not looking for one.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23922"}]},{"code":"Unemployed","display":"Unemployed","definition":"Persons who currently have no employment, but are available for work and have made specific efforts to find employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23921"}]}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationValue","display":"GeneticObservationValue","definition":"**Description:** The domain contains genetic analysis specific observation values, e.g. Homozygote, Heterozygote, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22648"}],"concept":[{"code":"Homozygote","display":"HOMO","definition":"**Description:** An individual having different alleles at one or more loci regarding a specific character","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22649"}]}]},{"code":"_MeasurementImprovementNotation","display":"Measurement Improvement Notation","definition":"Observation values that indicate what change in a measurement value or score is indicative of an improvement in the measured item or scored issue.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24042"}],"concept":[{"code":"DecrIsImp","display":"Decreased score indicates improvement","definition":"Improvement is indicated as a decrease in the score or measurement (e.g. Lower score indicates better 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characteristics (e.g., Male smokers between the ages of 40 and 50 years, exposure to treatment, exposure duration).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23553"}]},{"code":"CONTVAR","display":"continuous variable measure scoring","definition":"A measure score in which each individual value for the measure can fall anywhere along a continuous scale (e.g., mean time to thrombolytics which aggregates the time in minutes from a case presenting with chest pain to the time of administration of thrombolytics).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23038"}]},{"code":"PROPOR","display":"proportion measure scoring","definition":"A score derived by dividing the number of cases that meet a criterion for quality (the numerator) by the number of eligible cases within a given time frame (the denominator) where the numerator cases are a subset of the denominator cases (e.g., percentage of eligible women with a mammogram performed in the last year).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23039"}]},{"code":"RATIO","display":"ratio measure scoring","definition":"A score that may have a value of zero or greater that is derived by dividing a count of one type of data by a count of another type of data (e.g., the number of patients with central lines who develop infection divided by the number of central line days).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23040"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationMeasureType","display":"ObservationMeasureType","definition":"Observation values used to indicate what kind of health quality measure is used.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23041"}],"concept":[{"code":"COMPOSITE","display":"composite measure type","definition":"A measure that is composed from one or more other measures and indicates an overall summary of those measures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23650"}]},{"code":"EFFICIENCY","display":"efficiency measure type","definition":"A measure related to the efficiency of medical treatment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23652"}]},{"code":"EXPERIENCE","display":"experience measure type","definition":"A measure related to the level of patient engagement or patient experience of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23653"}]},{"code":"OUTCOME","display":"outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that indicates the result of the performance (or non-performance) of a function or process.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23042"}],"concept":[{"code":"INTERM-OM","display":"intermediate outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that evaluates the change over time of a physiologic state observable that is associated with a specific long-term health outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23862"}]},{"code":"PRO-PM","display":"patient reported outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that is a comparison of patient reported outcomes for a single or multiple patients collected via an instrument specifically designed to obtain input directly from patients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23861"}]}]},{"code":"PROCESS","display":"process measure type","definition":"A measure which focuses on a process which leads to a certain outcome, meaning that a scientific basis exists for believing that the process, when executed well, will increase the probability of achieving a desired outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23043"}],"concept":[{"code":"APPROPRIATE","display":"appropriate use process measure","definition":"A measure that assesses the use of one or more processes where the expected health benefit exceeds the expected negative consequences.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23863"}]}]},{"code":"RESOURCE","display":"resource use measure type","definition":"A measure related to the extent of use of clinical resources or cost of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23651"}]},{"code":"STRUCTURE","display":"structure measure type","definition":"A measure related to the structure of patient care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23654"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationPopulationInclusion","display":"ObservationPopulationInclusion","definition":"Observation values used to assert various populations that a subject falls into.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23044"}],"concept":[{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Patients who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23442"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Denominator exceptions are those conditions that should remove a patient, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23046"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"It can be the same as the initial patient population or a subset of the initial patient population to further constrain the population for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different Denominators. 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Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23047"}]}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Measure population is used only in continuous variable eMeasures. It is a narrative description of the eMeasure population. (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23048"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Numerators are used in proportion and ratio eMeasures. In proportion measures the numerator criteria are the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator. In ratio measures the numerator is related, but not directly derived from the denominator (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23049"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures to define instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23443"}]}]},{"code":"_PartialCompletionScale","display":"PartialCompletionScale","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21099"}],"concept":[{"code":"G","display":"Great extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 81-99% completion","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18126"}]},{"code":"LE","display":"Large extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 61-80% 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metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Confidentiality Codes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23484"}]},{"code":"_SECCONOBV","display":"security control","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security control metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying dissemination controls, information handling caveats, purpose of use, refrain policies, and obligations to which custodians and information receivers must comply.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23486"}]},{"code":"_SECINTOBV","display":"security integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying integrity status, integrity confidence, and provenance.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23487"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECALTINTOBV","display":"alteration integrity","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation values used to indicate mechanism used for authorized alteration of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23497"}],"concept":[{"code":"ABSTRED","display":"abstracted","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of a more abstract version of the content, e.g., replacing exact value of an age or date field with a range, or remove the left digits of a credit card number or SSN.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23498"}]},{"code":"AGGRED","display":"aggregated","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of an algorithmic combination of actual values with the result of an aggregate function, e.g., average, sum, or count in order to limit disclosure of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to the minimum necessary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23499"}]},{"code":"ANONYED","display":"anonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. No key to relink the data is retained.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23500"}]},{"code":"MAPPED","display":"mapped","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource semantic content has been transformed from one encoding to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MAP\" code does not indicate the semantic fidelity of the transformed content.\r\n\r\nTo indicate semantic fidelity for maps of HL7 to other code systems, this security alteration integrity observation may be further specified using an Act valued with Value Set: MapRelationship (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11052).\r\n\r\nSemantic fidelity of the mapped IT Resource may also be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23501"}]},{"code":"MASKED","display":"masked","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can make data unintelligible (that is, as unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext) such that it can only be accessed or used by authorized users. An authorized user may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MASKED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has been further encrypted, and may be accessed only by an authorized user or receiver to which a decryption key is provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23502"}]},{"code":"PSEUDED","display":"pseudonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* Personal data which has been processed to make it impossible to know whose data it is. Used particularly for secondary use of health data. In some cases, it may be possible for authorized individuals to restore the identity of the individual, e.g.,for public health case management. Based on ISO/TS 25237:2008 Health informatics-Pseudonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23503"}]},{"code":"REDACTED","display":"redacted","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can filter an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to remove any portion of the resource that is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"REDACTED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has filtered and not included in the content accessed or received.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23504"}]},{"code":"SUBSETTED","display":"subsetted","definition":"Metadata observation used to indicate that some information has been removed from the source object when the view this object contains was constructed because of configuration options when the view was created. The content may not be suitable for use as the basis of a record update\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* This is not suitable to be used when information is removed for security reasons - see the code REDACTED for this use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23730"}]},{"code":"SYNTAC","display":"syntactic transform","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource syntax has been transformed from one syntactical representation to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"SYNTAC\" code does not indicate the syntactical correctness of the syntactically transformed IT resource.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23505"}]},{"code":"TRSLT","display":"translated","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource has been translated from one human language to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"TRSLT\" does not indicate the fidelity of the translation or the languages translated.\r\n\r\nThe fidelity of the IT Resource translation may be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.\r\n\r\nTo indicate languages, use the Value Set:HumanLanguage (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11526)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23506"}]},{"code":"VERSIONED","display":"versioned","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) which indicates that the resource only retains versions of an IT resource for access and use per applicable policy\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* When this code is used, expectation is that the system has removed historical versions of the data that falls outside the time period deemed to be the effective time of the applicable version.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23507"}]}]},{"code":"_SECDATINTOBV","display":"data integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate data integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the mechanism used to preserve the accuracy and consistency of an IT resource such as a digital signature and a cryptographic hash function.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23494"}],"concept":[{"code":"CRYTOHASH","display":"cryptographic hash function","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can establish that data was not modified in transit.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.19 definition of cryptographic checkvalue: Information which is derived by performing a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) on the data unit. The derivation of the checkvalue may be performed in one or more steps and is a result of a mathematical function of the key and a data unit. It is usually used to check the integrity of a data unit.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * SHA-1\r\n * SHA-2 (Secure Hash Algorithm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23495"}]},{"code":"DIGSIG","display":"digital signature","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems use digital signature to establish that data has not been modified.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.26 definition of digital signature: Data appended to, or a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) of, a data unit that allows a recipient of the data unit to prove the source and integrity of the data unit and protect against forgery e.g., by the recipient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23496"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTCONOBV","display":"integrity confidence","definition":"Abstract security observation value used to indicate integrity confidence metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the level of reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23489"}],"concept":[{"code":"HRELIABLE","display":"highly reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be very high.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23490"}]},{"code":"RELIABLE","display":"reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be adequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23491"}]},{"code":"UNCERTREL","display":"uncertain reliability","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be uncertain.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23492"}]},{"code":"UNRELIABLE","display":"unreliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be inadequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23493"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVOBV","display":"provenance","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation value used to indicate the provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23508"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECINTPRVABOBV","display":"provenance asserted by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that asserted an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity asserting the resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23518"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINAST","display":"clinician asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23519"}]},{"code":"DEVAST","display":"device asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23523"}]},{"code":"HCPAST","display":"healthcare professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23520"}]},{"code":"PACQAST","display":"patient acquaintance asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23526"}]},{"code":"PATAST","display":"patient asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23524"}]},{"code":"PAYAST","display":"payer asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23522"}]},{"code":"PROAST","display":"professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23521"}]},{"code":"SDMAST","display":"substitute decision maker asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23525"}]},{"code":"AIAST","display":"Artificial Intelligence asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Artificial Intelligence (e.g. Clinical Decision Support, Machine Learning, Algorithm).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"123525"}]},{"code":"DICTAST","display":"Dictation asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Dictation algorithm transforming human communications (e.g. speech).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"223525"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVRBOBV","display":"provenance reported by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that reported the resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23509"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINRPT","display":"clinician reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23510"}]},{"code":"DEVRPT","display":"device reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23514"}]},{"code":"HCPRPT","display":"healthcare professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23511"}]},{"code":"PACQRPT","display":"patient acquaintance reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23517"}]},{"code":"PATRPT","display":"patient reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23515"}]},{"code":"PAYRPT","display":"payer reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23513"}]},{"code":"PRORPT","display":"professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23512"}]},{"code":"SDMRPT","display":"substitute decision maker reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23516"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTSTOBV","display":"integrity status","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate integrity status metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes, such as those in the HL7 DocumentClassification code system conveying the workflow status of resource as authenticated, legally authenticated, and in progress.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23488"}]}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBV","display":"security trust observation","definition":"Observation value used to indicate aspects of trust applicable to an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23672"}],"concept":[{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBV","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Values for security trust accreditation metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23673"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBV","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Values for security trust agreement metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\] \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23674"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBV","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Values for security trust certificate metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, a Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. A particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. Another example is Cross Certification with Federal Bridge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23675"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBV","display":"none supplied 5","definition":"Values for security trust framework metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23717"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBV","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Values for security trust assurance metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23676"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN","display":"authentication level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, the degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23677"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN1","display":"low authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have little or no confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 1 requires little or no confidence in the asserted identity. No identity proofing is required at this level, but the authentication mechanism should provide some assurance that the same claimant is accessing the protected transaction or data. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed and any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4, including Personal Identification Numbers (PINs), may be used. To be authenticated, the claimant must prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. At Level 1, long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23678"}]},{"code":"LOAAN2","display":"basic authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of basic digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have some confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 2 requires confidence that the asserted identity is accurate. Level 2 provides for single-factor remote network authentication, including identity-proofing requirements for presentation of identifying materials or information. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed, including any of the token methods of Levels 3 or 4, as well as passwords. Successful authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, and online guessing attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23679"}]},{"code":"LOAAN3","display":"medium authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of medium digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of verification and validation of the process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 3 is appropriate for transactions that need high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 3 provides multifactor remote network authentication. At this level, identity-proofing procedures require verification of identifying materials and information. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key or password through a cryptographic protocol. Cryptographic strength mechanisms should protect the primary authentication token (a cryptographic key) against compromise by the protocol threats, including eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks. A minimum of two authentication factors is required. Three kinds of tokens may be used:\r\n\r\n * \"soft\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a general-purpose computer,\r\n * \"hard\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a special hardware device, and\r\n * \"one-time password\" device token, which has symmetric key stored on a personal hardware device that is a cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 1 or higher. Validation testing of cryptographic modules and algorithms for conformance to Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, is managed by NIST.\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the claimant prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. The token must be unlocked with a password or biometric representation, or a password must be used in a secure authentication protocol, to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23680"}]},{"code":"LOAAN4","display":"high authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have very high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 4 is for transactions that need very high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 4 provides the highest practical assurance of remote network authentication. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key through a cryptographic protocol. This level is similar to Level 3 except that only “hardâ€? cryptographic tokens are allowed, cryptographic module validation requirements are strengthened, and subsequent critical data transfers must be authenticated via a key that is bound to the authentication process. The token should be a hardware cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. This level requires a physical token, which cannot readily be copied, and operator authentication at Level 2 and higher, and ensures good, two-factor remote authentication.\r\n\r\nLevel 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Strong approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23681"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAP","display":"authentication process level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23682"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAP1","display":"low authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication process level of assurance indicates that (1) long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers; and (2) assertions and assertion references require protection from manufacture/modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23683"}]},{"code":"LOAAP2","display":"basic authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication process level of assurance indicates that long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any other party except Credential Service Provider (CSP). Sessions (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by CSP. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any other party except Verifiers operated by the Credential Service Provider (CSP); however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 1 requirements, assertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23684"}]},{"code":"LOAAP3","display":"medium authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication process level of assurance indicates that the token can be unlocked with password, biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Credential Service Provider (CSP).\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the Claimant prove, through a secure authentication protocol, that he or she controls the token. The Claimant unlocks the token with a password or biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication (through proof of possession of a physical or software token in combination with some memorized secret knowledge). Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 2 requirements, assertions are protected against repudiation by the Verifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23685"}]},{"code":"LOAAP4","display":"high authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication process level of assurance indicates all sensitive data transfer are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. Level 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all communicating parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the Claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that he or she controls the token. All protocol threats at Level 3 are required to be prevented at Level 4. Protocols shall also be strongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23686"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAS","display":"assertion level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23687"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAS1","display":"low assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions and assertion references require protection from modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23688"}]},{"code":"LOAAS2","display":"basic assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required for all assertion protocols. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23689"}]},{"code":"LOAAS3","display":"medium assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are protected against repudiation by the verifier. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23690"}]},{"code":"LOAAS4","display":"high assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nStrongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. \"Bearer\" assertions are not used. \"Holder-of-key\" assertions may be used. RP maintains records of the assertions. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23691"}]}]},{"code":"LOACM","display":"token and credential management level of assurance value)","definition":"Indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23712"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOACM1","display":"low token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Little or no confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include weak identity binding to tokens and plaintext passwords or secrets not transmitted across a network. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23713"}]},{"code":"LOACM2","display":"basic token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Some confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verification must prove claimant controls the token; token resists online guessing, replay, session hijacking, and eavesdropping attacks; and token is at least weakly resistant to man-in-the middle attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23714"}]},{"code":"LOACM3","display":"medium token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. High confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Ownership of token verifiable through security authentication protocol and credential management protects against verifier impersonation attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23715"}]},{"code":"LOACM4","display":"high token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. Very high confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verifier can prove control of token through a secure protocol; credential management supports strong cryptographic authentication of all communication parties. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23716"}]}]},{"code":"LOAID","display":"identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23692"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAID1","display":"low identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Requires identity proofing via presentation of identifying material or information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23694"}]},{"code":"LOAID3","display":"medium identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. Requires identity proofing procedures for verification of identifying materials and information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23695"}]},{"code":"LOAID4","display":"high identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Permits the use of any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23708"}]},{"code":"LOATK2","display":"basic token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires single factor authentication using memorized secret tokens, pre-registered knowledge tokens, look-up secret tokens, out of band tokens, or single factor one-time password devices. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23709"}]},{"code":"LOATK3","display":"medium token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires two authentication factors. Provides multi-factor remote network authentication. Permits multi-factor software cryptographic token. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23710"}]},{"code":"LOATK4","display":"high token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires token that is a hardware cryptographic module validated at validated at Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. Level 4 token requirements can be met by using the PIV authentication key of a FIPS 201 compliant Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Card. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23711"}]}]}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBV","display":"none supplied 6","definition":"Values for security trust mechanism metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23718"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SeverityObservation","display":"SeverityObservation","definition":"Potential values for observations of severity.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21100"}],"concept":[{"code":"H","display":"High","definition":"Indicates the condition may be life-threatening or has the potential to cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16644"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Low","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in some adverse consequences but is unlikely to substantially affect the situation of the subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16646"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Moderate","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in noticable adverse adverse consequences but is unlikely to be life-threatening or cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16645"}]}]},{"code":"_SubjectBodyPosition","display":"_SubjectBodyPosition","definition":"Contains codes for defining the observed, physical position of a subject, such as during an observation, assessment, collection of a specimen, etc. ECG waveforms and vital signs, such as blood pressure, are two examples where a general, observed position typically needs to be noted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22917"}],"concept":[{"code":"LLD","display":"left lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the left side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22918"}]},{"code":"PRN","display":"prone","definition":"Lying with the front or ventral surface downward; lying face down.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22919"}]},{"code":"RLD","display":"right lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the right side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22920"}]},{"code":"SFWL","display":"Semi-Fowler's","definition":"A semi-sitting position in bed with the head of the bed elevated approximately 45 degrees.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22921"}]},{"code":"SIT","display":"sitting","definition":"Resting the body on the buttocks, typically with upper torso erect or semi erect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22922"}]},{"code":"STN","display":"standing","definition":"To be stationary, upright, vertical, on one's legs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22923"}]},{"code":"SUP","display":"supine","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22924"}],"concept":[{"code":"RTRD","display":"reverse trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees with head raised and feet lowered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22925"}]},{"code":"TRD","display":"trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees, with head lowered and feet raised.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22926"}]}]}]},{"code":"_VerificationOutcomeValue","display":"verification outcome","definition":"Values for observations of verification act results\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Verified, not verified, verified with warning.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21906"}],"concept":[{"code":"ACT","display":"active coverage","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22213"}]},{"code":"ACTPEND","display":"active - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22214"}]},{"code":"ELG","display":"eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22211"}]},{"code":"INACT","display":"inactive","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22215"}]},{"code":"INPNDINV","display":"inactive - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22217"}]},{"code":"INPNDUPD","display":"inactive - pending eligibility update","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Eligibility Update.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22216"}]},{"code":"NELG","display":"not eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). May optionally include reasons for the ineligibility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22212"}]}]},{"code":"_WorkSchedule","display":"_WorkSchedule","definition":"Concepts that describe an individual's typical arrangement of working hours for an occupation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23907"}],"concept":[{"code":"DS","display":"daytime shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during daytime hours (for example between 6am and 6pm) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23908"}]},{"code":"EMS","display":"early morning shift","definition":"Consistent Early morning schedule of 13 hours or less per shift (between 2 am and 2 pm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23911"}]},{"code":"ES","display":"evening shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during evening hours (for example between 2pm and midnight) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23909"}]},{"code":"NS","display":"night shift","definition":"Scheduled for work during nighttime hours (for example between 9pm and 8am) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23910"}]},{"code":"RSWN","display":"rotating shift with nights","definition":"Scheduled for work times that change periodically between days, and/or evenings, and includes some night shifts.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23912"}]},{"code":"RSWON","display":"rotating shift without nights","definition":"Scheduled for work days/times that change periodically between days, but does not include night or evening work.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23913"}]},{"code":"SS","display":"split shift","definition":"Shift consisting of two distinct work periods each day that are separated by a break of a few hours (for example 2 to 4 hours)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23914"}]},{"code":"VLS","display":"very long shift","definition":"Shifts of 17 or more hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23915"}]},{"code":"VS","display":"variable shift","definition":"Irregular, unpredictable hours scheduled on a short notice (for example, less than 2 day notice): inconsistent schedule, on-call, as needed, as available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23916"}]}]},{"code":"_AnnotationValue","display":"AnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21095"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ECGAnnotationValue","display":"ECGAnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21097"}]}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationValue","display":"common clinical observation","definition":"**Description:**Used in a patient care message to value simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21945"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-DI (diagnostic imaging) coded observation if no value is also required to convey the full meaning of the observation. This may be a single concept code or a complex expression.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22262"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-diagnostic imaging coded result of the coded observable or \"question\" represented by the paired concept from the the NonLabDICodedObservationType domain.\r\n\r\n\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:**An APGAR result, a functional assessment, etc. The value must not require a specific unit of measure.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22263"}]}]},{"code":"_CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","display":"CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","definition":"**Definition:** The category of addiction used for coverage purposes that may refer to a substance, the consumption of which may result in physical or emotional harm.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22242"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportValueDomains","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Value Domains","definition":"This domain is established as a parent to a variety of value domains being defined to support the communication of Individual Case Safety Reports to regulatory bodies. Arguably, this aggregation is not taxonomically pure, but the grouping will facilitate the management of these domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21397"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CaseSeriousnessCriteria","display":"CaseSeriousnessCriteria","definition":"A code that provides information on the overall effect or outcome of the adverse reaction/adverse event reported in the ICSR. Note the criterion applies to the case as a whole and not to an individual reaction.\r\n\r\nExample concepts are: death, disability, hospitalization, congenital anomaly/ birth defect, and other medically important condition.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21398"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","definition":"A code set that includes codes that are used to characterize the outcome of the device evaluation process. The code defines the manufacturer's conclusions following the evaluation.\r\n\r\nExamples include: inadequate alarms, device maintenance contributed to event, device failed just prior to use, user error caused event","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21405"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","definition":"Code assigned to indicate a relevant fact within the context of the evaluation of a reported product. There are a number of concept types including the status of the evaluation, the type of evaluation findings, and the type of activity carried out as part of the evaluation process.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Actual device involved in incident was evaluated, electrical tests performed, visual examination.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21406"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","definition":"Code assigned to indicate an outcome of the manufacturer's investigation of a product for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include:.component/subassembly failure: air cleaner, computer-, imaging system-, microprocessor-controlled device problem: cache memory, design -- not fail safe.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21404"}]},{"code":"_PertinentReactionRelatedness","display":"Pertinent Reaction Relatedness","definition":"A code to capture the reporter's assessment of the extent to which the reaction is related to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: related, not related, possibly related and unlikely related.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21401"}]},{"code":"_ProductCharacterization","display":"Product Characterization","definition":"A code that characterizes the role that the primary reporter felt that the suspect intervention -- either a substance administration or a device related procedure - played in the incident being reported. This code will capture the primary reporter's assessment of the role that the suspect product played in the incident reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Suspect, Concomitant, Interacting, Re-challenge.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21400"}]},{"code":"_ReactionActionTaken","display":"ReactionActionTaken","definition":"Code used to indicate the action taken by practitioner in response to the problem (whether drug or device related) that is reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: failing device replaced, medication stopped, medication dose adjusted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21407"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReaction","display":"Subject Reaction","definition":"A code to capture the kind of reaction that was suffered by the investigated subject, and that is being reported in the ICSR. At this point, SNOMED or MedDRA have been suggested as code systems to be used for providing this information.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include hives, swelling, rash, anaphylactic shock.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21399"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionEmphasis","display":"SubjectReactionEmphasis","definition":"Code that captures the emphasis that the reporter placed on this reaction.\r\n\r\nExamples include: highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Not highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS, Not highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21403"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionOutcome","display":"SubjectReactionOutcome","definition":"Code that captures the type of outcome from an individual outcome of a reaction to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Recovered/resolved. Recovering/resolving, Not recovered/not resolved, Recovered/resolved with sequelae, Fatal.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21402"}]}]},{"code":"_InjuryObservationValue","display":"InjuryObservationValue","definition":"Values for observations of injuries.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21098"}]},{"code":"_IntoleranceValue","display":"IntoleranceValue","definition":"Codes identifying pariticular groupings of allergens and other agents which cause allergies and intolerances. E.g. the drug, allergen group, food or environmental agent which triggers the intolerance","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21495"}]},{"code":"_IssueTriggerObservationValue","display":"IssueTriggerObservationValue","definition":"The combined domain for different types of coded observation issue triggers, such as diagnoses, allergies, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21528"}]},{"code":"_OtherIndicationValue","display":"OtherIndicationValue","definition":"Indicates an observed reason for a medical action other than an indication or symptom. E.g. Need for a contrast agent prior to a diagnostic image, need for anesthesia prior to surgery, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21544"}]},{"code":"_IndicationValue","display":"IndicationValue","definition":"Indicates the specific observation result which is the reason for the action (prescription, lab test, etc.). E.g. Headache, Ear infection, planned diagnostic image (requiring contrast agent), etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21542"}],"concept":[{"code":"_DiagnosisValue","display":"DiagnosisValue","definition":"Diagnosis Value","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21096"}]},{"code":"_SymptomValue","display":"SymptomValue","definition":"Indicates an observed abnormality in the patientaTMs condition, but does not assert causation. E.g. Runny nose, swelling, flaky skin, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21543"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20471"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityControlObservationValue","title":"SecurityControlObservationValue","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Security observation values used to indicate security control metadata. V:SecurityControl is the union of V:SecurityPolicy, V:ObligationPolicy, V:RefrainPolicy, V:PurposeOfUse, and V:GeneralPurpose of Use, V:PrivacyMark, V:SecurityLabelMark, and V:ControlledUnclassifiedInformation used to populate the SecurityControlObservationValue attribute in order to convey one or more nonhierarchical security control metadata dictating handling caveats including, purpose of use, obligation policy, refrain policy, dissemination controls and privacy marks to which a custodian or receiver is required to comply.","immutable":true,"copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-GeneralPurposeOfUse"]},{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ObservationValue"}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20444"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityPolicy","title":"SecurityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Types of security policies that further specify the ActClassPolicy value set.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"SecurityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-ObligationPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20445"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"ObligationPolicy","title":"ObligationPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"ObligationPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-RefrainPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20446"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"RefrainPolicy","title":"RefrainPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"RefrainPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-PurposeOfUse","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20448"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"PurposeOfUse","title":"PurposeOfUse","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Supports communication of purpose of use at a general level.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"PurposeOfUse"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActReason","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.8"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"ActReason","title":"ActReason","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A set of codes specifying the motivation, cause, or rationale of an Act, when such rationale is not reasonably represented as an ActRelationship of type \"has reason\" linking to another Act.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Example reasons that might qualify for being coded in this field might be: \"routine requirement\", \"infectious disease reporting requirement\", \"on patient request\", \"required by law\".","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"Designation of a concept's state. 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May be used to convey reasons pertaining to coverage contractual provisions, including criteria for eligibility, coverage limitations, coverage maximums, or financial participation required of covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22164"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationManagementReason","display":"ActInformationManagementReason","definition":"**Description:**The rationale or purpose for an act relating to information management, such as archiving information for the purpose of complying with an enterprise data retention policy.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22675"}]},{"code":"_ActInvalidReason","display":"ActInvalidReason","definition":"**Description:** Types of reasons why a substance is invalid for use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23235"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason","display":"ActInvoiceCancelReason","definition":"Domain specifies the codes used to describe reasons why a Provider is cancelling an Invoice or Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20941"}]},{"code":"_ActNoImmunizationReason","display":"ActNoImmunizationReason","definition":"A coded description of the reason for why a patient did not receive a scheduled immunization.\r\n\r\n(important for public health strategy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21529"}]},{"code":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","display":"ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","definition":"Indicates why a fulfiller refused to fulfill a supply order, and considered it important to notify other providers of their decision. E.g. \"Suspect fraud\", \"Possible abuse\", \"Contraindicated\".\r\n\r\n(used when capturing 'refusal to fill' annotations)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21530"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason","display":"ClinicalResearchEventReason","definition":"**Definition:**Specifies the reason that an event occurred in a clinical research study.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22391"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason","display":"ClinicalResearchObservationReason","definition":"**Definition:**SSpecifies the reason that a test was performed or observation collected in a clinical research study.\r\n\r\n**Note:**This set of codes are not strictly reasons, but are used in the currently Normative standard. Future revisions of the specification will model these as ActRelationships and thes codes may subsequently be retired. Thus, these codes should not be used for new specifications.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22392"}]},{"code":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","display":"CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Indicates why the prescription should be suspended.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22393"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ControlActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22809"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","display":"ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","definition":"**Description:** Reasons to refuse a transaction to be undone.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23277"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReason","display":"ControlActReason","definition":"Identifies why a specific query, request, or other trigger event occurred.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21491"}]},{"code":"_GenericUpdateReasonCode","display":"GenericUpdateReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies why a change is being made to a record.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22395"}]},{"code":"_PatientProfileQueryReasonCode","display":"patient profile query reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts identifying why the patient's profile is being queried.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21715"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the request to transfer a prescription from one dispensing facility to another has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22863"}]},{"code":"_RefusalReasonCode","display":"RefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Description:** Identifies why a request to add (or activate) a record is being refused. Examples include the receiving system not able to match the identifier and find that record in the receiving system, having no permission, or a detected issue exists which precludes the requested action.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22906"}]},{"code":"_SchedulingActReason","display":"SchedulingActReason","definition":"Reasons for cancelling or rescheduling an Appointment","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20942"}]},{"code":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"Indicates why the act revision (status update) is being refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23014"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the requested authorization to prescribe or dispense a medication has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22856"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","definition":"Reasons why substitution of a substance administration request is not permitted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21531"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20943"}]},{"code":"_TransferActReason","display":"TransferActReason","definition":"The explanation for why a patient is moved from one location to another within the organization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20944"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationReason","display":"ActAdjudicationReason","definition":"Explanatory codes that describe reasons why an Adjudicator has financially adjusted an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nA companion domain (ActAdjudicationInformationCode) includes information reasons which do not have a financial impact on an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication reason code is AA-CLAIM-0011 - Only Basic Procedure/Test Eligible.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain further rationalizes ActAdjudicationCodes (e.g. AA - Adjudicated with Adjustment), which are used to describe the process of adjudicating an invoice. For AS - Adjudicated as Submitted, there should be no specification of ActAdjudicationReason codes, as there are no financial adjustments against the invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20938"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceReason","display":"ActBillableServiceReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document reasons for providing a billable service; the billable services may include both clinical services and social services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22209"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","display":"ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Represents the reason for the level of coverage provided under the policy or program in terms of the types of entities that may play covered parties based on their personal relationships or employment status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22081"}]},{"code":"_ActImmunizationReason","display":"ActImmunizationReason","definition":"**Description:**A coded description of the reason for why a patient was administered an immunization.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Post Exposure - Reason, Universal Immunization Program, Outbreak Control, Universal School Program","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22077"}]},{"code":"_ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Entered in error\", \"altered decision\", etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22394"}]},{"code":"_NonPerformanceReasonCode","display":"NonPerformanceReasonCode","definition":"The reason the action wasn't performed, e.g. why the medication was not taken. If an action wasn\"t performed, it is often clinically important to know why the action wasn\"t taken.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Patient refused, clinically inappropriate, absolute contraindication etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21569"}]},{"code":"_ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","display":"ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","definition":"Code assigned to indicate the rationale for not performing an evaluation investigation on a device for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include: device received in a condition that made analysis impossible, device evaluation anticipated but not yet begun, device not made by company.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21408"}]},{"code":"_ReferralReasonCode","display":"ReferralReasonCode","definition":"The reason a referral was made.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Specialized Medical Assistance, Other Care Requirements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21568"}]},{"code":"BONUS","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17436"}]},{"code":"CHD","display":"Children only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22082"}]},{"code":"DEP","display":"Dependents only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscriber's dependents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22083"}]},{"code":"ECH","display":"Employee and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her children.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22084"}]},{"code":"EDU","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17438"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"Employee only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to an employee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22085"}]},{"code":"ESP","display":"Employee and spouse","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her spouse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22086"}]},{"code":"FAM","display":"Family","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's family.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22087"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"Individual","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an individual.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22088"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19726"}]},{"code":"PROA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17435"}]},{"code":"RECOV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17437"}]},{"code":"RETRO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17434"}]},{"code":"SPC","display":"Spouse and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's spouse and children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22089"}]},{"code":"SPO","display":"Spouse only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscribers spouse","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22090"}]},{"code":"TRAN","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19727"}]},{"code":"ACCREQNA","display":"Accommodation Requested Not Available","definition":"Accommodation requested is not available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"FLRCNV","display":"Floor Convenience","definition":"Accommodation is assigned for floor convenience.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDNEC","display":"Medical Necessity","definition":"Required for medical reasons(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17428"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"PAT","display":"Patient request","definition":"The Patient requested the action","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SchedulingActReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason"}]},{"code":"_MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","display":"MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document why the procedure is a duplicate of one ordered/charged previously for the same patient within the same date of service and has been determined to be medically necessary.\r\n\r\n**Example:** A doctor needs a different view in a chest X-Ray.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","display":"ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","definition":"Reason for Clinical Service being performed.\r\n\r\nThis domain excludes reasons specified by diagnosed conditions.\r\n\r\nExamples of values from this domain include duplicate therapy and fraudulent prescription.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20939"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceReason"}]},{"code":"OVRER","display":"emergency treatment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented by authorized entities for treating a condition which poses an immediate threat to the patient's health and which requires immediate medical intervention.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22194"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRINCOMP","display":"incompetency override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented because deemed incompetent to provide consent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Maps to v2 CON-16 Subject Competence Indicator (ID) 01791 Definition: Identifies whether the subject was deemed competent to provide consent. Refer to table HL7 Table 0136 - Yes/No Indicator and CON-23 Non-Subject Consenter Reason User-defined Table 0502 - Non-Subject Consenter Reason code NC \"Subject is not competent to consent\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPJ","display":"professional judgment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient declined to consent for providing health care.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22197"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPS","display":"public safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for public safety reasons.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22195"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRTPS","display":"third party safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22196"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"_EligibilityActReasonCode","display":"EligibilityActReasonCode","definition":"Identifies the reason or rational for why a person is eligibile for benefits under an insurance policy or progam.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* A person is a claimant under an automobile insurance policy are client deceased & adopted client has been given a new policy identifier. A new employee is eligible for health insurance as an employment benefit. A person meets a government program eligibility criteria for financial, age or health status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21493"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageProviderReason","display":"ActCoverageProviderReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on characteristics of the provider, e.g., contractual relationship to payor, such as in or out-of-network; relationship of the covered party to the provider.\r\n\r\n**Example:**In closed managed care plan, a covered party is assigned a primary care provider who provides primary care services and authorizes referrals and ancillary and non-primary care services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22168"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageServiceReason","display":"ActCoverageServiceReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on clinical efficacy criteria or practices prescribed by the payor.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22169"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageExclusionReason","display":"CoverageExclusionReason","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on coverage exclusions related to the risk of adverse selection by covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22165"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","display":"CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on financial participation responsibilities of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22166"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageLimitationReason","display":"CoverageLimitationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for limitations on the coverage of a service or product based on coverage contract provisions.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The maximum cost per unit; or the maximum number of units per period, which is typically the policy or program effective time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22167"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","display":"ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented as deemed necessary by authorized entities for providing care in the best interest of the patient; providing immediately needed health care for an emergent condition; or for protecting public or third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. Typically, this involves overriding the subject's consent directives.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. 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This could include incorrect costing for items included in the Invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19735"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPOLICY","display":"incorrect policy","definition":"The policy specified with the Invoice is not correct. For example, it may belong to another Adjudicator or Covered Party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19734"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPROV","display":"incorrect provider","definition":"The provider specified with the Invoice is not correct.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"IMMUNE","display":"immunity","definition":"**Definition:**Testing has shown that the patient already has immunity to the agent targeted by the immunization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21745"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDPREC","display":"medical precaution","definition":"**Definition:**The patient currently has a medical condition for which the vaccine is contraindicated or for which precaution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21747"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"OSTOCK","display":"product out of stock","definition":"**Definition:**There was no supply of the product on hand to perform the service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21744"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PATOBJ","display":"patient objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21740"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PHILISOP","display":"philosophical objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of philosophical beliefs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21742"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"RELIG","display":"religious objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine on religious grounds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21741"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACEFF","display":"vaccine efficacy concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The intended vaccine has expired or is otherwise believed to no longer be effective.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Due to temperature exposure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21746"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACSAF","display":"vaccine safety concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of concerns over its safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21743"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"FRR01","display":"order stopped","definition":"**Definition:**The order has been stopped by the prescriber but this fact has not necessarily captured electronically.\r\n\r\n**Example:**A verbal stop, a fax, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR02","display":"stale-dated order","definition":"**Definition:**Order has not been fulfilled within a reasonable amount of time, and may not be current.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR03","display":"incomplete data","definition":"**Definition:**Data needed to safely act on the order which was expected to become available independent of the order is not yet available\r\n\r\n**Example:**Lab results, diagnostic imaging, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR04","display":"product unavailable","definition":"**Definition:**Product not available or manufactured. Cannot supply.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR05","display":"ethical/religious","definition":"**Definition:**The dispenser has ethical, religious or moral objections to fulfilling the order/dispensing the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR06","display":"unable to provide care","definition":"**Definition:**Fulfiller not able to provide appropriate care associated with fulfilling the order.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Therapy requires ongoing monitoring by fulfiller and fulfiller will be ending practice, leaving town, unable to schedule necessary time, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"RET","display":"retest","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred so that a test or observation performed at a prior event could be performed again due to conditions set forth in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"scheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred due to it being scheduled in the research protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"TRM","display":"termination","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred in order to terminate the subject's participation in the study.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21624"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"UNS","display":"unscheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event that occurred was initiated by a study participant (e.g. the subject or the investigator), and did not occur for protocol reasons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21625"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"NPT","display":"non-protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test was neither defined or scheduled in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"PPT","display":"per protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test occurred due to it being defined in the research protocol, and during an activity or event that was scheduled in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"UPT","display":"per definition","definition":"**:**The observation or test occurred as defined in the research protocol, but at a point in time not specified in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"ALTCHOICE","display":"try another treatment first","definition":"**Description:**This therapy has been ordered as a backup to a preferred therapy. This order will be released when and if the preferred therapy is unsuccessful.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21691"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"CLARIF","display":"prescription requires clarification","definition":"**Description:**Clarification is required before the order can be acted upon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGHIGH","display":"drug level too high","definition":"**Description:**The current level of the medication in the patient's system is too high. The medication is suspended to allow the level to subside to a safer level.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21694"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPADM","display":"admission to hospital","definition":"**Description:**The patient has been admitted to a care facility and their community medications are suspended until hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21684"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"LABINT","display":"lab interference issues","definition":"**Description:**The therapy would interfere with a planned lab test and the therapy is being withdrawn until the test is completed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NON-AVAIL","display":"patient not-available","definition":"**Description:**Patient not available for a period of time due to a scheduled therapy, leave of absence or other reason.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21695"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"parent is pregnant/breast feeding","definition":"**Description:**The patient is pregnant or breast feeding. The therapy will be resumed when the pregnancy is complete and the patient is no longer breastfeeding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SALG","display":"allergy","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to be allergic to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21685"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDDI","display":"drug interacts with another drug","definition":"**Description:**The drug interacts with a short-term treatment that is more urgently required. This order will be resumed when the short-term treatment is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDUPTHER","display":"duplicate therapy","definition":"**Description:**Another short-term co-occurring therapy fulfills the same purpose as this therapy. This therapy will be resumed when the co-occuring therapy is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SINTOL","display":"suspected intolerance","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to have an intolerance to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21686"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SURG","display":"patient scheduled for surgery","definition":"**Description:**The drug is contraindicated for patients receiving surgery and the patient is scheduled to be admitted for surgery in the near future. The drug will be resumed when the patient has sufficiently recovered from the surgery.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21696"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"WASHOUT","display":"waiting for old drug to wash out","definition":"**Description:**The patient was previously receiving a medication contraindicated with the current medication. The current medication will remain on hold until the prior medication has been cleansed from their system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"ALTD","display":"altered decision","definition":"**Description:**The decision on which the recorded information was based was changed before the decision had an effect.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Aborted prescription before patient left office, released prescription before suspend took effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"EIE","display":"entered in error","definition":"**Description:**The information was recorded incorrectly or was recorded in the wrong record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NORECMTCH","display":"no record match","definition":"**Description:** There is no match for the record in the database.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOMATCH"}]},{"code":"INRQSTATE","display":"in requested state","definition":"The record is already in the requested state.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NOMATCH","display":"no 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medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestRenewalRefusalReasonCode","display":"pharmacy supply request renewal refusal reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies why a renewal prescription has been refused.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21727"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_SupplyOrderAbortReasonCode","display":"supply order abort reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that indicates why the prescription should no longer be allowed to be dispensed (but can still administer what is already being dispensed).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReasonConditionNullify","display":"ControlActReasonConditionNullify","definition":"Indicates why the ConditionaTMs status was changed to Nullified. *Examples* administrative error, diagnostic error.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21492"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"age eligibility","definition":"A person becomes eligible for a program based on age.\r\n\r\n*Example:* In the U.S., a person who is 65 years of age or older is eligible for Medicare.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim","definition":"A person becomes eligible for insurance or a program because of crime related health condition or injury.\r\n\r\n*Example:* A person is a claimant under the U.S. Crime Victims Compensation program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability","definition":"A person becomes a claimant under a disability income insurance policy or a disability rehabilitation program because of a health condition or injury which limits the person's ability to earn an income or function without 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histológica"},{"code":"A167","display":"Tuberculosa respiratória primária sem menção de confirmação bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A168","display":"Outras formas de tubercul. das vias respirat., sem menção de confirm. bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A169","display":"Tuberculose respiratória, não especificada, sem menção de confirmação bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A17","display":"Meningite tuberculosa"},{"code":"A170","display":"Meningite tuberculosa"},{"code":"A171","display":"Tuberculoma meníngeo"},{"code":"A178","display":"Outras tuberculoses do sistema nervoso"},{"code":"A179","display":"Tuberculose não especificada do sistema nervoso"},{"code":"A18","display":"Tuberculose de outros orgãos"},{"code":"A180","display":"Tuberculose óssea e das articulações"},{"code":"A181","display":"Tuberculose do aparelho geniturinário"},{"code":"A182","display":"Linfadenopatia tuberculosa periférica"},{"code":"A183","display":"Tuberculose do intestino, do peritônio e 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trematódeo"},{"code":"B67","display":"Equinococose"},{"code":"B670","display":"Infestação hepática por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B671","display":"Infestação pulmonar por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B672","display":"Infestação óssea por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B673","display":"Infestações por Echinmococcus Granulosus, outras e de localizações múltiplas"},{"code":"B674","display":"Infestação não especificada por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B675","display":"Infestação hepática por Echinococcus Multilocularis"},{"code":"B676","display":"Infecções por Echinococcus Multilocularis, outras e de localizações múltiplas"},{"code":"B677","display":"Infestação não especificada por Echinococcus Multilocularis"},{"code":"B678","display":"Infestação hepática não especificada, por Echinococcus"},{"code":"B679","display":"Infestações por Echinococcus, outras e as não especificadas"},{"code":"B68","display":"Infestação por taenia"},{"code":"B680","display":"Infestação por Taenia Solium"},{"code":"B681","display":"Infestação por Taenia Saginata"},{"code":"B689","display":"Infestação não especificada por taenia"},{"code":"B69","display":"Cisticercose"},{"code":"B690","display":"Cisticercose do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"B691","display":"Cisticercose do olho"},{"code":"B698","display":"Cisticercose de outras localizações"},{"code":"B699","display":"Cisticercose não especificada"},{"code":"B70","display":"Difilobotriase e esparganose"},{"code":"B700","display":"Difilobotríase"},{"code":"B701","display":"Esparganose"},{"code":"B71","display":"Outras infestações por cestóides"},{"code":"B710","display":"Infestação por Hymenolepis"},{"code":"B711","display":"Infestação por Dipylidium"},{"code":"B718","display":"Outras infestações especificadas por cestóides"},{"code":"B719","display":"Infestação não especificada por cestóides"},{"code":"B72","display":"Dracontíase"},{"code":"B73","display":"Oncocercose"},{"code":"B74","display":"Filáriose"},{"code":"B740","display":"Filariose por Wuchereria Bancrofti"},{"code":"B741","display":"Filariose por Brugia Malayi"},{"code":"B742","display":"Filariose por Brugia Timori"},{"code":"B743","display":"Loaíase"},{"code":"B744","display":"Mansonelose"},{"code":"B748","display":"Outras filarioses"},{"code":"B749","display":"Filariose não especificada"},{"code":"B75","display":"Triquinose"},{"code":"B76","display":"Ancilostomiase"},{"code":"B760","display":"Ancilostomose"},{"code":"B761","display":"Necatoríase"},{"code":"B768","display":"Outras ancilostomíases"},{"code":"B769","display":"Ancilostomíase não especificada"},{"code":"B77","display":"Ascaridiase"},{"code":"B770","display":"Ascaridíase com complicações intestinais"},{"code":"B778","display":"Ascaridíase com outras complicações"},{"code":"B779","display":"Ascaridíase não especificada"},{"code":"B78","display":"Estrongiloidiase"},{"code":"B780","display":"Estrongiloidíase intestinal"},{"code":"B781","display":"Estrongiloidíase cutânea"},{"code":"B787","display":"Estrongiloidíase disseminada"},{"code":"B789","display":"Estrongiloidíase não especificada"},{"code":"B79","display":"Tricuríase"},{"code":"B80","display":"Oxiuríase"},{"code":"B81","display":"Outras helmintiases intestinais não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"B810","display":"Anisaquíase"},{"code":"B811","display":"Capilaríase intestinal"},{"code":"B812","display":"Tricostrongilose"},{"code":"B813","display":"Angiostrongilíase intestinal"},{"code":"B814","display":"Helmintíases intestinais mistas"},{"code":"B818","display":"Outras helmintíases intestinais especificadas"},{"code":"B82","display":"Parasitose intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B820","display":"Helmintíase intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B829","display":"Parasitose intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B83","display":"Outras helmintiases"},{"code":"B830","display":"Larva Migrans visceral"},{"code":"B831","display":"Gnatostomíase"},{"code":"B832","display":"Angrostrongilíase devida a Parastrongylus cantonensis"},{"code":"B833","display":"Singamose"},{"code":"B834","display":"Hirudiníase Interna"},{"code":"B838","display":"Outras Helmintíases especificadas"},{"code":"B839","display":"Helmintíase não especificada"},{"code":"B85","display":"Pediculose e ftiriase"},{"code":"B850","display":"Pediculose devida a Pediculus Humanus Capitis"},{"code":"B851","display":"Pediculose devida a Pediculus Humanus Corporis"},{"code":"B852","display":"Pediculose não especificada"},{"code":"B853","display":"Ftiríase"},{"code":"B854","display":"Pediculose e Ftiríase mista"},{"code":"B86","display":"Escabiose [sarna]"},{"code":"B87","display":"Miiase"},{"code":"B870","display":"Miíase cutânea"},{"code":"B871","display":"Miíase das feridas"},{"code":"B872","display":"Miíase ocular"},{"code":"B873","display":"Miíase nasofaríngea"},{"code":"B874","display":"Miíase auricular"},{"code":"B878","display":"Miíase de outras localizações"},{"code":"B879","display":"Miíase não especificada"},{"code":"B88","display":"Outras infestações"},{"code":"B880","display":"Outras acaríases"},{"code":"B881","display":"Tungíase [infestação pela pulga da areia]"},{"code":"B882","display":"Outras infestações por artrópodos"},{"code":"B883","display":"Hirudiníase externa"},{"code":"B888","display":"Outras infestações especificadas"},{"code":"B889","display":"Infestação não especificada"},{"code":"B89","display":"Doença parasitária não especificada"},{"code":"B90","display":"Sequelas de tuberculose"},{"code":"B900","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"B901","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose geniturinária"},{"code":"B902","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose óssea e das articulações"},{"code":"B908","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose de outros órgãos"},{"code":"B909","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose das vias respiratórias e de órgãos não especificados"},{"code":"B91","display":"Seqüelas de poliomielite"},{"code":"B92","display":"Seqüelas de hanseníase [lepra]"},{"code":"B94","display":"Sequelas de doenças infecciosas e parasitáriase das não especificadas"},{"code":"B940","display":"Seqüelas de tracoma"},{"code":"B941","display":"Seqüelas de encefalite viral"},{"code":"B942","display":"Seqüelas de hepatite viral"},{"code":"B948","display":"Seqüelas de outras doenças infecciosas e parasitárias especificadas"},{"code":"B949","display":"Seqüelas de doença infecciosa ou parasitária não especificada"},{"code":"B95","display":"Estreptococos e estafilococos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B950","display":"Estreptococo do grupo A, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B951","display":"Estreptococo do grupo B, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B952","display":"Estreptococo do grupo D, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B953","display":"Streptococcus Pneumoniae, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B954","display":"Outros estreptococos, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B955","display":"Estreptococo não especificado, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B956","display":"Staphylococcus Aureus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B957","display":"Outros estafilococos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B958","display":"Estafilococo não especificado, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B96","display":"Outros agentes bactérianos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B960","display":"Mycoplasma Pneumoniae [m. pneumoniae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B961","display":"Klebsiella Pneumoniae [m. pneumoniae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B962","display":"Escherichia Coli [e. coli], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B963","display":"Haemophilus Influenzae [h. influenzae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B964","display":"Proteus (Mirabilis) (Morganii), como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B965","display":"Pseudomonas (Aeruginosa, Mallei, Pseudomallei), como causa de doenças classif. em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B966","display":"Bacillus Fragilis [B. Fragilis], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B967","display":"Clostridium Perfringens [C. Perfringens], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B968","display":"Outros agentes bacterianos especificados, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B97","display":"vírus como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B970","display":"Adenovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B971","display":"Enterovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B972","display":"Coronavírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B973","display":"Retrovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B974","display":"Vírus sincicial respiratório, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B975","display":"Reovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B976","display":"Parvovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B977","display":"Papilomavírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B978","display":"Outros agentes virais, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B99","display":"Doenças infecciosas, outras e as não especificadas"},{"code":"C00","display":"Neoplasia malígna do lábio"},{"code":"C000","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio superior externo"},{"code":"C001","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio inferior externo"},{"code":"C002","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio externo, não especificado"},{"code":"C003","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio superior, face interna"},{"code":"C004","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio inferior, face interna"},{"code":"C005","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, sem especificação, face interna"},{"code":"C006","display":"Neoplasia maligna da comissura labial"},{"code":"C008","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C009","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, não especificado"},{"code":"C01","display":"Neoplasia maligna da base da língua"},{"code":"C02","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da língua"},{"code":"C020","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face dorsal da língua"},{"code":"C021","display":"Neoplasia maligna da borda da língua"},{"code":"C022","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face ventral da língua"},{"code":"C023","display":"Neoplasia maligna de dois terços anteriores da língua, parte não especificada"},{"code":"C024","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala lingual"},{"code":"C028","display":"Neoplasia maligna da língua com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C029","display":"Neoplasia maligna da língua, não especificada"},{"code":"C03","display":"Neoplasia malígna da gengiva"},{"code":"C030","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva superior"},{"code":"C031","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva inferior"},{"code":"C039","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva, não especificada"},{"code":"C04","display":"Neoplasia malígna do assoalho da boca"},{"code":"C040","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho anterior da boca"},{"code":"C041","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho lateral da boca"},{"code":"C048","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho da boca com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C049","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho da boca, não especificado"},{"code":"C05","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato"},{"code":"C050","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato duro"},{"code":"C051","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato mole"},{"code":"C052","display":"Neoplasia maligna da úvula"},{"code":"C058","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C059","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato, não especificado"},{"code":"C06","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da boca"},{"code":"C060","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mucosa oral"},{"code":"C061","display":"Neoplasia maligna do vestíbulo da boca"},{"code":"C062","display":"Neoplasia maligna da área retromolar"},{"code":"C068","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da boca com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C069","display":"Neoplasia maligna da boca, não especificada"},{"code":"C07","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula parótida"},{"code":"C08","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras glândulas salivares maiores e as não especificadas"},{"code":"C080","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula submandibular"},{"code":"C081","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula sublingual"},{"code":"C088","display":"Neoplasia maligna das glândulas salivares maiores com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C089","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula salivar maior, não especificada"},{"code":"C09","display":"Neoplasia malígna da amigdala"},{"code":"C090","display":"Neoplasia maligna da fossa amigdaliana"},{"code":"C091","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pilar amigdaliano (anterior) (posterior)"},{"code":"C098","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C099","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala, não especificada"},{"code":"C10","display":"Neoplasia malígna da orofaringe"},{"code":"C100","display":"Neoplasia maligna da valécula"},{"code":"C101","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face anterior da epiglote"},{"code":"C102","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da orofaringe"},{"code":"C103","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da orofaringe"},{"code":"C104","display":"Neoplasia maligna da fenda branquial"},{"code":"C108","display":"Neoplasia maligna da orofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C109","display":"Neoplasia maligna da orofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C11","display":"Neoplasia malígna da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C110","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede superior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C111","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C112","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C113","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede anterior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C118","display":"Neoplasia maligna da nasofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C119","display":"Neoplasia maligna da nasofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C12","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio piriforme"},{"code":"C13","display":"Neoplasia malígna da hipofaringe"},{"code":"C130","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região pós-cricóidea"},{"code":"C131","display":"Neoplasia maligna da prega ariepiglótica, face hipofaríngea"},{"code":"C132","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da hipofaringe"},{"code":"C138","display":"Neoplasia maligna da hipofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C139","display":"Neoplasia maligna da hipofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C14","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizaçõeslocalizações mal definid lábio cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"C140","display":"Neoplasia maligna da faringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C142","display":"Neoplasia maligna do anel de waldeyer"},{"code":"C148","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, cavidade oral e faringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C15","display":"Neoplasia malígna do esôfago"},{"code":"C150","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção cervical do esôfago (esôfago cervical)"},{"code":"C151","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção torácica do esôfago (esôfago torácico)"},{"code":"C152","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção abdominal do esôfago (esôfago abdominal)"},{"code":"C153","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço superior do esôfago"},{"code":"C154","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço médio do esôfago"},{"code":"C155","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço inferior do esôfago"},{"code":"C158","display":"Neoplasia maligna do esôfago com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C159","display":"Neoplasia maligna do esôfago, não especificado"},{"code":"C16","display":"Neoplasia malígna do estomago"},{"code":"C160","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cárdia"},{"code":"C161","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fundo do estômago"},{"code":"C162","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do estômago"},{"code":"C163","display":"Neoplasia maligna do antro pilórico"},{"code":"C164","display":"Neoplasia maligna do piloro"},{"code":"C165","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pequena curvatura do estômago, não especificada"},{"code":"C166","display":"Neoplasia maligna da grande curvatura do estômago, não especificada"},{"code":"C168","display":"Neoplasia maligna do estômago com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C169","display":"Neoplasia maligna do estômago, não especificado"},{"code":"C17","display":"Neoplasia malígna do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C170","display":"Neoplasia maligna do duodeno"},{"code":"C171","display":"Neoplasia maligna do jejuno"},{"code":"C172","display":"Neoplasia maligna do íleo"},{"code":"C173","display":"Neoplasia maligna do divertículo de meckel"},{"code":"C178","display":"Neoplasia maligna do intestino delgado com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C179","display":"Neoplasia maligna do intestino delgado, não especificado"},{"code":"C18","display":"Neoplasia malígna do colon"},{"code":"C180","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ceco"},{"code":"C181","display":"Neoplasia maligna do apêndice (vermiforme)"},{"code":"C182","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon ascendente"},{"code":"C183","display":"Neoplasia maligna da flexura (ângulo) hepática(o)"},{"code":"C184","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon transverso"},{"code":"C185","display":"Neoplasia maligna da flexura (ângulo) esplênica(o)"},{"code":"C186","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon descendente"},{"code":"C187","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon sigmóide"},{"code":"C188","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C189","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon, não especificado"},{"code":"C19","display":"Neoplasia maligna da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"C20","display":"Neoplasia maligna do reto"},{"code":"C21","display":"Neoplasia malígna do anûs e do canal anal"},{"code":"C210","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ânus, não especificado"},{"code":"C211","display":"Neoplasia maligna do canal anal"},{"code":"C212","display":"Neoplasia maligna da zona cloacogênica"},{"code":"C218","display":"Neoplasia maligna do reto, ânus e do canal anal com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C22","display":"Neoplasia malígna do fígado e das vias biliares intra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C220","display":"Carcinoma de células hepáticas"},{"code":"C221","display":"Carcinoma de vias biliares intra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C222","display":"Hepatoblastoma"},{"code":"C223","display":"Angiossarcoma do fígado"},{"code":"C224","display":"Outros sarcomas do fígado"},{"code":"C227","display":"Outros carcinomas especificados do fígado"},{"code":"C229","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fígado, não especificada"},{"code":"C23","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"C24","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas das vias biliares"},{"code":"C240","display":"Neoplasia maligna das vias biliares extra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C241","display":"Neoplasia maligna da ampola de vater"},{"code":"C248","display":"Neoplasia maligna das vias biliares com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C249","display":"Neoplasia maligna da via biliar, não especificada"},{"code":"C25","display":"Neoplasia malígna do pâncreas"},{"code":"C250","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cabeça do pâncreas"},{"code":"C251","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do pâncreas"},{"code":"C252","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cauda do pâncreas"},{"code":"C253","display":"Neoplasia maligna do canal pancreático"},{"code":"C254","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas endócrino"},{"code":"C257","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes do pâncreas"},{"code":"C258","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C259","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas, não especificado"},{"code":"C26","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos digestivos e de localizações mal definidas no aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"C260","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trato intestinal, parte não especificada"},{"code":"C261","display":"Neoplasia maligna do baço"},{"code":"C268","display":"Neoplasia maligna do aparelho digestivo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C269","display":"Neoplasia maligna de localizações mal definidas dentro do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"C30","display":"Neoplasia malígna da cavidade nasal e do ouvido médio"},{"code":"C300","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cavidade nasal"},{"code":"C301","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ouvido médio"},{"code":"C31","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos seios da face"},{"code":"C310","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio maxilar"},{"code":"C311","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio etmoidal"},{"code":"C312","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio frontal"},{"code":"C313","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio esfenoidal"},{"code":"C318","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos seios da face com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C319","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio da face, não especificado"},{"code":"C32","display":"Neoplasia malígna da laringe"},{"code":"C320","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glote"},{"code":"C321","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região supraglótica"},{"code":"C322","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região subglótica"},{"code":"C323","display":"Neoplasia maligna das cartilagens da laringe"},{"code":"C328","display":"Neoplasia maligna da laringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C329","display":"Neoplasia maligna da laringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C33","display":"Neoplasia maligna da traquéia"},{"code":"C34","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos bronquios e dos pulmões"},{"code":"C340","display":"Neoplasia maligna do brônquio principal"},{"code":"C341","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo superior, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C342","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo médio, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C343","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo inferior, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C348","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos brônquios e dos pulmões com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C349","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos brônquios ou pulmões, não especificado"},{"code":"C37","display":"Neoplasia maligna do timo"},{"code":"C38","display":"Neoplasia malígna do coração mediastino e pleura"},{"code":"C380","display":"Neoplasia maligna do coração"},{"code":"C381","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino anterior"},{"code":"C382","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino posterior"},{"code":"C383","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C384","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pleura"},{"code":"C388","display":"Neoplasia maligna do coração, mediastino e pleura com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C39","display":"Neoplasia malígna out localização de localização mal def aparelho respiratório orgão intratoracico"},{"code":"C390","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trato respiratório superior, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C398","display":"Neoplasia maligna do aparelho respiratório e dos órgãos intratorácicos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C399","display":"Neoplasia maligna de localizações mal definidas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"C40","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares dos membros"},{"code":"C400","display":"Neoplasia maligna da omoplata [escápula] e ossos longos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"C401","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos curtos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"C402","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos longos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"C403","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos curtos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"C408","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares dos membros com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C409","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares de membro não especificado"},{"code":"C41","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizações e de localizações não especificadas"},{"code":"C410","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos do crânio e da face"},{"code":"C411","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mandíbula"},{"code":"C412","display":"Neoplasia maligna da coluna vertebral"},{"code":"C413","display":"Neoplasia maligna das costelas, esterno e clavícula"},{"code":"C414","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos da pelve, sacro e cóccix"},{"code":"C418","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e das cartilagens articulares com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C419","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares, não especificados"},{"code":"C43","display":"Melanoma maligno da pele"},{"code":"C430","display":"Melanoma maligno do lábio"},{"code":"C431","display":"Melanoma maligno da pálpebra, incluindo as comissuras palpebrais"},{"code":"C432","display":"Melanoma maligno da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"C433","display":"Melanoma maligno de outras partes e partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"C434","display":"Melanoma maligno do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"C435","display":"Melanoma maligno do tronco"},{"code":"C436","display":"Melanoma maligno do membro superior, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C437","display":"Melanoma maligno do membro inferior, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C438","display":"Melanoma maligno invasivo da pele"},{"code":"C439","display":"Melanoma maligno de pele, não especificado"},{"code":"C44","display":"Outras neoplasias malígnas da pele"},{"code":"C440","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do lábio"},{"code":"C441","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"C442","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"C443","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"C444","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"C445","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do tronco"},{"code":"C446","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do membro superior, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C447","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do membro inferior, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C448","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C449","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"C45","display":"Mesotelioma"},{"code":"C450","display":"Mesotelioma da pleura"},{"code":"C451","display":"Mesotelioma do peritônio"},{"code":"C452","display":"Mesotelioma do pericárdio"},{"code":"C457","display":"Mesotelioma de outras localizações"},{"code":"C459","display":"Mesotelioma, não especificado"},{"code":"C46","display":"Sarcoma de Kaposi"},{"code":"C460","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi da pele"},{"code":"C461","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de tecidos moles"},{"code":"C462","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi do palato"},{"code":"C463","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"C467","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de outras localizações"},{"code":"C468","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de múltiplos órgãos"},{"code":"C469","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi, não especificado"},{"code":"C47","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos nervos perifericos e do sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"C470","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C471","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C472","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C473","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do tórax"},{"code":"C474","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do abdome"},{"code":"C475","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos da pelve"},{"code":"C476","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do tronco"},{"code":"C478","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos e do sistema nervoso autônomo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C479","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos e sistema nervoso autônomo, não especificados"},{"code":"C48","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos tecidos moles do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"C480","display":"Neoplasia maligna do retroperitônio"},{"code":"C481","display":"Neoplasia maligna de partes especificadas do peritônio"},{"code":"C482","display":"Neoplasia maligna do peritônio"},{"code":"C488","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos tecidos moles do retroperitônio e do peritônio com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C49","display":"Neoplasia malígna do tecido conjuntivo e de outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"C490","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C491","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C492","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C493","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do tórax"},{"code":"C494","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do abdome"},{"code":"C495","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles da pelve"},{"code":"C496","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do tronco"},{"code":"C498","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e dos tecidos moles com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C499","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles, não especificados"},{"code":"C50","display":"Neoplasia malígna da mama"},{"code":"C500","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mamilo e aréola"},{"code":"C501","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção central da mama"},{"code":"C502","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante superior interno da mama"},{"code":"C503","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante inferior interno da mama"},{"code":"C504","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante superior externo da mama"},{"code":"C505","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante inferior externo da mama"},{"code":"C506","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção axilar da mama"},{"code":"C508","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mama com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C509","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mama, não especificada"},{"code":"C51","display":"Neoplasia malígna da vulva"},{"code":"C510","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos grandes lábios"},{"code":"C511","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos pequenos lábios"},{"code":"C512","display":"Neoplasia maligna do clitóris"},{"code":"C518","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vulva com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C519","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vulva, não especificada"},{"code":"C52","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vagina"},{"code":"C53","display":"Neoplasia malígna do colo do utero"},{"code":"C530","display":"Neoplasia maligna do endocérvix"},{"code":"C531","display":"Neoplasia maligna do exocérvix"},{"code":"C538","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo do útero com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C539","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"C54","display":"Neoplasia malígna do corpo do utero"},{"code":"C540","display":"Neoplasia maligna do istmo do útero"},{"code":"C541","display":"Neoplasia maligna do endométrio"},{"code":"C542","display":"Neoplasia maligna do miométrio"},{"code":"C543","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fundo do útero"},{"code":"C548","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do útero com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C549","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"C55","display":"Neoplasia maligna do útero, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C56","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ovário"},{"code":"C57","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos genitais femininose dos não especificados"},{"code":"C570","display":"Neoplasia maligna da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"C571","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ligamento largo"},{"code":"C572","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ligamento redondo"},{"code":"C573","display":"Neoplasia maligna do paramétrio"},{"code":"C574","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos anexos uterinos"},{"code":"C577","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes especificadas dos órgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"C578","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos genitais femininos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C579","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"C58","display":"Neoplasia maligna da placenta"},{"code":"C60","display":"Neoplasia malígna do pênis"},{"code":"C600","display":"Neoplasia maligna do prepúcio"},{"code":"C601","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glande"},{"code":"C602","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do pênis"},{"code":"C608","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pênis com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C609","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pênis, não especificado"},{"code":"C61","display":"Neoplasia maligna da próstata"},{"code":"C62","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos testiculos"},{"code":"C620","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo criptorquídico"},{"code":"C621","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo tópico"},{"code":"C629","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"C63","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos genitais masculinos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"C630","display":"Neoplasia maligna do epidídimo"},{"code":"C631","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cordão espermático"},{"code":"C632","display":"Neoplasia maligna do escroto"},{"code":"C637","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outros órgãos genitais masculinos especificados"},{"code":"C638","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos genitais masculinos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C639","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"C64","display":"Neoplasia maligna do rim, exceto pelve renal"},{"code":"C65","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pelve renal"},{"code":"C66","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ureteres"},{"code":"C67","display":"Neoplasia malígna da bexiga"},{"code":"C670","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trígono da bexiga"},{"code":"C671","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cúpula da bexiga"},{"code":"C672","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da bexiga"},{"code":"C673","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede anterior da bexiga"},{"code":"C674","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da bexiga"},{"code":"C675","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo da bexiga"},{"code":"C676","display":"Neoplasia maligna do orifício uretérico"},{"code":"C677","display":"Neoplasia maligna do úraco"},{"code":"C678","display":"Neoplasia maligna da bexiga com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C679","display":"Neoplasia maligna da bexiga, sem outra especificações"},{"code":"C68","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos urinários e dos não especificados"},{"code":"C680","display":"Neoplasia maligna da uretra"},{"code":"C681","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula parauretral"},{"code":"C688","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos urinários com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C689","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"C69","display":"Neoplasia malígna do olho e anexos"},{"code":"C690","display":"Neoplasia maligna da conjuntiva"},{"code":"C691","display":"Neoplasia maligna da córnea"},{"code":"C692","display":"Neoplasia maligna da retina"},{"code":"C693","display":"Neoplasia maligna da coróide"},{"code":"C694","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo ciliar"},{"code":"C695","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula e canal lacrimal"},{"code":"C696","display":"Neoplasia maligna da órbita"},{"code":"C698","display":"Neoplasia maligna do olho e anexos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C699","display":"Neoplasia maligna do olho, não especificado"},{"code":"C70","display":"Neoplasia malígna das meninges"},{"code":"C700","display":"Neoplasia maligna das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"C701","display":"Neoplasia maligna das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"C709","display":"Neoplasia maligna da meninge, não especificada"},{"code":"C71","display":"Neoplasia malígna do encefalo"},{"code":"C710","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cérebro, exceto lobos e ventrículos"},{"code":"C711","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo frontal"},{"code":"C712","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo temporal"},{"code":"C713","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo parietal"},{"code":"C714","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo occipital"},{"code":"C715","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ventrículo cerebral"},{"code":"C716","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cerebelo"},{"code":"C717","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tronco cerebral"},{"code":"C718","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C719","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"C72","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"C720","display":"Neoplasia maligna da medula espinhal"},{"code":"C721","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cauda eqüina"},{"code":"C722","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo olfativo"},{"code":"C723","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo óptico"},{"code":"C724","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo acústico"},{"code":"C725","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outros nervos cranianos e os não especificados"},{"code":"C728","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo e de out. partes do sist. nervoso central com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C729","display":"Neoplasia maligna do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"C73","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"C74","display":"Neoplasia malígna da glândula supra-renal"},{"code":"C740","display":"Neoplasia maligna do córtex da supra-renal"},{"code":"C741","display":"Neoplasia maligna da medula da supra-renal"},{"code":"C749","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula supra-renal, não especificada"},{"code":"C75","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras glândulas endocrinas e de estruturas relacionadas"},{"code":"C750","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"C751","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"C752","display":"Neoplasia maligna do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"C753","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula pineal"},{"code":"C754","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"C755","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo aórtico e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"C758","display":"Neoplasia maligna com comprometimento pluriglandular, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"C759","display":"Neoplasia maligna de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"C76","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizações e de localizações mal definidas"},{"code":"C760","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C761","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tórax"},{"code":"C762","display":"Neoplasia maligna do abdome"},{"code":"C763","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pelve"},{"code":"C764","display":"Neoplasia maligna do membro superior"},{"code":"C765","display":"Neoplasia maligna do membro inferior"},{"code":"C767","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras localizações mal definidas"},{"code":"C768","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras localizações e das mal definidas com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C77","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária e não especificada dos ganglios linfáticos"},{"code":"C770","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C771","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intratorácicos"},{"code":"C772","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intra-abdominais"},{"code":"C773","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linf. axilares e membros superiores"},{"code":"C774","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linf. inguinais e membros inferiores"},{"code":"C775","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intrapélvicos"},{"code":"C778","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos de múltiplas regiões"},{"code":"C779","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada de gânglio linfático, não especificado"},{"code":"C78","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária dos orgãos respiratórios e digestivos"},{"code":"C780","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária dos pulmões"},{"code":"C781","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do mediastino"},{"code":"C782","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da pleura"},{"code":"C783","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outros órgãos respiratórios e não especificados"},{"code":"C784","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C785","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do intestino grosso e do reto"},{"code":"C786","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"C787","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do fígado"},{"code":"C788","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outros órgãos digestivos e não especificados"},{"code":"C79","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária de outras localizações"},{"code":"C790","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do rim e da pelve renal"},{"code":"C791","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da bexiga, de outro órgão urinário e não especificado"},{"code":"C792","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da pele"},{"code":"C793","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do encéfalo e das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"C794","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outras partes do sistema nervoso e não especificadas"},{"code":"C795","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária dos ossos e da medula óssea"},{"code":"C796","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do ovário"},{"code":"C797","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária das glândulas supra-renais (adrenais)"},{"code":"C798","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outra localização especificada"},{"code":"C80","display":"Neoplasia maligna, sem especificação de localização"},{"code":"C81","display":"Doença de Hodgkin"},{"code":"C810","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, predominância linfocítica"},{"code":"C811","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, esclerose nodular"},{"code":"C812","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, celularidade mista"},{"code":"C813","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, depleção linfocítica"},{"code":"C817","display":"Outra forma da doença de Hodgkin"},{"code":"C819","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, não especificada"},{"code":"C82","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin folicular (nodular)"},{"code":"C820","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, pequenas células clivadas, folicular"},{"code":"C821","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, misto, de pequenas e grandes células clivadas, folicular"},{"code":"C822","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, grandes células, folicular"},{"code":"C827","display":"Outros tipos de linfoma não-hodgkin, folicular"},{"code":"C829","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, folicular, não especificado"},{"code":"C83","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso"},{"code":"C830","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, pequenas células (difuso)"},{"code":"C831","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, pequenas células clivadas (difuso)"},{"code":"C832","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, misto, de pequenas e grandes células (difuso)"},{"code":"C833","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, grandes células (difuso)"},{"code":"C834","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, imunoblástico (difuso)"},{"code":"C835","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, linfoblástico (difuso)"},{"code":"C836","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, indiferenciado (difuso)"},{"code":"C837","display":"Tumor de Burkitt"},{"code":"C838","display":"Outros tipos de linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso"},{"code":"C839","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, não especificado"},{"code":"C84","display":"Linfomas de células t cutâneas e periféricas"},{"code":"C840","display":"Micose fungóide"},{"code":"C841","display":"Doença de Sézary"},{"code":"C842","display":"Linfoma da zona T"},{"code":"C843","display":"Linfoma linfoepitelióide"},{"code":"C844","display":"Linfoma de células T, periférico"},{"code":"C845","display":"Outros linfomas de células T e os não especificados"},{"code":"C85","display":"Outros tipos e de tipo não especificado"},{"code":"C850","display":"Linfossarcoma"},{"code":"C851","display":"Linfoma de células B, não especificado"},{"code":"C857","display":"Outros tipos especificados de linfoma não-hodgkin"},{"code":"C859","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin de tipo não especificado"},{"code":"C88","display":"Doenças imunoproliferativas malígnas"},{"code":"C880","display":"Macroglobulinemia de waldenström"},{"code":"C881","display":"Doença de cadeia pesada Alfa"},{"code":"C882","display":"Doença de cadeia pesada Gama"},{"code":"C883","display":"Doença imunoproliferativa do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C887","display":"Outras doenças imunoproliferativas malignas"},{"code":"C889","display":"Doença imunoproliferativa maligna, não especificada"},{"code":"C90","display":"Mieloma múltiplo e neoplasias malígnas de plasmócitos"},{"code":"C900","display":"Mieloma múltiplo"},{"code":"C901","display":"Leucemia plasmocitária"},{"code":"C902","display":"Plasmocitoma extramedular"},{"code":"C91","display":"Leucemia linfóide"},{"code":"C910","display":"Leucemia linfoblástica aguda"},{"code":"C911","display":"Leucemia linfocítica crônica"},{"code":"C912","display":"Leucemia linfocítica subaguda"},{"code":"C913","display":"Leucemia pró-linfocítica"},{"code":"C914","display":"Leucemia de células pilosas"},{"code":"C915","display":"Leucemia de células t do adulto"},{"code":"C917","display":"Outras leucemias linfóides"},{"code":"C919","display":"Leucemia linfóide, não especificada"},{"code":"C92","display":"Leucemia mielóide"},{"code":"C920","display":"Leucemia mielóide aguda"},{"code":"C921","display":"Leucemia mielóide crônica"},{"code":"C922","display":"Leucemia mielóide subaguda"},{"code":"C923","display":"Sarcoma mielóide"},{"code":"C924","display":"Leucemia pró-mielocítica aguda"},{"code":"C925","display":"Leucemia mielomonocítica aguda"},{"code":"C927","display":"Outras leucemias mielóides"},{"code":"C929","display":"Leucemia mielóide, não especificada"},{"code":"C93","display":"Leucemia monocitica"},{"code":"C930","display":"Leucemia monocítica aguda"},{"code":"C931","display":"Leucemia monocítica crônica"},{"code":"C932","display":"Leucemia monocítica subaguda"},{"code":"C937","display":"Outras leucemias monocíticas"},{"code":"C939","display":"Leucemia monocítica, não especificada"},{"code":"C94","display":"Outras leucemias de células de tipo especificado"},{"code":"C940","display":"Eritremia e eritroleucemia agudas"},{"code":"C941","display":"Eritremia crônica"},{"code":"C942","display":"Leucemia megacarioblástica aguda"},{"code":"C943","display":"Leucemia de mastócitos"},{"code":"C944","display":"Panmielose aguda"},{"code":"C945","display":"Mielofibrose aguda"},{"code":"C947","display":"Outras leucemias especificadas"},{"code":"C95","display":"Leucemia de tipo célular não especificado"},{"code":"C950","display":"Leucemia aguda de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C951","display":"Leucemia crônica de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C952","display":"Leucemia subaguda de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C957","display":"Outras leucemias de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C959","display":"Leucemia não especificada"},{"code":"C96","display":"Out neoplasias malígnas e as não especificadas tecidos linfático hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"C960","display":"Doença de Letterer-Siwe"},{"code":"C961","display":"Histiocitose maligna"},{"code":"C962","display":"Tumor maligno de mastócitos"},{"code":"C963","display":"Linfoma histiocítico verdadeiro"},{"code":"C967","display":"Outras neoplasias malignas especificadas dos tecidos linfático, hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"C969","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos tecidos linfático, hematopoético e tecidos correlatos, não especificada"},{"code":"C97","display":"Neoplasias malignas de localizações múltiplas independentes (primárias)"},{"code":"D00","display":"Carcinoma in situ da cavidade oral do esôfago e do estomago"},{"code":"D000","display":"Carcinoma in situ dos lábios, cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"D001","display":"Carcinoma in situ do esôfago"},{"code":"D002","display":"Carcinoma in situ do estômago"},{"code":"D01","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros orgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D010","display":"Carcinoma in situ do cólon"},{"code":"D011","display":"Carcinoma in situ da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"D012","display":"Carcinoma in situ do reto"},{"code":"D013","display":"Carcinoma in situ do ânus e canal anal"},{"code":"D014","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do intestino e as não especificadas"},{"code":"D015","display":"Carcinoma in situ do fígado, vesícula biliar e vias biliares"},{"code":"D017","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos especificados do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D019","display":"Carcinoma in situ de órgãos digestivos, não especificado"},{"code":"D02","display":"Carcinoma in situ do ouvido médio e do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D020","display":"Carcinoma in situ da laringe"},{"code":"D021","display":"Carcinoma in situ da traquéia"},{"code":"D022","display":"Carcinoma in situ dos brônquios e pulmões"},{"code":"D023","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D029","display":"Carcinoma in situ do aparelho respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D03","display":"Melanoma in situ"},{"code":"D030","display":"Melanoma in situ do lábio"},{"code":"D031","display":"Melanoma in situ da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D032","display":"Melanoma in situ da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D033","display":"Melanoma in situ de outras partes, e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D034","display":"Melanoma in situ do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D035","display":"Melanoma in situ do tronco"},{"code":"D036","display":"Melanoma in situ dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D037","display":"Melanoma in situ dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D038","display":"Melanoma in situ de outras localizações"},{"code":"D039","display":"Melanoma in situ, não especificado"},{"code":"D04","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele"},{"code":"D040","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do lábio"},{"code":"D041","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D042","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D043","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D044","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D045","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do tronco"},{"code":"D046","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D047","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D048","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele de outras localizações"},{"code":"D049","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"D05","display":"Carcinoma in situ da mama"},{"code":"D050","display":"Carcinoma lobular in situ"},{"code":"D051","display":"Carcinoma intraductal in situ"},{"code":"D057","display":"Outros carcinomas in situ"},{"code":"D059","display":"Carcinoma in situ da mama, não especificado"},{"code":"D06","display":"Carcinoma in situ do colo do útero (cervix)"},{"code":"D060","display":"Carcinoma in situ do endocérvix"},{"code":"D061","display":"Carcinoma in situ do exocérvix"},{"code":"D067","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do colo do útero"},{"code":"D069","display":"Carcinoma in situ do colo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D07","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros orgãos genitais e dos não especificados"},{"code":"D070","display":"Carcinoma in situ do endométrio"},{"code":"D071","display":"Carcinoma in situ da vulva"},{"code":"D072","display":"Carcinoma in situ da vagina"},{"code":"D073","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos genitais femininos e os não especificados"},{"code":"D074","display":"Carcinoma in situ do pênis"},{"code":"D075","display":"Carcinoma in situ da próstata"},{"code":"D076","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos genitais masculinos e os não especificados"},{"code":"D09","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras localizações e das não especificadas"},{"code":"D090","display":"Carcinoma in situ da bexiga"},{"code":"D091","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos urinários e os não especificados"},{"code":"D092","display":"Carcinoma in situ do olho"},{"code":"D093","display":"Carcinoma in situ da tireóide e de outras glândulas endócrinas"},{"code":"D097","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D099","display":"Carcinoma in situ, não especificado"},{"code":"D10","display":"Neoplasia benigna da boca e da faringe"},{"code":"D100","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos lábios"},{"code":"D101","display":"Neoplasia benigna da língua"},{"code":"D102","display":"Neoplasia benigna do assoalho da boca"},{"code":"D103","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes da boca e as não especificadas"},{"code":"D104","display":"Neoplasia benigna da amígdala"},{"code":"D105","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes da orofaringe"},{"code":"D106","display":"Neoplasia benigna da nasofaringe"},{"code":"D107","display":"Neoplasia benigna da hipofaringe"},{"code":"D109","display":"Neoplasia benigna da faringe, não especificada"},{"code":"D11","display":"Neoplasia benigna de glândulas salivares maiores"},{"code":"D110","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula parótida"},{"code":"D117","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas salivares maiores"},{"code":"D119","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula salivar maior, não especificada"},{"code":"D12","display":"Neoplasia benigna do colon reto canal anal e anûs"},{"code":"D120","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ceco"},{"code":"D121","display":"Neoplasia benigna do apêndice (vermiforme)"},{"code":"D122","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon ascendente"},{"code":"D123","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon transverso"},{"code":"D124","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon descendente"},{"code":"D125","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon sigmóide"},{"code":"D126","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon, não especificada"},{"code":"D127","display":"Neoplasia benigna da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"D128","display":"Neoplasia benigna do reto"},{"code":"D129","display":"Neoplasia benigna do canal anal e ânus"},{"code":"D13","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes e de partes mal definidas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D130","display":"Neoplasia benigna do esôfago"},{"code":"D131","display":"Neoplasia benigna do estômago"},{"code":"D132","display":"Neoplasia benigna do duodeno"},{"code":"D133","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes e partes não especificadas do intestino delgado"},{"code":"D134","display":"Neoplasia benigna do fígado"},{"code":"D135","display":"Neoplasia benigna das vias biliares extra-hepáticas"},{"code":"D136","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pâncreas"},{"code":"D137","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pâncreas endócrino"},{"code":"D139","display":"Neoplasia benigna de localizações mal definidas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D14","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ouvido médio e do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D140","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ouvido médio, cavidade nasal e seios paranasais"},{"code":"D141","display":"Neoplasia benigna da laringe"},{"code":"D142","display":"Neoplasia benigna da traquéia"},{"code":"D143","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos brônquios e pulmão"},{"code":"D144","display":"Neoplasia benigna do aparelho respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D15","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros orgãos intratoracicos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"D150","display":"Neoplasia benigna do timo"},{"code":"D151","display":"Neoplasia benigna do coração"},{"code":"D152","display":"Neoplasia benigna do mediastino"},{"code":"D157","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos intratorácicos especificados"},{"code":"D159","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão intratorácico, não especificado"},{"code":"D16","display":"Neoplasia benigna de osso e de cartilagem articular"},{"code":"D160","display":"Neoplasia benigna da omoplata [escápula] e ossos longos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"D161","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos curtos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"D162","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos longos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"D163","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos curtos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"D164","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos do crânio e da face"},{"code":"D165","display":"Neoplasia benigna do osso da mandíbula"},{"code":"D166","display":"Neoplasia benigna da coluna vertebral"},{"code":"D167","display":"Neoplasia benigna das costelas, do esterno e da clavícula"},{"code":"D168","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos pélvicos, sacro e cóccix"},{"code":"D169","display":"Neoplasia benigna do osso e cartilagem articular, não especificado"},{"code":"D17","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna"},{"code":"D170","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e do tecido subcutâneo da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"D171","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo do tronco"},{"code":"D172","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo dos membros"},{"code":"D173","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo de out. localiz. e de localiz. não especif."},{"code":"D174","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de órgãos intratorácicos"},{"code":"D175","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de órgãos intra-abdominais"},{"code":"D176","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna do cordão espermático"},{"code":"D177","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de outras localizações"},{"code":"D179","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de localização não especificada"},{"code":"D18","display":"Hemangioma e linfangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D180","display":"Hemangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D181","display":"Linfangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D19","display":"Neoplasia benigna de tecido mesotelial"},{"code":"D190","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial da pleura"},{"code":"D191","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial do peritônio"},{"code":"D197","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial de outras localizações"},{"code":"D199","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial, não especificado"},{"code":"D20","display":"Neoplasia benigna de tecido mole do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"D200","display":"Neoplasia benigna do retroperitônio"},{"code":"D201","display":"Neoplasia benigna do peritônio"},{"code":"D21","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas do tecido conjuntivo e de outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"D210","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"D211","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles dos membros superiores, incl. ombro"},{"code":"D212","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles dos membros inferiores, incl. quadril"},{"code":"D213","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do tórax"},{"code":"D214","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do abdome"},{"code":"D215","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles da pelve"},{"code":"D216","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do tronco, não especificado"},{"code":"D219","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"D22","display":"Nevos melanociticos"},{"code":"D220","display":"Nevo melanocítico do lábio"},{"code":"D221","display":"Nevo melanocítico da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D222","display":"Nevo melanocítico da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D223","display":"Nevo melanocítico de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D224","display":"Nevo melanocítico do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D225","display":"Nevo melanocítico do tronco"},{"code":"D226","display":"Nevo melanocítico dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D227","display":"Nevo melanocítico dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D229","display":"Nevo melanocítico, não especificado"},{"code":"D23","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas da pele"},{"code":"D230","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos lábios"},{"code":"D231","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D232","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D233","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D234","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D235","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele do tronco"},{"code":"D236","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos membros superiores, incluindo o ombro"},{"code":"D237","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos membros inferiores, incluindo o quadril"},{"code":"D239","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"D24","display":"Neoplasia benigna da mama"},{"code":"D25","display":"Leiomioma do utero"},{"code":"D250","display":"Leiomioma submucoso do útero"},{"code":"D251","display":"Leiomioma intramural do útero"},{"code":"D252","display":"Leiomioma subseroso do útero"},{"code":"D259","display":"Leiomioma do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D26","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas do utero"},{"code":"D260","display":"Neoplasia benigna do colo do útero"},{"code":"D261","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo do útero"},{"code":"D267","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes do útero"},{"code":"D269","display":"Neoplasia benigna do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D27","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ovário"},{"code":"D28","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros orgãos genitais femininose de orgãos não especificados"},{"code":"D280","display":"Neoplasia benigna da vulva"},{"code":"D281","display":"Neoplasia benigna da vagina"},{"code":"D282","display":"Neoplasia benigna das trompas e ligamentos uterinos"},{"code":"D287","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos genitais femininos especificados"},{"code":"D289","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"D29","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos orgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D290","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pênis"},{"code":"D291","display":"Neoplasia benigna da próstata"},{"code":"D292","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos testículos"},{"code":"D293","display":"Neoplasia benigna do epidídimo"},{"code":"D294","display":"Neoplasia benigna do escroto"},{"code":"D297","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D299","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"D30","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos orgãos urinários"},{"code":"D300","display":"Neoplasia benigna do rim"},{"code":"D301","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pelve renal"},{"code":"D302","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ureter"},{"code":"D303","display":"Neoplasia benigna da bexiga"},{"code":"D304","display":"Neoplasia benigna da uretra"},{"code":"D307","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos urinários"},{"code":"D309","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"D31","display":"Neoplasia benigna do olho e anexos"},{"code":"D310","display":"Neoplasia benigna da conjuntiva"},{"code":"D311","display":"Neoplasia benigna da córnea"},{"code":"D312","display":"Neoplasia benigna da retina"},{"code":"D313","display":"Neoplasia benigna da coróide"},{"code":"D314","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo ciliar"},{"code":"D315","display":"Neoplasia benigna das glândulas e dos canais lacrimais"},{"code":"D316","display":"Neoplasia benigna da órbita, não especificada"},{"code":"D319","display":"Neoplasia benigna do olho, não especificado"},{"code":"D32","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges"},{"code":"D320","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"D321","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"D329","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges, não especificada"},{"code":"D33","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encefalo e de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D330","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, supratentorial"},{"code":"D331","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, infratentorial"},{"code":"D332","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"D333","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos nervos cranianos"},{"code":"D334","display":"Neoplasia benigna da medula espinhal"},{"code":"D337","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes especificadas do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D339","display":"Neoplasia benigna do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"D34","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"D35","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas endocrinas e das não especificadas"},{"code":"D350","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula supra-renal (adrenal)"},{"code":"D351","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"D352","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"D353","display":"Neoplasia benigna do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"D354","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula pineal"},{"code":"D355","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"D356","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos corpos aórticos e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"D357","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas endócrinas especificadas"},{"code":"D358","display":"Neoplasia benigna com comprometimento pluriglandular"},{"code":"D359","display":"Neoplasia benigna de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"D36","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras localizações e de localizações não especificadas"},{"code":"D360","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos gânglios linfáticos (linfonodos)"},{"code":"D361","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos nervos periféricos e sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"D367","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D369","display":"Neoplasia benigna de localização não especificada"},{"code":"D37","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da cavidade oral e dos orgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D370","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do lábio, cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"D371","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do estômago"},{"code":"D372","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do intestino delgado"},{"code":"D373","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do apêndice"},{"code":"D374","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos cólons"},{"code":"D375","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do reto"},{"code":"D376","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do fígado, vesícula biliar e vias biliares"},{"code":"D377","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D379","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão digestivo, não especificado"},{"code":"D38","display":"Neoplasia comport incerto ou desconhecido ouvido médio e dos orgãos respiratórios e intratoracicos"},{"code":"D380","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da laringe"},{"code":"D381","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da traquéia, brônquios e pulmão"},{"code":"D382","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pleura"},{"code":"D383","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do mediastino"},{"code":"D384","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do timo"},{"code":"D385","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos respiratórios"},{"code":"D386","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D39","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"D390","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do útero"},{"code":"D391","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do ovário"},{"code":"D392","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da placenta"},{"code":"D397","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"D399","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"D40","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D400","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da próstata"},{"code":"D401","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do testículo"},{"code":"D407","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D409","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"D41","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos urinários"},{"code":"D410","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do rim"},{"code":"D411","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pelve renal"},{"code":"D412","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do ureter"},{"code":"D413","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da uretra"},{"code":"D414","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da bexiga"},{"code":"D417","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos urinários"},{"code":"D419","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"D42","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges"},{"code":"D420","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"D421","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"D429","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de meninges não especificadas"},{"code":"D43","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encefalo e do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D430","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, supratentorial"},{"code":"D431","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, infratentorial"},{"code":"D432","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"D433","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos nervos cranianos"},{"code":"D434","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da medula espinhal"},{"code":"D437","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D439","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"D44","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das glândulas endocrinas"},{"code":"D440","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"D441","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula supra-renal (adrenal)"},{"code":"D442","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"D443","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"D444","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"D445","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula pineal"},{"code":"D446","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"D447","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos corpos aórticos e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"D448","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido com comprometimento pluriglandular"},{"code":"D449","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"D45","display":"Policitemia vera"},{"code":"D46","display":"Síndromes mielodisplásicas"},{"code":"D460","display":"Anemia refratária sem sideroblastos"},{"code":"D461","display":"Anemia refratária com sideroblastos"},{"code":"D462","display":"Anemia refratária com excesso de blastos"},{"code":"D463","display":"Anemia refratária com excesso de blastos com transformação"},{"code":"D464","display":"Anemia refratária, não especificada"},{"code":"D467","display":"Outras síndromes mielodisplásicas"},{"code":"D469","display":"Síndrome mielodisplásica, não especificada"},{"code":"D47","display":"Out neoplasias comport incerto ou desconhecido tecidos linfático hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"D470","display":"Tumores de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de mastócitos e células histiocíticas"},{"code":"D471","display":"Doença mieloproliferativa crônica"},{"code":"D472","display":"Gamopatia monoclonal"},{"code":"D473","display":"Trombocitemia essencial (hemorrágica)"},{"code":"D477","display":"Outras neoplasias especif. de comport. incerto ou desc. dos tecidos linf., hematop. e relacionados"},{"code":"D479","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconh. dos tec. linf., hematop. e correlatos,ñ especificada"},{"code":"D48","display":"Neoplasiacomportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras localizações e de localizações ne"},{"code":"D480","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos ossos e cartilagens articulares"},{"code":"D481","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"D482","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos nervos perif. e do sistema nervoso periférico"},{"code":"D483","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do retroperitônio"},{"code":"D484","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do peritônio"},{"code":"D485","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pele"},{"code":"D486","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da mama"},{"code":"D487","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D489","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido sem outra especificação"},{"code":"D50","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro"},{"code":"D500","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro secundária à perda de sangue (crônica)"},{"code":"D501","display":"Disfagia sideropênica"},{"code":"D508","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de ferro"},{"code":"D509","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro não especificada"},{"code":"D51","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12"},{"code":"D510","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 devida à deficiência de fator intrínseco"},{"code":"D511","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 devida à má-absorção seletiva de vitamina B12 com proteinúria"},{"code":"D512","display":"Deficiência de transcobalamina II"},{"code":"D513","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de vitamina B12 na dieta"},{"code":"D518","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de vitamina B12"},{"code":"D519","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 não especificada"},{"code":"D52","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato"},{"code":"D520","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato na dieta"},{"code":"D521","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D528","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de folato"},{"code":"D529","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato não especificada"},{"code":"D53","display":"Outras anemias nutricionais"},{"code":"D530","display":"Anemia por deficiência de proteínas"},{"code":"D531","display":"Outras anemias megaloblásticas não classificadas em outras partes"},{"code":"D532","display":"Anemia escorbútica"},{"code":"D538","display":"Outras anemias nutricionais especificadas"},{"code":"D539","display":"Anemia nutricional não especificada"},{"code":"D55","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos enzimáticos"},{"code":"D550","display":"Anemia devida à deficiência de glicose-6-fosfato-desidrogenase [G-6-Pd]"},{"code":"D551","display":"Anemia devida a outros transtornos do metabolismo do glutation"},{"code":"D552","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos das enzimas glicolíticas"},{"code":"D553","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos do metabolismo de nucleotídios"},{"code":"D558","display":"Outras anemias devidas a transtornos enzimáticos"},{"code":"D559","display":"Anemia devida a transtorno enzimático não especificada"},{"code":"D56","display":"Talassemia"},{"code":"D560","display":"Talassemia Alfa"},{"code":"D561","display":"Talassemia Beta"},{"code":"D562","display":"Talassemia Delta-Beta"},{"code":"D563","display":"Estigma talassêmico"},{"code":"D564","display":"Persistência hereditária de hemoglobina fetal"},{"code":"D568","display":"Outras talassemias"},{"code":"D569","display":"Talassemia não especificada"},{"code":"D57","display":"Transtornos falciformes"},{"code":"D570","display":"Anemia falciforme com crise"},{"code":"D571","display":"Anemia falciforme sem crise"},{"code":"D572","display":"Transtornos falciformes heterozigóticos duplos"},{"code":"D573","display":"Estigma falciforme"},{"code":"D578","display":"Outros transtornos falciformes"},{"code":"D58","display":"Outras anemias hemoliticas hereditárias"},{"code":"D580","display":"Esferocitose hereditária"},{"code":"D581","display":"Eliptocitose hereditária"},{"code":"D582","display":"Outras hemoglobinopatias"},{"code":"D588","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas hereditárias especificadas"},{"code":"D589","display":"Anemia hemolítica hereditária não especificada"},{"code":"D59","display":"Anemia hemolitica adquirida"},{"code":"D590","display":"Anemia hemolítica auto-imune induzida por droga"},{"code":"D591","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas auto-imunes"},{"code":"D592","display":"Anemia hemolítica não-auto-imune induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D593","display":"Síndrome hemolítico-urêmica"},{"code":"D594","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas não-autoimunes"},{"code":"D595","display":"Hemoglobinúria paroxística noturna [marchiafava-micheli]"},{"code":"D596","display":"Hemoglobinúria devida à hemólise por outras causas externas"},{"code":"D598","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas adquiridas"},{"code":"D599","display":"Anemia hemolítica adquirida não especificada"},{"code":"D60","display":"Aplasia pura da serie vermelha adquirida (eritroblastopenia)"},{"code":"D600","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida crônica da série vermelha"},{"code":"D601","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida transitória da série vermelha"},{"code":"D608","display":"Outras aplasias puras adquiridas da série vermelha"},{"code":"D609","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida, não especificada, da série vermelha"},{"code":"D61","display":"Outras anemias aplasticas"},{"code":"D610","display":"Anemia aplástica constitucional"},{"code":"D611","display":"Anemia aplástica induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D612","display":"Anemia aplástica devida a outros agentes externos"},{"code":"D613","display":"Anemia aplástica idiopática"},{"code":"D618","display":"Outras anemias aplásticas especificadas"},{"code":"D619","display":"Anemia aplástica não especificada"},{"code":"D62","display":"Anemia aguda pós-hemorrágica"},{"code":"D63","display":"Doenças crônicas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D630","display":"Anemia em neoplasias"},{"code":"D638","display":"Anemia em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D64","display":"Outras anemias"},{"code":"D640","display":"Anemia sideroblástica hereditária"},{"code":"D641","display":"Anemia sideroblástica secundária a doença"},{"code":"D642","display":"Anemia sideroblástica secundária ao uso de drogas e a toxinas"},{"code":"D643","display":"Outras anemias sideroblásticas"},{"code":"D644","display":"Anemia diseritropoética congênita"},{"code":"D648","display":"Outras anemias especificadas"},{"code":"D649","display":"Anemia não especificada"},{"code":"D65","display":"Coagulação intravascular disseminada [síndrome de desfibrinação]"},{"code":"D66","display":"Deficiência hereditária do fator VIII"},{"code":"D67","display":"Deficiência hereditária do fator IX"},{"code":"D68","display":"Outros defeitos da coagulação"},{"code":"D680","display":"Doença de von Willebrand"},{"code":"D681","display":"Deficiência hereditária de fator XI"},{"code":"D682","display":"Deficiência hereditária de outros fatores de coagulação"},{"code":"D683","display":"Transtorno hemorrágico devido a anticoagulantes circulantes"},{"code":"D684","display":"Deficiência adquirida de fator de coagulação"},{"code":"D688","display":"Outros defeitos especificados da coagulação"},{"code":"D689","display":"Defeito de coagulação não especificado"},{"code":"D69","display":"Purpura e outras afecções hemorrágicas"},{"code":"D690","display":"Púrpura alérgica"},{"code":"D691","display":"Defeitos qualitativos das plaquetas"},{"code":"D692","display":"Outras púrpuras não-trombocitopênicas"},{"code":"D693","display":"Púrpura trombocitopênica idiopática"},{"code":"D694","display":"Outra trombocitopenia primária"},{"code":"D695","display":"Trombocitopenia secundária"},{"code":"D696","display":"Trombocitopenia não especificada"},{"code":"D698","display":"Outras afecções hemorrágicas especificadas"},{"code":"D699","display":"Afecção hemorrágica não especificada"},{"code":"D70","display":"Agranulocitose"},{"code":"D71","display":"Transtornos funcionais dos neutrófilos polimorfonucleares"},{"code":"D72","display":"Outros transtornos dos globulos brancos"},{"code":"D720","display":"Anomalias genéticas dos leucócitos"},{"code":"D721","display":"Eosinofilia"},{"code":"D728","display":"Outros transtornos especificados dos glóbulos brancos"},{"code":"D729","display":"Transtornos não especificados dos glóbulos brancos"},{"code":"D73","display":"Doenças do baco"},{"code":"D730","display":"Hipoesplenismo"},{"code":"D731","display":"Hiperesplenismo"},{"code":"D732","display":"Esplenomegalia congestiva crônica"},{"code":"D733","display":"Abscesso do baço"},{"code":"D734","display":"Cisto do baço"},{"code":"D735","display":"Infarto do baço"},{"code":"D738","display":"Outras doenças do baço"},{"code":"D739","display":"Doença não especificada do baço"},{"code":"D74","display":"Metemoglobinemia"},{"code":"D740","display":"Metemoglobinemia congênita"},{"code":"D748","display":"Outras metemoglobinemias"},{"code":"D749","display":"Metemoglobinemia não especificada"},{"code":"D75","display":"Doenças do sangue e dos orgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D750","display":"Eritrocitose familiar"},{"code":"D751","display":"Policitemia secundária"},{"code":"D752","display":"Trombocitose essencial"},{"code":"D758","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D759","display":"Doença não especificada do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D76","display":"Doenças que envolvem o tecido linforreticular e o sistema reticulo-histiocitico"},{"code":"D760","display":"Histiocitose das células de langerhans não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D761","display":"Linfohistiocitose hemofagocítica"},{"code":"D762","display":"Síndrome hematofagocítica associada à infecção"},{"code":"D763","display":"Outras síndromes histiocíticas"},{"code":"D77","display":"Outros transtornos do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D80","display":"Imunodeficiência com predominancia de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D800","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia hereditária"},{"code":"D801","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia não familiar"},{"code":"D802","display":"Deficiência seletiva de imunoglobulina A [IGA]"},{"code":"D803","display":"Deficiência seletiva de subclasses de imunoglobulina G [IGG]"},{"code":"D804","display":"Deficiência seletiva de imunoglobulina M [IGM]"},{"code":"D805","display":"Imunodeficiência com aumento de imunoglobulina M [IGM]"},{"code":"D806","display":"Deficiência de anticorpos com imunoglobulinas próximas do normal ou com hiperimunoglobulinemia"},{"code":"D807","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia transitória da infância"},{"code":"D808","display":"Outras imunodeficiências com predominância de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D809","display":"Imunodeficiência não especificada com predominância de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D81","display":"Deficiências imunitárias combinadas"},{"code":"D810","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com disgenesia reticular"},{"code":"D811","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com números baixos de células T e B"},{"code":"D812","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com números baixos ou normais de células B"},{"code":"D813","display":"Deficiência de adenosina-deaminase [ADA]"},{"code":"D814","display":"Síndrome de nezelof"},{"code":"D815","display":"Deficiência de purina-nucleosídeo fosforilase [pnp]"},{"code":"D816","display":"Deficiência major classe I do complexo de histocompatibilidade"},{"code":"D817","display":"Deficiência major classe II do complexo de histocompatibilidade"},{"code":"D818","display":"Outras deficiências imunitárias combinadas"},{"code":"D819","display":"Deficiências imunitárias combinadas não especificadas"},{"code":"D82","display":"Imunodeficiência associada com outros defeitos major"},{"code":"D820","display":"Síndrome de Wiskott-Aldrich"},{"code":"D821","display":"Síndrome de di George"},{"code":"D822","display":"Imunodeficiência com encurtamento de membros"},{"code":"D823","display":"Imunodeficiência que se segue à resposta hereditária defeituosa ao vírus de epstein-barr (eb)"},{"code":"D824","display":"Síndrome da hiperimunoglobulina E [IGE]"},{"code":"D828","display":"Imunodeficiências associadas com outros defeitos major especificados"},{"code":"D829","display":"Imunodeficiência associada com defeitos major não especificados"},{"code":"D83","display":"Imunodeficiência comum váriavel"},{"code":"D830","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com predominância de anormal. do número e da função das células B"},{"code":"D831","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com predominância de transtornos imunorregulatórios de células T"},{"code":"D832","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com auto-anticorpos às células B ou T"},{"code":"D838","display":"Outras imunodeficiências comuns variáveis"},{"code":"D839","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável não especificada"},{"code":"D84","display":"Outras imunodeficiências"},{"code":"D840","display":"Defeito do antígeno-1 da função de linfócito [LFA-1]"},{"code":"D841","display":"Defeitos no sistema complemento"},{"code":"D848","display":"Outras imunodeficiências especificadas"},{"code":"D849","display":"Imunodeficiência não especificada"},{"code":"D86","display":"Sarcoidose"},{"code":"D860","display":"Sarcoidose do pulmão"},{"code":"D861","display":"Sarcoidose dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"D862","display":"Sarcoidose do pulmão com sarcoidose dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"D863","display":"Sarcoidose da pele"},{"code":"D868","display":"Sarcoidose de outros locais especificados e locais combinados"},{"code":"D869","display":"Sarcoidose não especificada"},{"code":"D89","display":"Outros transtornos que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"D890","display":"Hipergamaglobulinemia policlonal"},{"code":"D891","display":"Crioglobulinemia"},{"code":"D892","display":"Hipergamaglobulinemia não especificada"},{"code":"D898","display":"Outros transtornos especificados que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário ñ classificados noutra parte"},{"code":"D899","display":"Transtornos não especificados que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário"},{"code":"E00","display":"Síndrome de deficiência congênita de iodo"},{"code":"E000","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo neurológico"},{"code":"E001","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo mixedematoso"},{"code":"E002","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo misto"},{"code":"E009","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo, não especificada"},{"code":"E01","display":"Transtornos tireoidianos e afecções associadas relacionados a deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E010","display":"Bócio (endêmico) difuso por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E011","display":"Bócio (endêmico) multinodular por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E012","display":"Bócio (endêmico) não especificado, por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E018","display":"Outros transtornos tireoidianos e afecções associadas, relacionados com a deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E02","display":"Hipotireoidismo subclínico por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E03","display":"Outros hipotireoidismos"},{"code":"E030","display":"Hipotireoidismo congênito com bócio difuso"},{"code":"E031","display":"Hipotireoidismo congênito sem bócio"},{"code":"E032","display":"Hipotireoidismo devido a medicamentos e outras substâncias exógenas"},{"code":"E033","display":"Hipotireoidismo pós-infeccioso"},{"code":"E034","display":"Atrofia (adquirida) da tireóide"},{"code":"E035","display":"Coma mixedematoso"},{"code":"E038","display":"Outros hipotireoidismos especificados"},{"code":"E039","display":"Hipotireoidismo não especificado"},{"code":"E04","display":"Outros bocios não-tóxicos"},{"code":"E040","display":"Bócio não-tóxico difuso"},{"code":"E041","display":"Bócio não-tóxico uninodular"},{"code":"E042","display":"Bócio não-tóxico multinodular"},{"code":"E048","display":"Outro bócio não-tóxico especificado"},{"code":"E049","display":"Bócio não-tóxico, não especificado"},{"code":"E05","display":"Tireotóxicose (hipertireoidismo)"},{"code":"E050","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio difuso"},{"code":"E051","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio tóxico uninodular"},{"code":"E052","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio tóxico multinodular"},{"code":"E053","display":"Tireotoxicose causada por tecido tireoidiano ectópico"},{"code":"E054","display":"Tireotoxicose factícia"},{"code":"E055","display":"Crise ou tempestade tireotóxica"},{"code":"E058","display":"Outras tireotoxicoses"},{"code":"E059","display":"Tireotoxicose não especificada"},{"code":"E06","display":"Tireoidite"},{"code":"E060","display":"Tireoidite aguda"},{"code":"E061","display":"Tireoidite subaguda"},{"code":"E062","display":"Tireoidite crônica com tireotoxicose transitória"},{"code":"E063","display":"Tireoidite auto-imune"},{"code":"E064","display":"Tireoidite induzida por droga"},{"code":"E065","display":"Outras tireoidites crônicas"},{"code":"E069","display":"Tireoidite não especificada"},{"code":"E07","display":"Transtornos da tireóide"},{"code":"E070","display":"Hipersecreção de calcitonina"},{"code":"E071","display":"Bócio 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depressivos"},{"code":"F329","display":"Episódio depressivo não especificado"},{"code":"F33","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente"},{"code":"F330","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual leve"},{"code":"F331","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual moderado"},{"code":"F332","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual grave sem sintomas psicóticos"},{"code":"F333","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual grave com sintomas psicóticos"},{"code":"F334","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, atualmente em remissão"},{"code":"F338","display":"Outros transtornos depressivos recorrentes"},{"code":"F339","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente sem especificação"},{"code":"F34","display":"Transtornos de humor (afetivos) persistentes"},{"code":"F340","display":"Ciclotimia"},{"code":"F341","display":"Distimia"},{"code":"F348","display":"Outros transtornos do humor [afetivos] 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puerpério ñ classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F538","display":"Outros transtornos mentais e comportamentais associados ao puerpério ñ classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F539","display":"Transtorno mental e comportamental associado ao puerpério, não especificado"},{"code":"F54","display":"Fatores psicológicos ou comportamentais associados a doença ou transt. classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F55","display":"Abuso de substâncias que não produzem dependência"},{"code":"F59","display":"Síndromes comportamentais associados a transt. das funções fisiol. e a fat. físicos, ñ especificadas"},{"code":"F60","display":"Transtornos especificos da personalidade"},{"code":"F600","display":"Personalidade paranóica"},{"code":"F601","display":"Personalidade esquizóide"},{"code":"F602","display":"Personalidade dissocial"},{"code":"F603","display":"Transtorno de personalidade com instabilidade emocional"},{"code":"F604","display":"Personalidade 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alérgica"},{"code":"J451","display":"Asma não-alérgica"},{"code":"J458","display":"Asma mista"},{"code":"J459","display":"Asma não especificada"},{"code":"J46","display":"Estado de mal asmático"},{"code":"J47","display":"Bronquectasia"},{"code":"J60","display":"Pneumoconiose dos mineiros de carvão"},{"code":"J61","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a amianto [asbesto] e outras fibras minerais"},{"code":"J62","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a poeira que contenham silica"},{"code":"J620","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a pó de talco"},{"code":"J628","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a outras poeiras que contenham sílica"},{"code":"J63","display":"Outras poeiras inorgânicas"},{"code":"J630","display":"Aluminose (do pulmão)"},{"code":"J631","display":"Fibrose (do pulmão) causada por bauxita"},{"code":"J632","display":"Beriliose"},{"code":"J633","display":"Fibrose (do pulmão) causada por 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intersticiais crônicos induzidos por droga"},{"code":"J704","display":"Transtornos pulmonar intersticial não especificado induzido por droga"},{"code":"J708","display":"Afecções respiratórias devidas a outros agentes externos especificados"},{"code":"J709","display":"Afecções respiratórias devidas a agentes externos não especificados"},{"code":"J80","display":"Síndrome do desconforto respiratório do adulto"},{"code":"J81","display":"Edema pulmonar, não especificado de outra forma"},{"code":"J82","display":"Eosinofilia pulmonar, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"J84","display":"Doenças pulmonares intersticiais"},{"code":"J840","display":"Afecções alveolares e parieto-alveolares"},{"code":"J841","display":"Outras doenças pulmonares intersticiais com fibrose"},{"code":"J848","display":"Outras doenças pulmonares intersticiais especificadas"},{"code":"J849","display":"Doença pulmonar intersticial não especificadas"},{"code":"J85","display":"Abscesso do pulmão e do mediastino"},{"code":"J850","display":"Gangrena e necrose do pulmão"},{"code":"J851","display":"Abscesso do pulmão com pneumonia"},{"code":"J852","display":"Abscesso do pulmão sem pneumonia"},{"code":"J853","display":"Abscesso do mediastino"},{"code":"J86","display":"Piotorax"},{"code":"J860","display":"Piotórax com fístula"},{"code":"J869","display":"Piotórax sem fístula"},{"code":"J90","display":"Derrame pleural não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"J91","display":"Derrame pleural em afecções classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J92","display":"Placas pleurais"},{"code":"J920","display":"Placas pleurais com presença de amianto [asbesto]"},{"code":"J929","display":"Placas pleurais sem presença de amianto [asbesto]"},{"code":"J93","display":"Pneumotorax"},{"code":"J930","display":"Pneumotórax de tensão, espontâneo"},{"code":"J931","display":"Outras formas de pneumotórax espontâneo"},{"code":"J938","display":"Outros tipos de pneumotórax, especificados"},{"code":"J939","display":"Pneumotórax não especificado"},{"code":"J94","display":"Outras afecções pleurais"},{"code":"J940","display":"Derrame quiloso ou quiliforme"},{"code":"J941","display":"Fibrotórax"},{"code":"J942","display":"Hemotórax"},{"code":"J948","display":"Outras afecções pleurais especificadas"},{"code":"J949","display":"Afecção pleural não especificada"},{"code":"J95","display":"Afecções respiratórias pós-procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J950","display":"Mau funcionamento de traqueostomia"},{"code":"J951","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar aguda subsequente a cirurgia torácica"},{"code":"J952","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar aguda subsequente a cirurgia não torácica"},{"code":"J953","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar crônica pós-cirúrgica"},{"code":"J954","display":"Síndrome de mendelson"},{"code":"J955","display":"Estenose subglótica pós-procedimento"},{"code":"J958","display":"Outros transtornos respiratórios 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não especificados"},{"code":"J99","display":"Doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J990","display":"Doença pulmonar reumatóide"},{"code":"J991","display":"Transtornos respiratórios em outras doenças sistêmicas do tecido conjuntivo classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"J998","display":"Transtornos respiratórios em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K00","display":"Disturbios do desenvolvimento e da erupção dos dentes"},{"code":"K000","display":"Anodontia"},{"code":"K001","display":"Dentes supranumerários"},{"code":"K002","display":"Anomalias do tamanho e da forma dos dentes"},{"code":"K003","display":"Dentes manchados"},{"code":"K004","display":"Distúrbios na formação dos dentes"},{"code":"K005","display":"Anomalias hereditárias da estrutura dentária não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K006","display":"Distúrbios da erupção dentária"},{"code":"K007","display":"Síndrome da erupção dentária"},{"code":"K008","display":"Outros distúrbios do desenvolvimento 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especificadas"},{"code":"K05","display":"Doenças periodontais"},{"code":"K050","display":"Gengivite aguda"},{"code":"K051","display":"Gengivite crônica"},{"code":"K052","display":"Periodontite aguda"},{"code":"K053","display":"Periodontite crônica"},{"code":"K054","display":"Periodontose"},{"code":"K055","display":"Outras doenças periodontais"},{"code":"K056","display":"Doença periodontal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K06","display":"Transtornos da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes"},{"code":"K060","display":"Retração gengival"},{"code":"K061","display":"Hiperplasia gengival"},{"code":"K062","display":"Lesões da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes, associadas a traumatismos"},{"code":"K068","display":"Outros transtornos especificados da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes"},{"code":"K069","display":"Transtorno da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K07","display":"Anomalias dentofaciais (inclusive a 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hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K27","display":"Úlcera peptica de localização não especificada"},{"code":"K270","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com hemorragia"},{"code":"K271","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com perfuração"},{"code":"K272","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K273","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K274","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia"},{"code":"K275","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especificada com perfuração"},{"code":"K276","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especif. com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K277","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K279","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - ñ espec. como aguda/crônica, sem hemorr./perfuração"},{"code":"K28","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal"},{"code":"K280","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com hemorragia"},{"code":"K281","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com perfuração"},{"code":"K282","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K283","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K284","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia"},{"code":"K285","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com perfuração"},{"code":"K286","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K287","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K289","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - não especificada como aguda ou crônica, sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K29","display":"Gastrite e duodenite"},{"code":"K290","display":"Gastrite hemorrágica aguda"},{"code":"K291","display":"Outras gastrites agudas"},{"code":"K292","display":"Gastrite alcoólica"},{"code":"K293","display":"Gastrite superficial crônica"},{"code":"K294","display":"Gastrite atrófica crônica"},{"code":"K295","display":"Gastrite crônica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K296","display":"Outras gastrites"},{"code":"K297","display":"Gastrite não especificada"},{"code":"K298","display":"Duodenite"},{"code":"K299","display":"Gastroduodenite, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K30","display":"DISPEPSIA"},{"code":"K31","display":"Doenças do estomago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K310","display":"Dilatação aguda do estômago"},{"code":"K311","display":"Estenose pilórica hipertrófica do adulto"},{"code":"K312","display":"Estenose e estreitamento em ampulheta do estômago"},{"code":"K313","display":"Espasmo do piloro não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K314","display":"Divertículo gástrico"},{"code":"K315","display":"Obstrução do duodeno"},{"code":"K316","display":"Fístula do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K317","display":"Pólipo do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K318","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K319","display":"Doenças do estômago e do duodeno, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K35","display":"Apendicite aguda"},{"code":"K350","display":"Apendicite aguda com peritonite generalizada"},{"code":"K351","display":"Apendicite aguda com abscesso peritonial"},{"code":"K359","display":"Apendicite aguda sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K36","display":"OUTRAS FORMAS DE APENDICITE"},{"code":"K37","display":"OUTRAS ESPECIFICACOES"},{"code":"K38","display":"Doenças do apendice"},{"code":"K380","display":"Hiperplasia do apêndice"},{"code":"K381","display":"Concreções apendiculares"},{"code":"K382","display":"Divertículo do apêndice"},{"code":"K383","display":"Fístula do apêndice"},{"code":"K388","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do apêndice"},{"code":"K389","display":"Doença do apêndice, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K40","display":"Hérnia inguinal"},{"code":"K400","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K401","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, com gangrena"},{"code":"K402","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K403","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, com obstrução sem gangrena"},{"code":"K404","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, com gangrena"},{"code":"K409","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K41","display":"Hérnia femoral"},{"code":"K410","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K411","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, com gangrena"},{"code":"K412","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K413","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K414","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, com gangrena"},{"code":"K419","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K42","display":"Hérnia umbilical"},{"code":"K420","display":"Hérnia umbilical com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K421","display":"Hérnia umbilical com gangrena"},{"code":"K429","display":"Hérnia umbilical sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K43","display":"Hérnia ventral"},{"code":"K430","display":"Hérnia ventral com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K431","display":"Hérnia ventral com gangrena"},{"code":"K439","display":"Hérnia ventral sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K44","display":"Hérnia diafragmática"},{"code":"K440","display":"Hérnia diafragmática com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K441","display":"Hérnia diafragmática com gangrena"},{"code":"K449","display":"Hérnia diafragmática sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K45","display":"Outras Hérnias abdominais"},{"code":"K450","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K451","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, com gangrena"},{"code":"K458","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K46","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada"},{"code":"K460","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K461","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada com gangrena"},{"code":"K469","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K50","display":"Doença de crohn (enterite regional)"},{"code":"K500","display":"Doença de crohn do intestino delgado"},{"code":"K501","display":"Doença de crohn do intestino grosso"},{"code":"K508","display":"Outra forma de doença de crohn"},{"code":"K509","display":"Doença de crohn de localização não especificada"},{"code":"K51","display":"Colite Úlcerativa"},{"code":"K510","display":"Enterocolite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K511","display":"Ileocolite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K512","display":"Proctite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K513","display":"Retossigmoidite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K514","display":"Pseudopolipose do cólon"},{"code":"K515","display":"Proctocolite mucosa"},{"code":"K518","display":"Outras colites ulcerativas"},{"code":"K519","display":"Colite ulcerativa, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K52","display":"Outras gastroenterites e colites não-infecciosas"},{"code":"K520","display":"Gastroenterite e colite devida à radiação"},{"code":"K521","display":"Gastroenterite e colite tóxicas"},{"code":"K522","display":"Gastroenterite e colite alérgicas ou ligadas à dieta"},{"code":"K528","display":"Outras gastroenterites e colites especificadas, não-infecciosas"},{"code":"K529","display":"Gastroenterite e colite não-infecciosas, não especificadas"},{"code":"K55","display":"Transtornos vasculares do intestino"},{"code":"K550","display":"Transtornos vasculares agudos do intestino"},{"code":"K551","display":"Transtornos vasculares crônicos do intestino"},{"code":"K552","display":"Angiodisplasia do cólon"},{"code":"K558","display":"Outros transtornos vasculares do intestino"},{"code":"K559","display":"Transtorno vascular do intestino, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K56","display":"Ileo paralitico e obstrução intestinal sem Hérnia"},{"code":"K560","display":"Íleo paralítico"},{"code":"K561","display":"Intussuscepção"},{"code":"K562","display":"Volvo"},{"code":"K563","display":"Íleo biliar"},{"code":"K564","display":"Outras obstruções do intestino"},{"code":"K565","display":"Aderências intestinais (bridas) com obstrução"},{"code":"K566","display":"Outras formas de obstrução intestinal, e as não especificadas"},{"code":"K567","display":"Íleo, não especificado"},{"code":"K57","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino"},{"code":"K570","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino delgado com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K571","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino delgado sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K572","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino grosso com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K573","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino grosso sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K574","display":"Doença diverticular concomitante dos intestinos delgado e grosso com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K575","display":"Doença diverticular concomitante dos intestinos delgado e grosso sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K578","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino, de localização não especificada, com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K579","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino, de localização não especificada, sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K58","display":"Síndrome do colon irritavel"},{"code":"K580","display":"Síndrome do cólon irritável com diarréia"},{"code":"K589","display":"Síndrome do cólon irritável sem diarréia"},{"code":"K59","display":"Transtornos funcionais do intestino"},{"code":"K590","display":"Constipação"},{"code":"K591","display":"Diarréia funcional"},{"code":"K592","display":"Cólon neurogênico não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K593","display":"Megacólon não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K594","display":"Espasmo anal"},{"code":"K598","display":"Outros transtornos funcionais especificados do intestino"},{"code":"K599","display":"Transtorno intestinal funcional, não especificado"},{"code":"K60","display":"Fissura e fístula das regiões anal e retal"},{"code":"K600","display":"Fissura anal aguda"},{"code":"K601","display":"Fissura anal crônica"},{"code":"K602","display":"Fissura anal, não especificada"},{"code":"K603","display":"Fístula anal"},{"code":"K604","display":"Fístula retal"},{"code":"K605","display":"Fístula anorretal"},{"code":"K61","display":"Abscesso das regiões anal e retal"},{"code":"K610","display":"Abscesso anal"},{"code":"K611","display":"Abscesso retal"},{"code":"K612","display":"Abscesso anorretal"},{"code":"K613","display":"Abscesso ísquio-retal"},{"code":"K614","display":"Abscesso intra-esfincteriano"},{"code":"K62","display":"Doenças do reto e do anûs"},{"code":"K620","display":"Pólipo anal"},{"code":"K621","display":"Pólipo retal"},{"code":"K622","display":"Prolapso anal"},{"code":"K623","display":"Prolapso retal"},{"code":"K624","display":"Estenose do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K625","display":"Hemorragia do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K626","display":"Úlcera do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K627","display":"Proctite por radiação"},{"code":"K628","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K629","display":"Doença do ânus e do reto, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K63","display":"Doenças do intestino"},{"code":"K630","display":"Abscesso do intestino"},{"code":"K631","display":"Perfuração do intestino (não-traumática)"},{"code":"K632","display":"Fístula do intestino"},{"code":"K633","display":"Úlcera do intestino"},{"code":"K634","display":"Enteroptose"},{"code":"K635","display":"Pólipo do cólon"},{"code":"K638","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do intestino"},{"code":"K639","display":"Doença do intestino, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K65","display":"Peritonite"},{"code":"K650","display":"Peritonite aguda"},{"code":"K658","display":"Outras peritonites"},{"code":"K659","display":"Peritonite, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"K66","display":"Transtornos do peritônio"},{"code":"K660","display":"Aderências peritoniais"},{"code":"K661","display":"Hemoperitônio"},{"code":"K668","display":"Outras afecções especificadas do peritônio"},{"code":"K669","display":"Afecções do peritônio, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K67","display":"Comprometimento do peritônio em doenças infecciosas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K670","display":"Peritonite por clamídias"},{"code":"K671","display":"Peritonite gonocócica"},{"code":"K672","display":"Peritonite sifilítica"},{"code":"K673","display":"Peritonite tuberculosa"},{"code":"K678","display":"Outras formas de comprometimento do peritônio em doenças infecciosas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K70","display":"Doença álcoolica do fígado"},{"code":"K700","display":"Fígado gorduroso alcoólico"},{"code":"K701","display":"Hepatite alcoólica"},{"code":"K702","display":"Fibrose e esclerose alcoólicas do fígado"},{"code":"K703","display":"Cirrose hepática alcoólica"},{"code":"K704","display":"Insuficiência hepática alcoólica"},{"code":"K709","display":"Doença alcoólica do fígado, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K71","display":"Doença hepática toxica"},{"code":"K710","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com colestase"},{"code":"K711","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com necrose hepática"},{"code":"K712","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite aguda"},{"code":"K713","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica persistente"},{"code":"K714","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica lobular"},{"code":"K715","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica ativa"},{"code":"K716","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K717","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com fibrose e cirrose hepáticas"},{"code":"K718","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com outros transtornos do fígado"},{"code":"K719","display":"Doença hepática tóxica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K72","display":"Insuficiência hepática não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K720","display":"Insuficiência hepática aguda e subaguda"},{"code":"K721","display":"Insuficiência hepática crônica"},{"code":"K729","display":"Insuficiência hepática, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"K73","display":"Hepatite crônica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K730","display":"Hepatite crônica persistente, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K731","display":"Hepatite crônica lobular, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K732","display":"Hepatite crônica ativa, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K738","display":"Outras hepatites crônicas não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K739","display":"Hepatite crônica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K74","display":"Fibrose e cirrose hepáticas"},{"code":"K740","display":"Fibrose hepática"},{"code":"K741","display":"Esclerose hepática"},{"code":"K742","display":"Fibrose hepática com esclerose hepática"},{"code":"K743","display":"Cirrose biliar primária"},{"code":"K744","display":"Cirrose biliar secundária"},{"code":"K745","display":"Cirrose biliar, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K746","display":"Outras formas de cirrose hepática e as não especificadas"},{"code":"K75","display":"Doenças inflamatórias do fígado"},{"code":"K750","display":"Abscesso hepático"},{"code":"K751","display":"Flebite da veia porta"},{"code":"K752","display":"Hepatite reativa não-específica"},{"code":"K753","display":"Hepatite granulomatosa não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K754","display":"Hepatite autoimune"},{"code":"K758","display":"Outras doenças hepáticas inflamatórias especificadas"},{"code":"K759","display":"Doença hepática inflamatória, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K76","display":"Doenças do fígado"},{"code":"K760","display":"Degeneração gordurosa do fígado não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K761","display":"Congestão passiva crônica do fígado"},{"code":"K762","display":"Necrose hemorrágica central do fígado"},{"code":"K763","display":"Infarto do fígado"},{"code":"K764","display":"Peliose hepática"},{"code":"K765","display":"Doença hepática veno-oclusiva"},{"code":"K766","display":"Hipertensão portal"},{"code":"K767","display":"Síndrome hepatorrenal"},{"code":"K768","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do fígado"},{"code":"K769","display":"Doença hepática, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K77","display":"Transtornos do fígado em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K770","display":"Transtornos hepáticos em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K778","display":"Transtornos hepáticos em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K80","display":"Colelitiase"},{"code":"K800","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar com colicistite aguda"},{"code":"K801","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar com outras formas de colecistite"},{"code":"K802","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar sem colecistite"},{"code":"K803","display":"Calculose de via biliar com colangite"},{"code":"K804","display":"Calculose de via biliar com colecistite"},{"code":"K805","display":"Calculose de via biliar sem colangite ou colecistite"},{"code":"K808","display":"Outras colelitíases"},{"code":"K81","display":"Cistite"},{"code":"K810","display":"Colecistite aguda"},{"code":"K811","display":"Colecistite crônica"},{"code":"K818","display":"Outras colecistites"},{"code":"K819","display":"Colecistite, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K82","display":"Doenças da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K820","display":"Obstrução da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K821","display":"Hidropsia da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K822","display":"Perfuração da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K823","display":"Fístula da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K824","display":"Colesterolose da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K828","display":"Outras doenças especificadas da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K829","display":"Doença da vesícula biliar, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K83","display":"Doenças das vias biliares"},{"code":"K830","display":"Colangite"},{"code":"K831","display":"Obstrução de via biliar"},{"code":"K832","display":"Perfuração de via biliar"},{"code":"K833","display":"Fístula de via biliar"},{"code":"K834","display":"Espasmo do esfíncter de Oddi"},{"code":"K835","display":"Cisto biliar"},{"code":"K838","display":"Outras doenças especificadas das vias biliares"},{"code":"K839","display":"Doença das vias biliares, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K850","display":"Pancreatite aguda idiopática"},{"code":"K851","display":"Pancreatite aguda biliar"},{"code":"K852","display":"Pancreatite aguda induzida por álcool"},{"code":"K853","display":"Pancreatite aguda induzida por droga"},{"code":"K858","display":"Outras pancreatites agudas"},{"code":"K859","display":"Pancreatite aguda, não especificada"},{"code":"K86","display":"Doenças do pâncreas"},{"code":"K860","display":"Pancreatite crônica induzida por álcool"},{"code":"K861","display":"Outras pancreatites crônicas"},{"code":"K862","display":"Cisto do pâncreas"},{"code":"K863","display":"Pseudocisto do pâncreas"},{"code":"K868","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do pâncreas"},{"code":"K869","display":"Doença do pâncreas, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K87","display":"Transtorno da vesícula biliar das vias biliares do pâncreas em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K870","display":"Transtornos da vesícula biliar e das vias biliares em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K871","display":"Transtornos do pâncreas em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K90","display":"Ma-absorção intestinal"},{"code":"K900","display":"Doença celíaca"},{"code":"K901","display":"Espru tropical"},{"code":"K902","display":"Síndrome da alça cega não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K903","display":"Esteatorréia pancreática"},{"code":"K904","display":"Má-absorção devida a intolerância não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K908","display":"Outras formas de má-absorção intestinal"},{"code":"K909","display":"Má-absorção intestinal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K91","display":"Transtornos do aparelho digestivo pós-procedimentos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"K910","display":"Vômitos pós-cirurgia gastrointestinal"},{"code":"K911","display":"Síndromes pós-cirurgia gástrica"},{"code":"K912","display":"Má-absorção pós-cirúrgica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K913","display":"Obstrução intestinal pós-operatória"},{"code":"K914","display":"Mau funcionamento de colostomia e enterostomia"},{"code":"K915","display":"Síndrome pós-colecistectomia"},{"code":"K918","display":"Outros transtornos do aparelho digestivo, pós-cirúrgicos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"K919","display":"Transtorno do aparelho digestivo pós procedimento"},{"code":"K92","display":"Doenças do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"K920","display":"Hematêmese"},{"code":"K921","display":"Melena"},{"code":"K922","display":"Hemorragia gastrointestinal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K928","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"K929","display":"Doença do aparelho digestivo, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K93","display":"Transtornos de outros orgãos digestivos em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K930","display":"Transtornos devido a tuberculose do intestino, do peritônio e dos gânglios do mesentério"},{"code":"K931","display":"Megacólon na doença de Chagas"},{"code":"K938","display":"Transtornos de outros órgãos digestivos especificados em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"L00","display":"Síndrome da pele escaldada estafilocócica do recém-nascido"},{"code":"L01","display":"Impetigo"},{"code":"L010","display":"Impetigo [qualquer localização] [qualquer microorganismo]"},{"code":"L011","display":"Impetiginização de outras dermatoses"},{"code":"L02","display":"Abscesso cutâneo furunculo e antraz"},{"code":"L020","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz da face"},{"code":"L021","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do pescoço"},{"code":"L022","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do tronco"},{"code":"L023","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz da nádega"},{"code":"L024","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do(s) membro(s)"},{"code":"L028","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz de outras localizações"},{"code":"L029","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz de localização não especificada"},{"code":"L03","display":"Celulite (flegmao)"},{"code":"L030","display":"Celulite de dedos das mãos e dos pés"},{"code":"L031","display":"Celulite de outras partes do(s) membro(s)"},{"code":"L032","display":"Celulite da face"},{"code":"L033","display":"Celulite do tronco"},{"code":"L038","display":"Celulite de outros locais"},{"code":"L039","display":"Celulite não especificada"},{"code":"L04","display":"Linfadenite aguda"},{"code":"L040","display":"Linfadenite aguda de face, cabeça e pescoço"},{"code":"L041","display":"Linfadenite aguda do tronco"},{"code":"L042","display":"Linfadenite aguda de membro 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irritantes devido a óleos e gorduras"},{"code":"L242","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a solventes"},{"code":"L243","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a cosméticos"},{"code":"L244","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a drogas em contato com a pele"},{"code":"L245","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a outros produtos químicos"},{"code":"L246","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a alimentos em contato com a pele"},{"code":"L247","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devido a plantas, exceto alimentos"},{"code":"L248","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devido a outros agentes"},{"code":"L249","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes, de causa não especificada"},{"code":"L25","display":"Dermatite de contato não especificada"},{"code":"L250","display":"Dermatite de contato não especificada devida a cosméticos"},{"code":"L251","display":"Dermatite de contato não 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alimentos"},{"code":"L278","display":"Dermatite devida a outras substâncias de uso interno"},{"code":"L279","display":"Dermatite devida a substância não especificada de uso interno"},{"code":"L28","display":"Líquen simples crônico e prurigo"},{"code":"L280","display":"Líquen simples crônico"},{"code":"L281","display":"Prurigo nodular"},{"code":"L282","display":"Outras formas de prurigo"},{"code":"L29","display":"Prurido"},{"code":"L290","display":"Prurido anal"},{"code":"L291","display":"Prurido escrotal"},{"code":"L292","display":"Prurido vulvar"},{"code":"L293","display":"Prurido anogenital, não especificado"},{"code":"L298","display":"Outras formas de prurido"},{"code":"L299","display":"Prurido não especificado"},{"code":"L30","display":"Outras dermatites"},{"code":"L300","display":"Dermatite numular"},{"code":"L301","display":"Disidrose [Pompholyx]"},{"code":"L302","display":"Autossensibilização cutânea"},{"code":"L303","display":"Dermatite 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quelóide"},{"code":"L918","display":"Outras afecções hipertróficas da pele"},{"code":"L919","display":"Afecções hipertróficas da pele, não especificadas"},{"code":"L92","display":"Afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L920","display":"Granuloma anular"},{"code":"L921","display":"Necrobiose lipoídica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"L922","display":"Granuloma facial [granuloma eosinófilo da pele]"},{"code":"L923","display":"Granuloma de corpo estranho da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L928","display":"Outras afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L929","display":"Afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo, não especificados"},{"code":"L93","display":"Lupus eritematoso"},{"code":"L930","display":"Lúpus eritematoso discóide"},{"code":"L931","display":"Lúpus eritematoso cutâneo subagudo"},{"code":"L932","display":"Outras formas de lúpus eritematoso localizado"},{"code":"L94","display":"Outras afecções 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classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N081","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças neoplásicas"},{"code":"N082","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças do sangue e transtornos imunitários"},{"code":"N083","display":"Transtornos glomerulares no diabetes mellitus"},{"code":"N084","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças endócrinas, nutricionais e metabólicas"},{"code":"N085","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças sistêmicas do tecido conjuntivo"},{"code":"N088","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N10","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial aguda"},{"code":"N11","display":"Nefrite tubulo-intersticial crônica"},{"code":"N110","display":"Pielonefrite não-obstrutiva crônica associada a refluxo"},{"code":"N111","display":"Pielonefrite obstrutiva crônica"},{"code":"N118","display":"Outras nefrites túbulo-intersticiais crônicas"},{"code":"N119","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial crônica não especificada"},{"code":"N12","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial não especificada se aguda ou crônica"},{"code":"N13","display":"Uropatia obstrutiva e por refluxo"},{"code":"N130","display":"Hidronefrose com obstrução da junção uretero-pélvica"},{"code":"N131","display":"Hidronefrose com estreitamento de ureter não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N132","display":"Hidronefrose com obstrução por calculose renal e ureteral"},{"code":"N133","display":"Outras hidronefroses e as não especificadas"},{"code":"N134","display":"Hidroureter"},{"code":"N135","display":"Torção e estreitamento do ureter sem hidronefrose"},{"code":"N136","display":"Pionefrose"},{"code":"N137","display":"Uropatia associada a refluxo vésico-ureteral"},{"code":"N138","display":"Outras uropatias obstrutivas e por refluxo"},{"code":"N139","display":"Uropatia obstrutiva e por refluxo não especificada"},{"code":"N14","display":"Afecções tubulares e tubulo-intersticiais induzidas por drogas ou metais 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aguda"},{"code":"N179","display":"Insuficiência renal aguda não especificada"},{"code":"N18","display":"Insuficiência renal crônica"},{"code":"N180","display":"Doença renal em estádio final"},{"code":"N188","display":"Outra insuficiência renal crônica"},{"code":"N189","display":"Insuficiência renal crônica não especificada"},{"code":"N19","display":"Insuficiência renal não especificada"},{"code":"N20","display":"Calculose do rim e do ureter"},{"code":"N200","display":"Calculose do rim"},{"code":"N201","display":"Calculose do ureter"},{"code":"N202","display":"Calculose do rim com cálculo do ureter"},{"code":"N209","display":"Calculose urinária, não especificada"},{"code":"N21","display":"Calculose do trato urinário inferior"},{"code":"N210","display":"Calculose na bexiga"},{"code":"N211","display":"Cálculo uretral"},{"code":"N218","display":"Outros cálculos do trato urinário inferior"},{"code":"N219","display":"Cálculo do trato urinário inferior, porção não 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feminina"},{"code":"N736","display":"Aderências pelviperitonais femininas"},{"code":"N738","display":"Outras doenças inflamatórias especificadas da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N739","display":"Doença inflamatória não especificada da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N74","display":"Transtornos inflamatórios da pelve feminina em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N740","display":"Tuberculose do colo do útero"},{"code":"N741","display":"Tuberculose da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N742","display":"Sífilis pélvica feminina"},{"code":"N743","display":"Infecção gonocócica pélvica feminina"},{"code":"N744","display":"Infecção pélvica feminina por clamídia"},{"code":"N748","display":"Inflamação pélvica feminina em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N75","display":"Doenças da glândula de Bartholin"},{"code":"N750","display":"Cisto da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N751","display":"Abscesso da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N758","display":"Outras doenças da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N759","display":"Doença não especificada da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N76","display":"Outras afecções inflamatórias da vagina e da vulva"},{"code":"N760","display":"Vaginite aguda"},{"code":"N761","display":"Vaginite subaguda e crônica"},{"code":"N762","display":"Vulvite aguda"},{"code":"N763","display":"Vulvite subaguda e crônica"},{"code":"N764","display":"Abscesso vulvar"},{"code":"N765","display":"Ulceração vaginal"},{"code":"N766","display":"Ulceração vulvar"},{"code":"N768","display":"Outras inflamações especificadas da vagina e da vulva"},{"code":"N77","display":"Úlceração e inflamação vulvovaginais em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N770","display":"Ulceração da vulva em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N771","display":"Vaginite, vulvite e vulvovaginite em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N778","display":"Ulceração e inflamação vulvovaginais em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N80","display":"Endometriose"},{"code":"N800","display":"Endometriose do útero"},{"code":"N801","display":"Endometriose do ovário"},{"code":"N802","display":"Endometriose da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N803","display":"Endometriose do peritônio pélvico"},{"code":"N804","display":"Endometriose do septo retovaginal e da vagina"},{"code":"N805","display":"Endometriose do intestino"},{"code":"N806","display":"Endometriose em cicatriz cutânea"},{"code":"N808","display":"Outra endometriose"},{"code":"N809","display":"Endometriose não especificada"},{"code":"N81","display":"Prolapso genital feminino"},{"code":"N810","display":"Uretrocele feminina"},{"code":"N811","display":"Cistocele"},{"code":"N812","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal incompleto"},{"code":"N813","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal completo"},{"code":"N814","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal não especificado"},{"code":"N815","display":"Enterocele vaginal"},{"code":"N816","display":"Retocele"},{"code":"N818","display":"Outro prolapso genital feminino"},{"code":"N819","display":"Prolapso genital feminino não especificado"},{"code":"N82","display":"Fístulas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N820","display":"Fístula vesicovaginal"},{"code":"N821","display":"Outras fístulas do trato geniturinário feminino"},{"code":"N822","display":"Fístula vagina-intestino delgado"},{"code":"N823","display":"Fístula vagina-cólon"},{"code":"N824","display":"Outras fístulas genito-intestinais femininas"},{"code":"N825","display":"Fístula genitocutânea feminina"},{"code":"N828","display":"Outras fístulas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N829","display":"Fístulas não especificadas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N83","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário da trompa defalopio e do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N830","display":"Cisto folicular do ovário"},{"code":"N831","display":"Cisto do corpo lúteo"},{"code":"N832","display":"Outros cistos ovarianos e os não especificados"},{"code":"N833","display":"Atrofia adquirida do ovário e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N834","display":"Prolapso e hérnia do ovário e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N835","display":"Torção do ovário, do pedículo ovariano e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N836","display":"Hematossalpinge"},{"code":"N837","display":"Hematoma do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N838","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário, da trompa de falópio e do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N839","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário, da trompa de falópio e do ligamento largo, não especificado"},{"code":"N84","display":"Pólipo do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N840","display":"Pólipo do corpo do útero"},{"code":"N841","display":"Pólipo do colo do útero"},{"code":"N842","display":"Pólipo da vagina"},{"code":"N843","display":"Pólipo da vulva"},{"code":"N848","display":"Pólipo de outras partes do trato genital 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moderada"},{"code":"N872","display":"Displasia cervical grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N879","display":"Displasia do colo do útero, não especificada"},{"code":"N88","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do colo do utero"},{"code":"N880","display":"Leucoplasia do colo do útero"},{"code":"N881","display":"Laceração antiga do colo do útero"},{"code":"N882","display":"Estreitamento e estenose do colo do útero"},{"code":"N883","display":"Incompetência do colo do útero"},{"code":"N884","display":"Alongamento hipertrófico do colo do útero"},{"code":"N888","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados do colo do útero"},{"code":"N889","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório e não especificado do colo do útero"},{"code":"N89","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios da vagina"},{"code":"N890","display":"Displasia vaginal leve"},{"code":"N891","display":"Displasia vaginal moderada"},{"code":"N892","display":"Displasia vaginal grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N893","display":"Displasia da vagina, não especificada"},{"code":"N894","display":"Leucoplasia da vagina"},{"code":"N895","display":"Estreitamento e atresia da vagina"},{"code":"N896","display":"Anel himenal apertado"},{"code":"N897","display":"Hematocolpos"},{"code":"N898","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados da vagina"},{"code":"N899","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório da vagina, não especificado"},{"code":"N90","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios da vulva e do perineo"},{"code":"N900","display":"Displasia vulvar leve"},{"code":"N901","display":"Displasia vulvar moderada"},{"code":"N902","display":"Displasia vulvar grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N903","display":"Displasia de vulva, não especificada"},{"code":"N904","display":"Leucoplasia de vulva"},{"code":"N905","display":"Atrofia da vulva"},{"code":"N906","display":"Hipertrofia da vulva"},{"code":"N907","display":"Cisto vulvar"},{"code":"N908","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"N909","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório e não especificado da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"N91","display":"Menstruação ausente escassa e pouco frequente"},{"code":"N910","display":"Amenorréia primária"},{"code":"N911","display":"Amenorréia secundária"},{"code":"N912","display":"Amenorréia, não especificada"},{"code":"N913","display":"Oligomenorréia primária"},{"code":"N914","display":"Oligomenorréia secundária"},{"code":"N915","display":"Oligomenorréia, não especificada"},{"code":"N92","display":"Menstruação excessiva frequente e irregular"},{"code":"N920","display":"Menstruação excessiva e freqüente com ciclo regular"},{"code":"N921","display":"Menstruação excessiva e freqüente com ciclo irregular"},{"code":"N922","display":"Menstruação excessiva na puberdade"},{"code":"N923","display":"Sangramento da ovulação"},{"code":"N924","display":"Sangramento abundante na 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afecções especificadas associadas com os órgãos genitais femininos e com o ciclo menstrual"},{"code":"N949","display":"Afecções não especificadas associadas com os órgãos genitais femininos e com o ciclo menstrual"},{"code":"N95","display":"Transtornos da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N950","display":"Sangramento pós-menopausa"},{"code":"N951","display":"Estado da menopausa e do climatério feminino"},{"code":"N952","display":"Vaginite atrófica pós-menopausa"},{"code":"N953","display":"Condições associadas com a menopausa artificial"},{"code":"N958","display":"Outros transtornos especificados da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N959","display":"Transtorno não especificado da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N96","display":"Abortamento habitual"},{"code":"N97","display":"Infertilidade feminina"},{"code":"N970","display":"Infertilidade feminina associada à anovulação"},{"code":"N971","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem tubária"},{"code":"N972","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem uterina"},{"code":"N973","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem cervical"},{"code":"N974","display":"Infertilidade feminina associada à fatores do parceiro"},{"code":"N978","display":"Infertilidade feminina de outra origem"},{"code":"N979","display":"Infertilidade feminina não especificada"},{"code":"N98","display":"Complicações associadas a fecundação artificial"},{"code":"N980","display":"Infecção associada à inseminação artificial"},{"code":"N981","display":"Hiperestimulação dos ovários"},{"code":"N982","display":"Complicações relacionadas com a tentativa de introdução do óvulo fecundado artificialmente(in vitro)"},{"code":"N983","display":"Complicações relacionadas com a tentativa de transferência do embrião"},{"code":"N988","display":"Outras complicações associadas à fecundação artificial"},{"code":"N989","display":"Complicações não especificadas associadas à fecundação 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embolia"},{"code":"O033","display":"Aborto espontâneo - incompleto, com outras complicações ou com complicações não especificadas"},{"code":"O034","display":"Aborto espontâneo - incompleto, sem complicações"},{"code":"O035","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ infec. do trato genital ou órg. pélvicos"},{"code":"O036","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ hemor. excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O037","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ embolia"},{"code":"O038","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., com outras complicações ou com complicações não especif."},{"code":"O039","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., sem complicações"},{"code":"O04","display":"Aborto por razões medicas e legais"},{"code":"O040","display":"Aborto por razões médicas/legais - incompl., complicado p/ infec. do trato genital ou órg. pélvicos"},{"code":"O041","display":"Aborto por razões 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complicações"},{"code":"O05","display":"Outros tipos de aborto"},{"code":"O050","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por infecção do trato genital ou dos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O051","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por hemorragia excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O052","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por embolia"},{"code":"O053","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, com outras complicações ou com complicações não especificadas"},{"code":"O054","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, sem complicações"},{"code":"O055","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complic. p/infec. do trato genit./órg. pélv."},{"code":"O056","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complicado por hemorragia excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O057","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complicado por embolia"},{"code":"O058","display":"Outros 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leve"},{"code":"O211","display":"Hiperêmese gravídica com distúrbio metabólico"},{"code":"O212","display":"Vômitos tardios da gravidez"},{"code":"O218","display":"Outras formas de vômitos complicando a gravidez"},{"code":"O219","display":"Vômitos da gravidez, não especificados"},{"code":"O22","display":"Complicações venosas na gravidez"},{"code":"O220","display":"Varizes dos membros inferiores na gravidez"},{"code":"O221","display":"Varizes genitais na gravidez"},{"code":"O222","display":"Tromboflebite superficial na gravidez"},{"code":"O223","display":"Flebotrombose profunda na gravidez"},{"code":"O224","display":"Hemorróidas na gravidez"},{"code":"O225","display":"Trombose venosa cerebral na gravidez"},{"code":"O228","display":"Outras complicações venosas na gravidez"},{"code":"O229","display":"Complicações venosas na gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O23","display":"Infecções do trato geniturinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O230","display":"Infecções do rim na gravidez"},{"code":"O231","display":"Infecções da bexiga na gravidez"},{"code":"O232","display":"Infecções da uretra na gravidez"},{"code":"O233","display":"Infecções de outras partes do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O234","display":"Infecção não especificada do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O235","display":"Infecções do trato genital na gravidez"},{"code":"O239","display":"Outras infecções e as não especificadas do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O24","display":"Diabetes mellitus na gravidez"},{"code":"O240","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, insulino-dependente"},{"code":"O241","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, não-insulino-dependente"},{"code":"O242","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, relacionado com a desnutrição"},{"code":"O243","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, não especificado"},{"code":"O244","display":"Diabetes Mellitus que surge durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O249","display":"Diabetes Mellitus na gravidez, não especificado"},{"code":"O25","display":"DESNUTRICAO NA GRAVIDEZ"},{"code":"O26","display":"Outras complicações ligadas predominantemente a gravidez"},{"code":"O260","display":"Ganho excessivo de peso na gravidez"},{"code":"O261","display":"Ganho de peso insuficiente na gravidez"},{"code":"O262","display":"Assistência à gravidez por motivo de abortamento habitual"},{"code":"O263","display":"Retenção de dispositivo intra-uterino contraceptivo (diu) na gravidez"},{"code":"O264","display":"Herpes gestacional"},{"code":"O265","display":"Síndrome da hipotensão materna"},{"code":"O266","display":"Transtornos do fígado na gravidez, no parto e no puerpério"},{"code":"O267","display":"Subluxação da sínfise (púbica) na gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O268","display":"Outras afecções especificadas, ligadas a gravidez"},{"code":"O269","display":"Afecções ligadas a gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O28","display":"Achados anormais do rastreamento (screening) antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O280","display":"Achados hematológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O281","display":"Achados bioquímicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O282","display":"Achados citológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O283","display":"Achados ultrassonográficos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O284","display":"Achados radiológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O285","display":"Achados cromossômicos e genéticos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O288","display":"Outros achados anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O289","display":"Achados anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe, não especificados"},{"code":"O29","display":"Complicações de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O290","display":"Complicações pulmonares de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O291","display":"Complicações cardíacas de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O292","display":"Complicações relativas ao sistema nervoso central devida a anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O293","display":"Reação tóxica causada por anestesia local administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O294","display":"Cefaléia causada por anestesia raquidiana ou peridural administradas durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O295","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural administradas durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O296","display":"Falha ou dificuldade na entubação durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O298","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O299","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante a gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O30","display":"Gestação multipla"},{"code":"O300","display":"Gravidez dupla"},{"code":"O301","display":"Gravidez trigemelar"},{"code":"O302","display":"Gravidez quadrigemelar"},{"code":"O308","display":"Outras gestações múltiplas"},{"code":"O309","display":"Gestação múltipla, não especificada"},{"code":"O31","display":"Complicações especificas de gestação multipla"},{"code":"O310","display":"Feto papiráceo"},{"code":"O311","display":"Continuação da gravidez após aborto de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O312","display":"Continuação da gravidez após a morte intra-uterina de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O318","display":"Outras complicações específicas de gestação múltipla"},{"code":"O32","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por motivo de apresentação anormal conhecida ou suspeitada do feto"},{"code":"O320","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por posição fetal instável"},{"code":"O321","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação pélvica"},{"code":"O322","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por posição fetal transversa e oblíqua"},{"code":"O323","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação de face, mento e fronte"},{"code":"O324","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por polo cefálico alto em gestação a termo"},{"code":"O325","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por gestação múltipla com apresentação anormal de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O326","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação composta"},{"code":"O328","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras formas de apresentação anormal do feto"},{"code":"O329","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação anormal do feto, não especificada"},{"code":"O33","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por uma desproporção conhecida ou suspeita"},{"code":"O330","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à deformidade da pelve óssea materna"},{"code":"O331","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração geral da pelve"},{"code":"O332","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração do estreito superior da pelve"},{"code":"O333","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração do estreito inferior da pelve"},{"code":"O334","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção de origem mista, materna e fetal"},{"code":"O335","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a feto excepcionalmente grande"},{"code":"O336","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a feto hidrocefálico"},{"code":"O337","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a outras deformidades fetais"},{"code":"O338","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção de outra origem"},{"code":"O339","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção, não especificada"},{"code":"O34","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por anormalidade conhecida ou suspeita dos orgãos pélvicos maternos"},{"code":"O340","display":"Assistência à mãe por malformação congênita do útero"},{"code":"O341","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por tumor do corpo do útero"},{"code":"O342","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por cicatriz uterina devida a uma cirurgia anterior"},{"code":"O343","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por incompetência cervical"},{"code":"O344","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades do colo do útero"},{"code":"O345","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades do útero gravídico"},{"code":"O346","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade da vagina"},{"code":"O347","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"O348","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades dos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O349","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade de órgãos pélvicos, não especificada"},{"code":"O35","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por anormalidade e lesão fetais conhecidas ou suspeitadas"},{"code":"O350","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por malformação do sistema nervoso central do feto (suspeitada)"},{"code":"O351","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade cromossômica (suspeitada) do feto"},{"code":"O352","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por doença hereditária (suspeitada) do feto"},{"code":"O353","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por doença viral materna"},{"code":"O354","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão (suspeitada) causada ao feto por alcoolismo materno"},{"code":"O355","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por drogas"},{"code":"O356","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por radiação"},{"code":"O357","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por outros procedimentos médicos"},{"code":"O358","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades ou lesões fetais (suspeitadas)"},{"code":"O359","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão ou anormalidade fetais (suspeitadas), não especificadas"},{"code":"O36","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por outros problemas fetais conhecidos ou suspeitados"},{"code":"O360","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por isoimunização rh"},{"code":"O361","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outros tipos de isoimunização"},{"code":"O362","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por hidropsia fetal"},{"code":"O363","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por sinais de hipóxia fetal"},{"code":"O364","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por morte intra-uterina"},{"code":"O365","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por insuficiência de crescimento fetal"},{"code":"O366","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por crescimento fetal excessivo"},{"code":"O367","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por feto viável em gravidez abdominal"},{"code":"O368","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outros problemas fetais especificados"},{"code":"O369","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por problema fetal não especificado"},{"code":"O40","display":"POLI-HIDRAMNIO"},{"code":"O41","display":"Transtornos das membranas e do líquido amniótico"},{"code":"O410","display":"Oligohidrâmnio"},{"code":"O411","display":"Infecção do saco amniótico e das membranas"},{"code":"O418","display":"Outros transtornos especificados do líquido amniótico e das membranas"},{"code":"O419","display":"Transtornos do líquido amniótico e das membranas não especificados"},{"code":"O42","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas"},{"code":"O420","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com início do trabalho de parto dentro de 24 horas"},{"code":"O421","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com início do trabalho de parto depois das primeiras 24 horas"},{"code":"O422","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com trabalho de parto retardado por terapêutica"},{"code":"O429","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, não especificada"},{"code":"O43","display":"Transtornos da placenta"},{"code":"O430","display":"Síndromes de transfusão placentária"},{"code":"O431","display":"Malformação da placenta"},{"code":"O438","display":"Outros transtornos da placenta"},{"code":"O439","display":"Transtorno da placenta, não especificado"},{"code":"O44","display":"Placenta previa"},{"code":"O440","display":"Placenta prévia especificada como sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O441","display":"Placenta prévia com hemorragia"},{"code":"O45","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta (abruptio placentae)"},{"code":"O450","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O458","display":"Outro descolamento prematuro da placenta"},{"code":"O459","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta, não especificado"},{"code":"O46","display":"Hemorragia anteparto não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"O460","display":"Hemorragia anteparto com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O468","display":"Outra forma de hemorragia anteparto"},{"code":"O469","display":"Hemorragia anteparto, não especificada"},{"code":"O47","display":"Falso trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O470","display":"Falso trabalho de parto antes de se completarem 37 semanas de gestação"},{"code":"O471","display":"Falso trabalho de parto na 37ª semana completa ou depois dela"},{"code":"O479","display":"Falso trabalho de parto, não especificado"},{"code":"O48","display":"GRAVIDEZ PROLONGADA"},{"code":"O600","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo sem parto"},{"code":"O601","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo com parto pré-termo"},{"code":"O602","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo com parto a termo"},{"code":"O61","display":"Falha na indução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O610","display":"Falha na indução médica do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O611","display":"Falha na indução instrumental do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O618","display":"Outras formas de falha na indução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O619","display":"Falha na indução do trabalho de parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O62","display":"Anormalidades da contração uterina"},{"code":"O620","display":"Contrações iniciais inadequadas"},{"code":"O621","display":"Inércia uterina secundária"},{"code":"O622","display":"Outras formas de inércia uterina"},{"code":"O623","display":"Trabalho de parto precipitado"},{"code":"O624","display":"Contrações uterinas hipertônicas, incoordenadas ou prolongadas"},{"code":"O628","display":"Outras anormalidades da contração uterina"},{"code":"O629","display":"Anormalidades da contração uterina, não especificadas"},{"code":"O63","display":"Trabalho de parto prolongado"},{"code":"O630","display":"Prolongamento do primeiro período (dilatação)"},{"code":"O631","display":"Prolongamento do segundo período (expulsão)"},{"code":"O632","display":"Parto retardado do segundo gêmeo, do terceiro gêmeo etc"},{"code":"O639","display":"Trabalho de parto prolongado, não especificado"},{"code":"O64","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a má-posição ou má-apresentação do feto"},{"code":"O640","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à rotação incompleta do polo cefálico fetal"},{"code":"O641","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação pélvica"},{"code":"O642","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de face"},{"code":"O643","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de fronte"},{"code":"O644","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de ombro"},{"code":"O645","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação complexa"},{"code":"O648","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a outras formas de má-apresentação e má-posição"},{"code":"O649","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a má-posição ou má-apresentação, não especificadas"},{"code":"O65","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidade pélvica da mãe"},{"code":"O650","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a deformidade pélvica"},{"code":"O651","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração geral da pelve"},{"code":"O652","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração do estreito superior"},{"code":"O653","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração do estreito inferior ou da cavidade mediana"},{"code":"O654","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a desproporção feto-pélvica, não especificada"},{"code":"O655","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidade dos órgãos pélvicos maternos"},{"code":"O658","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a outras anormalidades pélvicas maternas"},{"code":"O659","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidades pélvicas maternas não especificadas"},{"code":"O66","display":"Outras formas de obstrução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O660","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devido a distócia de ombro"},{"code":"O661","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto por colisão de gêmeos"},{"code":"O662","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto por feto excepcionalmente grande"},{"code":"O663","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devido a outras anormalidades do feto"},{"code":"O664","display":"Falha de tentativa de trabalho de parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O665","display":"Falha de aplicação de fórceps e vácuo-extrator, não especificada"},{"code":"O668","display":"Outras formas de obstrução do trabalho de parto, especificadas"},{"code":"O669","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto, não especificado"},{"code":"O67","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por hemorragia intraparto não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"O670","display":"Hemorragia intraparto com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O678","display":"Outras hemorragias intraparto"},{"code":"O679","display":"Hemorragia intraparto não especificada"},{"code":"O68","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O680","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anormalidade da freqüência cardíaca fetal"},{"code":"O681","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por mecônio no líquido amniótico"},{"code":"O682","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anorm. na freq. cardíaca fetal c/mecônio no líq. amniótico"},{"code":"O683","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por evidências bioquímicas de sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O688","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outras evidências de sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O689","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por sofrimento fetal, não especificado"},{"code":"O69","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anormalidade do cordão umbilical"},{"code":"O690","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por prolapso do cordão"},{"code":"O691","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por circular de cordão, com compressão"},{"code":"O692","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outros enovelamentos do cordão"},{"code":"O693","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por cordão curto"},{"code":"O694","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por vasa praevia"},{"code":"O695","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por lesão vascular do cordão"},{"code":"O698","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outras complicações do cordão"},{"code":"O699","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por complicações do cordão, não especificadas"},{"code":"O70","display":"Laceração do perineo durante o parto"},{"code":"O700","display":"Laceração de períneo de primeiro grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O701","display":"Laceração de períneo de segundo grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O702","display":"Laceração de períneo de terceiro grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O703","display":"Laceração de períneo de quarto grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O709","display":"Laceração de períneo durante o parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O71","display":"Outros traumatismos obstétricos"},{"code":"O710","display":"Ruptura do útero antes do início do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O711","display":"Ruptura do útero durante o trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O712","display":"Inversão do útero pós-parto"},{"code":"O713","display":"Laceração obstétrica do colo do útero"},{"code":"O714","display":"Laceração vaginal alta isolada, de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O715","display":"Outras lesões obstétricas aos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O716","display":"Lesão obstétrica das articulações e dos ligamentos pélvicos"},{"code":"O717","display":"Hematoma obstétrico da pelve"},{"code":"O718","display":"Outros traumatismos obstétricos especificados"},{"code":"O719","display":"Traumatismo obstétrico, não especificado"},{"code":"O72","display":"Hemorragia pós-parto"},{"code":"O720","display":"Hemorragia do terceiro estágio"},{"code":"O721","display":"Outras hemorragias do pós-parto imediato"},{"code":"O722","display":"Hemorragias pós-parto, tardias e secundárias"},{"code":"O723","display":"Deficiências de coagulação pós-parto"},{"code":"O73","display":"Retenção da placenta e das membranas sem hemorragias"},{"code":"O730","display":"Retenção da placenta sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O731","display":"Retenção de partes da placenta ou das membranas, sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O74","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O740","display":"Pneumonite aspirativa devida a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O741","display":"Outras complicações pulmonares devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O742","display":"Complicações cardíacas devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O743","display":"Complicações do sistema nervoso central devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O744","display":"Reação tóxica a anestesia local durante trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O745","display":"Cefaléia pós-anestesia raquidiana e peridural, durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O746","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O747","display":"Falha ou dificuldade de entubação durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O748","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O749","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e parto, não especificadas"},{"code":"O75","display":"Outras complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O750","display":"Sofrimento materno durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O751","display":"Choque durante ou subseqüente ao trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O752","display":"Febre durante o trabalho de parto não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"O753","display":"Outras infecções durante o trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O754","display":"Outras complicações de procedimentos ou de cirurgia obstétrica"},{"code":"O755","display":"Demora do parto após ruptura artificial das membranas"},{"code":"O756","display":"Demora do parto após ruptura espontânea ou não especificada das membranas"},{"code":"O757","display":"Parto vaginal subseqüente a cesariana anterior"},{"code":"O758","display":"Outras complicações especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"O759","display":"Complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto, não especificadas"},{"code":"O80","display":"Parto único espontâneo"},{"code":"O800","display":"Parto espontâneo cefálico"},{"code":"O801","display":"Parto espontâneo pélvico"},{"code":"O808","display":"Outros tipos de parto único espontâneo"},{"code":"O809","display":"Parto único espontâneo, não especificado"},{"code":"O81","display":"Parto único por forceps ou vacuo-extrator"},{"code":"O810","display":"Parto por fórceps baixo"},{"code":"O811","display":"Parto por fórceps da cavidade mediana"},{"code":"O812","display":"Fórceps da cavidade mediana com rotação"},{"code":"O813","display":"Outros tipos de parto por fórceps e os não especificados"},{"code":"O814","display":"Parto por vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O815","display":"Parto por combinação de fórceps e vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O82","display":"Parto único por cesáriana"},{"code":"O820","display":"Parto por cesariana eletiva"},{"code":"O821","display":"Parto por cesariana de emergência"},{"code":"O822","display":"Parto por cesariana para histerectomia"},{"code":"O828","display":"Outros tipos de parto único por cesariana"},{"code":"O829","display":"Parto por cesariana, não especificada"},{"code":"O83","display":"Outros tipos de parto único assistido"},{"code":"O830","display":"Extração pélvica"},{"code":"O831","display":"Outros tipos de parto pélvico assistido"},{"code":"O832","display":"Outras formas de parto com o auxílio de manipulação"},{"code":"O833","display":"Parto de gravidez intra-abdominal com feto viável"},{"code":"O834","display":"Cirurgia destrutiva para facilitar o parto"},{"code":"O838","display":"Outros tipos especificados de parto único assistido"},{"code":"O839","display":"Parto único assistido, não especificado"},{"code":"O84","display":"Parto múltiplo"},{"code":"O840","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos espontâneos"},{"code":"O841","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos por fórceps ou vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O842","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos por cesariana"},{"code":"O848","display":"Outro tipo de parto múltiplo"},{"code":"O849","display":"Parto múltiplo, não especificado"},{"code":"O85","display":"INFECCAO PUERPERAL"},{"code":"O86","display":"Outras infecções puerperais"},{"code":"O860","display":"Infecção da incisão cirúrgica de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O861","display":"Outras infecções dos órgãos genitais subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O862","display":"Infecção das vias urinárias subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O863","display":"Outras infecções das vias genitourinárias subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O864","display":"Febre de origem desconhecida subseqüente ao parto"},{"code":"O868","display":"Outras infecções puerperais especificadas"},{"code":"O87","display":"Complicações venosas no puerpério"},{"code":"O870","display":"Tromboflebite superficial no puerpério"},{"code":"O871","display":"Tromboflebite profunda no puerpério"},{"code":"O872","display":"Hemorróidas no puerpério"},{"code":"O873","display":"Trombose venosa cerebral no puerpério"},{"code":"O878","display":"Outras complicações venosas no puerpério"},{"code":"O879","display":"Complicações venosas no puerpério, não especificadas"},{"code":"O88","display":"Embolia de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O880","display":"Embolia gasosa de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O881","display":"Embolia amniótica"},{"code":"O882","display":"Embolia obstétrica por coágulo de sangue"},{"code":"O883","display":"Embolia séptica ou piêmica de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O888","display":"Outras embolias de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O89","display":"Complicações da anestesia administrada durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O890","display":"Complicações pulmonares da anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O891","display":"Complicações cardíacas devidas a anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O892","display":"Complicações relativas ao sistema nervoso central devidas a anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O893","display":"Reação tóxica a uma anestesia local durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O894","display":"Cefaléia provocada por uma anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O895","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O896","display":"Falha na ou dificuldade de entubação, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O898","display":"Outras complicações da anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O899","display":"Complicação devida a anestesia, durante o puerpério, não especificada"},{"code":"O90","display":"Complicações do puerpério não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O900","display":"Ruptura da incisão de cesariana"},{"code":"O901","display":"Ruptura da incisão obstétrica, no períneo"},{"code":"O902","display":"Hematoma da incisão obstétrica"},{"code":"O903","display":"Cardiomiopatia no puerpério"},{"code":"O904","display":"Insuficiência renal aguda do pós-parto"},{"code":"O905","display":"Tireoidite do pós-parto"},{"code":"O908","display":"Outras complicações do puerpério, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O909","display":"Complicação do puerpério não especificada"},{"code":"O91","display":"Infecções mamárias associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O910","display":"Infecção do mamilo associada ao parto"},{"code":"O911","display":"Abscesso da mama associada ao parto"},{"code":"O912","display":"Mastite não purulenta associada ao parto"},{"code":"O92","display":"Outras afecções da mama e da lactação associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O920","display":"Mamilo retraído associado ao parto"},{"code":"O921","display":"Fissuras do mamilo associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O922","display":"Outras afecções da mama, e as não especificadas, associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O923","display":"Agalactia"},{"code":"O924","display":"Hipogalactia"},{"code":"O925","display":"Suspensão da lactação"},{"code":"O926","display":"Galactorréia"},{"code":"O927","display":"Outros distúrbios da lactação e os não especificados"},{"code":"O94","display":"Seqüelas de complicações da gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O95","display":"MORTE OBSTETRICA DE CAUSA NAO ESPECIFICADA"},{"code":"O96","display":"MORTE POR QUALQUER CAUSA OBSTETRICA QUE OCORRE MAIS DE 42 DIAS MAS MENOS DE 1 ANO APOS O PARTO"},{"code":"O97","display":"MORTE POR SEQUELAS DE CAUSAS OBSTETRICAS 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especif., complic. a gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O99","display":"Doenças da mãe classificadas em outra partemas que complicam a gravidez o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O990","display":"Anemia complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O991","display":"Outras doenças do sangue e dos órgãos hematop. e alguns transt. que comprometem o sist. imunológico"},{"code":"O992","display":"Doenças endócrinas, nutricionais e metabólicas complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O993","display":"Transtornos mentais e doenças do sistema nervoso complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O994","display":"Doenças do aparelho circulatório complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O995","display":"Doenças do aparelho respiratório complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O996","display":"Doenças do aparelho digestivo complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O997","display":"Doenças da pele e do tecido subcutâneo complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O998","display":"Outras doenças e afecções especificadas complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"P00","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados p/ afecções maternas n obrigatoriamente relacionadas c/ gravidez atual"},{"code":"P000","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por transtornos maternos hipertensivos"},{"code":"P001","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por doenças maternas renais e das vias urinárias"},{"code":"P002","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por doenças infecciosas e parasitárias da mãe"},{"code":"P003","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras doenças circulatórias e respiratórias maternas"},{"code":"P004","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por transtornos nutricionais maternos"},{"code":"P005","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por traumatismo materno"},{"code":"P006","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por intervenção cirúrgica na mãe"},{"code":"P007","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outros procedimentos médicos na mãe, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"P008","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras afecções maternas"},{"code":"P009","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por afecção materna não especificada"},{"code":"P01","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações maternas da gravidez"},{"code":"P010","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por incompetência do colo uterino"},{"code":"P011","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por ruptura prematura das membranas"},{"code":"P012","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por oligohidrâmnio"},{"code":"P013","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por polihidrâmnio"},{"code":"P014","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por gravidez ectópica"},{"code":"P015","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por gravidez múltipla"},{"code":"P016","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por morte materna"},{"code":"P017","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por apresentação anormal antes do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"P018","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações maternas da gravidez"},{"code":"P019","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por afecções maternas da gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"P02","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações da placenta do cordão umbilical e das membranas"},{"code":"P020","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por placenta prévia"},{"code":"P021","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras formas de descolamento da placenta e hemorragia"},{"code":"P022","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras anormal. morfol. e funcionais da placenta e as ñ especif."},{"code":"P023","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por síndromes de transfusão placentária"},{"code":"P024","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por prolapso de cordão umbilical"},{"code":"P025","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras compressões do cordão umbilical"},{"code":"P026","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras afecções do cordão umbilical e as não especificadas"},{"code":"P027","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por corioamnionite"},{"code":"P028","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras anormalidades das membranas"},{"code":"P029","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por anormalidade não especificada das membranas"},{"code":"P03","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P030","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto e extração pélvicas"},{"code":"P031","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por out. apres. anorm., má-posic. e desprop. dur. trab. parto e parto"},{"code":"P032","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por fórceps"},{"code":"P033","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por vácuo-extrator [ventosa]"},{"code":"P034","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por cesariana"},{"code":"P035","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto precipitado"},{"code":"P036","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por contrações uterinas anormais"},{"code":"P038","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P039","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações não especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P04","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados p/ influência nociva transmitida ao feto via placenta ou leite materno"},{"code":"P040","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por anest. e analg. materna durante gravidez, trab. de parto e parto"},{"code":"P041","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outros medicamentos utilizados pela mãe"},{"code":"P042","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de fumo pela mãe"},{"code":"P043","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de álcool pela mãe"},{"code":"P044","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de drogas que causam dependência pela mãe"},{"code":"P045","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por uso materno de substâncias químicas dos alimentos"},{"code":"P046","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pela exposição da mãe a substâncias químicas do meio ambiente"},{"code":"P048","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras influências nocivas maternas"},{"code":"P049","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por influências nocivas maternas não especificadas"},{"code":"P05","display":"Crescimento fetal retardado e desnutrição fetal"},{"code":"P050","display":"Recém-nascido de baixo peso para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P051","display":"Pequeno para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P052","display":"Desnutrição fetal sem menção de peso e comprimento baixos para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P059","display":"Retardo não especificado do crescimento fetal"},{"code":"P07","display":"Transtornos relacionados com a gestação de curta duração e peso baixo ao nascer ncop"},{"code":"P070","display":"Recém-nascido com peso muito baixo"},{"code":"P071","display":"Outros recém-nascidos de peso baixo"},{"code":"P072","display":"Imaturidade extrema"},{"code":"P073","display":"Outros recém-nascidos de pré-termo"},{"code":"P08","display":"Transtornos relacionados com a gestação prolongada e peso elevado ao nascer"},{"code":"P080","display":"Recém-nascido de tamanho excessivamente grande"},{"code":"P081","display":"Outros recém-nascidos grandes para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P082","display":"Recém-nascido pós-termo, não-grande para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P10","display":"Laceração intracraniana e hemorragia devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P100","display":"Hemorragia subdural devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P101","display":"Hemorragia cerebral devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P102","display":"Hemorragia intraventricular devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P103","display":"Hemorragia subaracnoídea devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P104","display":"Ruptura tentorial devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P108","display":"Outras lacerações e hemorragias intracranianas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P109","display":"Laceração e hemorragia intracranianas não especificadas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P11","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"P110","display":"Edema cerebral devido a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P111","display":"Outras lesões cerebrais especificadas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P112","display":"Lesão cerebral não especificada devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P113","display":"Traumatismo de parto do nervo facial"},{"code":"P114","display":"Traumatismo de parto de outros nervos cranianos"},{"code":"P115","display":"Traumatismo de parto da coluna e da medula 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parto"},{"code":"P149","display":"Lesão não especificada do sistema nervoso periférico devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P15","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto"},{"code":"P150","display":"Lesão do fígado devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P151","display":"Lesão do baço devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P152","display":"Lesão do esternomastóide devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P153","display":"Lesão dos olhos devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P154","display":"Lesão da face ao nascer"},{"code":"P155","display":"Lesão dos órgãos genitais externos, devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P156","display":"Necrose de gordura subcutânea devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P158","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto especificados"},{"code":"P159","display":"Traumatismo de parto não especificado"},{"code":"P20","display":"Hipoxia intra-uterina"},{"code":"P200","display":"Hipóxia intra-uterina diagnosticada antes do início do trabalho de 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especificada"},{"code":"P25","display":"Enfisema intersticial e afecções correlatas originadas no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P250","display":"Enfisema intersticial originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P251","display":"Pneumotórax originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P252","display":"Pneumomediastino originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P253","display":"Pneumopericárdio originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P258","display":"Outras afecções relacionadas com o enfisema intersticial originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P26","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar originada no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P260","display":"Hemorragia traqueobrônquica originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P261","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar maciça originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P268","display":"Outras hemorragias pulmonares originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P269","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar não especificada originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P27","display":"Doença respiratória crônica originada no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P270","display":"Síndrome de Wilson-Mikity"},{"code":"P271","display":"Displasia broncopulmonar originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P278","display":"Outras doenças respiratórias crônicas originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P279","display":"Doença respiratória crônica não especificada originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P28","display":"Outras afecções respiratórias originadas no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P280","display":"Atelectasia primária do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P281","display":"Outras atelectasias do recém-nascido e as não especificadas"},{"code":"P282","display":"Crises cianóticas do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P283","display":"Apnéia primária do sono do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P284","display":"Outras apnéias do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P285","display":"Insuficiência respiratória do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P288","display":"Outras afecções respiratórias 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atresia e estreitamento congênitos do conduto auditivo (externo)"},{"code":"Q162","display":"Ausência da trompa de eustáquio"},{"code":"Q163","display":"Malformação congênita dos ossículos do ouvido"},{"code":"Q164","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do ouvido médio"},{"code":"Q165","display":"Malformação congênita do ouvido interno"},{"code":"Q169","display":"Malformação congênita do ouvido não especificada causando comprometimento da audição"},{"code":"Q17","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da orelha"},{"code":"Q170","display":"Pavilhão supranumerário"},{"code":"Q171","display":"Macrotia"},{"code":"Q172","display":"Microtia"},{"code":"Q173","display":"Outras deformidades da orelha"},{"code":"Q174","display":"Anomalia de posição da orelha"},{"code":"Q175","display":"Orelhas proeminentes"},{"code":"Q178","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas da orelha"},{"code":"Q179","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da 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ventrículo-atrial discordante"},{"code":"Q204","display":"Ventrículo com dupla via de entrada"},{"code":"Q205","display":"Comunicação átrio-ventricular discordante"},{"code":"Q206","display":"Isomerismo dos apêndices atriais"},{"code":"Q208","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das câmaras e das comunicações cardíacas"},{"code":"Q209","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das câmaras e das comunicações cardíacas"},{"code":"Q21","display":"Malformações congênitas dos septos cardiacos"},{"code":"Q210","display":"Comunicação interventricular"},{"code":"Q211","display":"Comunicação interatrial"},{"code":"Q212","display":"Comunicação atrioventricular"},{"code":"Q213","display":"Tetralogia de fallot"},{"code":"Q214","display":"Comunicação aortopulmonar"},{"code":"Q218","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos septos cardíacos"},{"code":"Q219","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada de septo cardíaco"},{"code":"Q22","display":"Malformações congênitas das valvas pulmonar e tricúspide"},{"code":"Q220","display":"Atresia da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q221","display":"Estenose congênita da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q222","display":"Insuficiência congênita da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q223","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q224","display":"Estenose congênita da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q225","display":"Anomalia de ebstein"},{"code":"Q226","display":"Síndrome do coração direito hipoplásico"},{"code":"Q228","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q229","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q23","display":"Malformações congênitas das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q230","display":"Estenose congênita da valva aórtica"},{"code":"Q231","display":"Insuficiência congênita da valva aórtica"},{"code":"Q232","display":"Estenose mitral congênita"},{"code":"Q233","display":"Insuficiência mitral congênita"},{"code":"Q234","display":"Síndrome do coração esquerdo hipoplásico"},{"code":"Q238","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q239","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q24","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do coração"},{"code":"Q240","display":"Dextrocardia"},{"code":"Q241","display":"Levocardia"},{"code":"Q242","display":"Cor triatriatum"},{"code":"Q243","display":"Estenose do infundíbulo pulmonar"},{"code":"Q244","display":"Estenose subaórtica congênita"},{"code":"Q245","display":"Malformações dos vasos coronários"},{"code":"Q246","display":"Bloqueio congênito do coração"},{"code":"Q248","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do coração"},{"code":"Q249","display":"Malformação não especificada do coração"},{"code":"Q25","display":"Malformações congênitas das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q250","display":"Permeabilidade do canal arterial"},{"code":"Q251","display":"Coartação da aorta"},{"code":"Q252","display":"Atresia da aorta"},{"code":"Q253","display":"Estenose da aorta"},{"code":"Q254","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da aorta"},{"code":"Q255","display":"Atresia da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q256","display":"Estenose da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q257","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q258","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q259","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q26","display":"Malformações congênitas das grandes veias"},{"code":"Q260","display":"Estenose congênita da veia cava"},{"code":"Q261","display":"Persistência da veia cava superior esquerda"},{"code":"Q262","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal total"},{"code":"Q263","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal parcial"},{"code":"Q264","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal não especificado"},{"code":"Q265","display":"Comunicação venosa 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circulatório"},{"code":"Q280","display":"Malformação arteriovenosa de vasos pré-cerebrais"},{"code":"Q281","display":"Outras malformações dos vasos pré-cerebrais"},{"code":"Q282","display":"Malformação arteriovenosa dos vasos cerebrais"},{"code":"Q283","display":"Outras malformações dos vasos cerebrais"},{"code":"Q288","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"Q289","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"Q30","display":"Malformação congênita do nariz"},{"code":"Q300","display":"Atresia das coanas"},{"code":"Q301","display":"Agenesia ou hipoplasia do nariz"},{"code":"Q302","display":"Fissura, entalhe ou fenda nasal"},{"code":"Q303","display":"Perfuração congênita do septo nasal"},{"code":"Q308","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do nariz"},{"code":"Q309","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do nariz"},{"code":"Q31","display":"Malformações congênitas da laringe"},{"code":"Q310","display":"Pterígio da laringe"},{"code":"Q311","display":"Estenose subglótica congênita"},{"code":"Q312","display":"Hipoplasia da laringe"},{"code":"Q313","display":"Laringocele"},{"code":"Q315","display":"Laringomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q318","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da laringe"},{"code":"Q319","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da laringe"},{"code":"Q32","display":"Malformações congênitas da traqueia e dos bronquios"},{"code":"Q320","display":"Traqueomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q321","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da traquéia"},{"code":"Q322","display":"Broncomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q323","display":"Estenose congênita dos brônquios"},{"code":"Q324","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos brônquios"},{"code":"Q33","display":"Malformações congênitas do pulmão"},{"code":"Q330","display":"Pulmão cístico congênito"},{"code":"Q331","display":"Lobo pulmonar supranumerário"},{"code":"Q332","display":"Seqüestro pulmonar"},{"code":"Q333","display":"Agenesia do pulmão"},{"code":"Q334","display":"Bronquectasia congênita"},{"code":"Q335","display":"Tecido ectópico intrapulmonar"},{"code":"Q336","display":"Hipoplasia e displasia do pulmão"},{"code":"Q338","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do pulmão"},{"code":"Q339","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do pulmão"},{"code":"Q34","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q340","display":"Anomalia da pleura"},{"code":"Q341","display":"Cisto congênito do mediastino"},{"code":"Q348","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q349","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q35","display":"Fenda palatina"},{"code":"Q351","display":"Fenda do palato duro"},{"code":"Q353","display":"Fenda do palato mole"},{"code":"Q355","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda do palato mole"},{"code":"Q357","display":"Fenda da úvula"},{"code":"Q359","display":"Fenda palatina não especificada"},{"code":"Q36","display":"Fenda labial"},{"code":"Q360","display":"Fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q361","display":"Fenda labial mediana"},{"code":"Q369","display":"Fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q37","display":"Fenda labial com fenda palatina"},{"code":"Q370","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q371","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q372","display":"Fenda do palato mole com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q373","display":"Fenda do palato mole com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q374","display":"Fenda dos palatos duro e mole com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q375","display":"Fenda dos palatos duro e mole com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q378","display":"Fenda do palato com fenda labial bilateral, não especificada"},{"code":"Q379","display":"Fenda do palato com fenda 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atresia"},{"code":"Q393","display":"Estenose congênita e estreitamento congênito do esôfago"},{"code":"Q394","display":"Pterígio do esôfago"},{"code":"Q395","display":"Dilatação congênita do esôfago"},{"code":"Q396","display":"Divertículo do esôfago"},{"code":"Q398","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do esôfago"},{"code":"Q399","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do esôfago"},{"code":"Q40","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q400","display":"Estenose hipertrófica congênita do piloro"},{"code":"Q401","display":"Hérnia congênita de hiato"},{"code":"Q402","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do estômago"},{"code":"Q403","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do estômago"},{"code":"Q408","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q409","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q41","display":"Ausência atresia e estenose congênita do intestino delgado"},{"code":"Q410","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do duodeno"},{"code":"Q411","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do jejuno"},{"code":"Q412","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do íleo"},{"code":"Q418","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de outras partes especificadas do intestino delgado"},{"code":"Q419","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do intestino delgado, sem especificação de localização"},{"code":"Q42","display":"Ausência atresia e estenose congênita do colon"},{"code":"Q420","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do reto, com fístula"},{"code":"Q421","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do reto, sem fístula"},{"code":"Q422","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do ânus, com fístula"},{"code":"Q423","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do ânus, sem fístula"},{"code":"Q428","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de outras partes do cólon (intestino grosso)"},{"code":"Q429","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de partes não especificadas do cólon (intestino grosso)"},{"code":"Q43","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do intestino"},{"code":"Q430","display":"Divertículo de meckel"},{"code":"Q431","display":"Doença de hirschsprung"},{"code":"Q432","display":"Outros transtornos funcionais congênitos do cólon"},{"code":"Q433","display":"Malformações congênitas da fixação do intestino"},{"code":"Q434","display":"Duplicação do intestino"},{"code":"Q435","display":"Ânus ectópico"},{"code":"Q436","display":"Fístula congênita do reto e do ânus"},{"code":"Q437","display":"Persistência de cloaca"},{"code":"Q438","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do intestino"},{"code":"Q439","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do intestino"},{"code":"Q44","display":"Malformações congênitas da vesícula biliar das vias biliares e do fígado"},{"code":"Q440","display":"Agenesia, aplasia e hipoplasia da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"Q441","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"Q442","display":"Atresia das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q443","display":"Estenose e estreitamento congênitos das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q444","display":"Cisto do colédoco"},{"code":"Q445","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q446","display":"Doença cística do fígado"},{"code":"Q447","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do fígado"},{"code":"Q45","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q450","display":"Agenesia, aplasia e hipoplasia do pâncreas"},{"code":"Q451","display":"Pâncreas anular"},{"code":"Q452","display":"Cisto pancreático congênito"},{"code":"Q453","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do pâncreas e do duto pancreático"},{"code":"Q458","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q459","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q50","display":"Malformações congênitas dos ovários das trompas de falopio e dos ligamentos largos"},{"code":"Q500","display":"Ausência congênita dos ovários"},{"code":"Q501","display":"Cisto ovariano de desenvolvimento"},{"code":"Q502","display":"Torsão congênita do ovário"},{"code":"Q503","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do ovário"},{"code":"Q504","display":"Cisto embrionário da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"Q505","display":"Cisto embrionário do ligamento largo"},{"code":"Q506","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das trompas de falópio e dos ligamentos largos"},{"code":"Q51","display":"Malformações congênitas do útero e do colo do utero"},{"code":"Q510","display":"Agenesia e aplasia do útero"},{"code":"Q511","display":"Útero duplo com duplicação do colo uterino e da vagina"},{"code":"Q512","display":"Outra duplicação do útero"},{"code":"Q513","display":"Útero bicórneo"},{"code":"Q514","display":"Útero unicórneo"},{"code":"Q515","display":"Agenesia e aplasia do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q516","display":"Cisto embrionário do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q517","display":"Fístula congênita útero-digestiva ou útero-urinária"},{"code":"Q518","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do útero e do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q519","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do útero e do colo do útero soe"},{"code":"Q52","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos orgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"Q520","display":"Ausência congênita da vagina"},{"code":"Q521","display":"Duplicação da vagina"},{"code":"Q522","display":"Fístula reto-vaginal congênita"},{"code":"Q523","display":"Imperfuração do hímen"},{"code":"Q524","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da vagina"},{"code":"Q525","display":"Fusão dos lábios vulvares"},{"code":"Q526","display":"Malformação congênita do 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aparelho urinário"},{"code":"Q649","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho urinário"},{"code":"Q65","display":"Malformações congênitas do quadril"},{"code":"Q650","display":"Luxação congênita unilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q651","display":"Luxação congênita bilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q652","display":"Luxação congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q653","display":"Subluxação congênita unilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q654","display":"Subluxação congênita bilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q655","display":"Subluxação congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q656","display":"Quadril instável"},{"code":"Q658","display":"Outras deformidades congênitas do quadril"},{"code":"Q659","display":"Deformidade congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q66","display":"Deformidades congênitas do pe"},{"code":"Q660","display":"Pé torto eqüinovaro"},{"code":"Q661","display":"Pé torto calcaneovaro"},{"code":"Q662","display":"Metatarso 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perna"},{"code":"S842","display":"Traumatismo do nervo cutâneo sensitivo ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S847","display":"Traumatismo de múltiplos nervos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S848","display":"Traumatismo de outros nervos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S849","display":"Traumatismo de nervo não especificado ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S85","display":"Traumatismo de vasos sanguíneos da perna"},{"code":"S850","display":"Traumatismo da artéria poplítea"},{"code":"S851","display":"Traumatismo da artéria tibial (anterior) (posterior)"},{"code":"S852","display":"Traumatismo da artéria peronial"},{"code":"S853","display":"Traumatismo da veia grande safena ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S854","display":"Traumatismo da veia safena menor ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S855","display":"Traumatismo da veia poplítea"},{"code":"S857","display":"Traumatismo de múltiplos vasos sangüíneos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S858","display":"Traumatismo de outros vasos sangüíneos ao nível da 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especificado"},{"code":"T205","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T206","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T207","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T21","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do tronco"},{"code":"T210","display":"Queimadura do tronco, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T211","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T212","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do tronco"},{"code":"T213","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T214","display":"Corrosão do tronco, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T215","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T216","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do tronco"},{"code":"T217","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T22","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do ombro e membro superior exceto punho e mão"},{"code":"T220","display":"Queimadura do ombro e do membro superior, 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mão"},{"code":"T232","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T233","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T234","display":"Corrosão do punho e da mão, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T235","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T236","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T237","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T24","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do quadril e membro inferior exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T240","display":"Queimadura do quadril e membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T241","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T242","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T243","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T244","display":"Corrosão do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T245","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T246","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T247","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T25","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T250","display":"Queimadura do tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T251","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T252","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T253","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T254","display":"Corrosão do tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T255","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T256","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T257","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T26","display":"Queimadura e corrosão limitadas ao olho e seus anexos"},{"code":"T260","display":"Queimadura da pálpebra e da região periocular"},{"code":"T261","display":"Queimadura da córnea e do saco conjuntival"},{"code":"T262","display":"Queimadura com resultante ruptura e destruição do globo ocular"},{"code":"T263","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do olho e anexos"},{"code":"T264","display":"Queimadura do olho e anexos, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T265","display":"Corrosão da pálpebra e da região periocular"},{"code":"T266","display":"Corrosão da córnea e do saco conjuntival"},{"code":"T267","display":"Corrosão com resultante ruptura e destruição do globo ocular"},{"code":"T268","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do olho e anexos"},{"code":"T269","display":"Corrosão do olho e anexos, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T27","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T270","display":"Queimadura da laringe e traquéia"},{"code":"T271","display":"Queimadura da laringe, traquéia com pulmão"},{"code":"T272","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T273","display":"Queimadura do trato respiratório, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T274","display":"Corrosão da laringe e traquéia"},{"code":"T275","display":"Corrosão da laringe, traquéia com corrosão de pulmão"},{"code":"T276","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T277","display":"Corrosão do trato respiratório, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T28","display":"Queimadura e corrosão de outros orgãos internos"},{"code":"T280","display":"Queimadura da boca e da faringe"},{"code":"T281","display":"Queimadura do esôfago"},{"code":"T282","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do trato alimentar"},{"code":"T283","display":"Queimadura dos órgãos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T284","display":"Queimadura de outros órgãos internos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T285","display":"Corrosão da boca e faringe"},{"code":"T286","display":"Corrosão do esôfago"},{"code":"T287","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do trato alimentar"},{"code":"T288","display":"Corrosão de órgãos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T289","display":"Corrosão de outros órgãos internos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T29","display":"Queimaduras e corrosões de multiplas regiões do corpo"},{"code":"T290","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T291","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, sem mencionar queimadura(s) ultrapassando o primeiro grau"},{"code":"T292","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, sem mencionar queimadura(s) ultrapassando o segundo grau"},{"code":"T293","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, mencionando ao menos uma queimadura de terceiro grau"},{"code":"T294","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T295","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, sem mencionar corrosão(ões) ultrapassando o primeiro grau"},{"code":"T296","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, sem mencionar corrosão(ões) ultrapassando o segundo grau"},{"code":"T297","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, mencionado ao menos uma corrosão de terceiro grau"},{"code":"T30","display":"Queimadura e corrosão parte não especificada do corpo"},{"code":"T300","display":"Queimadura, parte do corpo não especificada, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T301","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T302","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T303","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T304","display":"Corrosão, parte do corpo não especificada, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T305","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T306","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T307","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T31","display":"Queimaduras classificadas segundo a extensão da superficie corporal atingida"},{"code":"T310","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo menos de 10% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T311","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 10 - 19% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T312","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 20 - 29% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T313","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 30 - 39% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T314","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 40 - 49% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T315","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 50 - 59% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T316","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 60 - 69% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T317","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 70 - 79% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T318","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 80 - 89% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T319","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo 90% ou mais da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T32","display":"Corrosões classificadas segundo a extensão da superficie corporal atingida"},{"code":"T320","display":"Corrosões envolvendo menos de 10% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T321","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 10 - 19% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T322","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 20 - 29% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T323","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 30 - 39% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T324","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 40 - 49% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T325","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 50 - 59% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T326","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 60 - 69% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T327","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 70 - 79% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T328","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 80 - 89% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T329","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 90% ou mais da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T33","display":"Geladura superficial"},{"code":"T330","display":"Geladura superficial da cabeça"},{"code":"T331","display":"Geladura superficial do pescoço"},{"code":"T332","display":"Geladura superficial do tórax"},{"code":"T333","display":"Geladura superficial da parede abdominal, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T334","display":"Geladura superficial do braço"},{"code":"T335","display":"Geladura superficial do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T336","display":"Geladura superficial do quadril e da coxa"},{"code":"T337","display":"Geladura superficial do joelho e da perna"},{"code":"T338","display":"Geladura superficial do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T339","display":"Geladura superficial de outros locais e de locais não especificados"},{"code":"T34","display":"Geladura com necrose de tecidos"},{"code":"T340","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, da cabeça"},{"code":"T341","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do pescoço"},{"code":"T342","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do tórax"},{"code":"T343","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, da parede abdominal, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T344","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do braço"},{"code":"T345","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T346","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do quadril e da coxa"},{"code":"T347","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do joelho e da perna"},{"code":"T348","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T349","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, de localização não especificada"},{"code":"T35","display":"Geladura de multiplas partes do corpo e das não especificadas"},{"code":"T350","display":"Geladura superficial envolvendo múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T351","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, de múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T352","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T353","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do tórax, abdome, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T354","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do membro superior"},{"code":"T355","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do membro inferior"},{"code":"T356","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, de múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T357","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, de localização não especificada"},{"code":"T36","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos sistemicos"},{"code":"T360","display":"Intoxicação por penicilinas"},{"code":"T361","display":"Intoxicação por cefalosporinas e outras betalactaminas"},{"code":"T362","display":"Intoxicação pelo grupo do cloranfenicol"},{"code":"T363","display":"Intoxicação por macrolídios"},{"code":"T364","display":"Intoxicação por tetraciclinas"},{"code":"T365","display":"Intoxicação por aminoglicosídeos"},{"code":"T366","display":"Intoxicação por rifamicinas"},{"code":"T367","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos antifúngicos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"T368","display":"Intoxicação por outros antibióticos sistêmicos"},{"code":"T369","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"T37","display":"Intoxicação por outras substancias antiinfecciosas ouantiparasitárias sistemicas"},{"code":"T370","display":"Intoxicação por sulfonamidas"},{"code":"T371","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antimicobacterianas"},{"code":"T372","display":"Intoxicação por antimaláricos e drogas que atuam sobre outros protozoários do sangue"},{"code":"T373","display":"Intoxicação por outros medicamentos antiprotozoários"},{"code":"T374","display":"Intoxicação por anti-helmínticos"},{"code":"T375","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antivirais"},{"code":"T378","display":"Intoxicação por outros agentes antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários especificados"},{"code":"T379","display":"Intoxicação por agentes antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"T38","display":"Intoxicação por hormonios seus substitutos sintéticos e seus antagonistas não cop"},{"code":"T380","display":"Intoxicação por glicocorticóides e análogos sintéticos"},{"code":"T381","display":"Intoxicação por hormônios tireoidianos e seus derivados"},{"code":"T382","display":"Intoxicação por medicamentos antitireoidianos"},{"code":"T383","display":"Intoxicação por insulina e drogas hipoglicemiantes orais [antidiabéticos]"},{"code":"T384","display":"Intoxicação por anticoncepcionais orais"},{"code":"T385","display":"Intoxicação por outros estrógenos e progestágenos"},{"code":"T386","display":"Intoxicação por antigonadotrofinas, antiestrógenos, antiandrógenos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T387","display":"Intoxicação por andrógenos e anabolizantes congêneres"},{"code":"T388","display":"Intoxicação por outros hormônios e substitutos sintéticos, e os não especificados"},{"code":"T389","display":"Intoxicação por outros antagonistas hormonais, e os não especificados"},{"code":"T39","display":"Intoxicação por analgesicos antipiréticos e anti-reumáticos não-opiáceos"},{"code":"T390","display":"Intoxicação por salicilatos"},{"code":"T391","display":"Intoxicação por derivados do 4-aminofenol"},{"code":"T392","display":"Intoxicação por derivados pirazolônicos"},{"code":"T393","display":"Intoxicação por outros antiinflamatórios não esteróides"},{"code":"T394","display":"Intoxicação por anti-reumáticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T398","display":"Intoxicação por outros analgésicos não opiáceos e antipiréticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T399","display":"Intoxicação por analgésico não-opiáceo, antipirético e anti-reumático, não especificados"},{"code":"T40","display":"Intoxicação por narcóticos e psicodislepticos (alucinógenos)"},{"code":"T400","display":"Intoxicação por ópio"},{"code":"T401","display":"Intoxicação por heroína"},{"code":"T402","display":"Intoxicação por outros opiáceos"},{"code":"T403","display":"Intoxicação por metadona"},{"code":"T404","display":"Intoxicação por outros narcóticos sintéticos"},{"code":"T405","display":"Intoxicação por cocaína"},{"code":"T406","display":"Intoxicação por outros narcóticos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T407","display":"Intoxicação por cannabis (derivados)"},{"code":"T408","display":"Intoxicação por lisergida [lsd]"},{"code":"T409","display":"Intoxicação por outros psicodislépticos e os não especificados [alucinógenos]"},{"code":"T41","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos e gases terapêuticos"},{"code":"T410","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos inalatórios"},{"code":"T411","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos intravenosos"},{"code":"T412","display":"Intoxicação por outros anestésicos gerais e os não especificados"},{"code":"T413","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos locais"},{"code":"T414","display":"Intoxicação por anestésico não especificado"},{"code":"T415","display":"Intoxicação por gases terapêuticos"},{"code":"T42","display":"Intoxicação por antiepilepticos sedativos-hipnóticose antiparkinsonianos"},{"code":"T420","display":"Intoxicação por derivados da hidantoína"},{"code":"T421","display":"Intoxicação por iminostilbenos"},{"code":"T422","display":"Intoxicação por succinimidas e oxazolidinadionas"},{"code":"T423","display":"Intoxicação por barbitúricos"},{"code":"T424","display":"Intoxicação por benzodiazepinas"},{"code":"T425","display":"Intoxicação por antiepiléticos em associação, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T426","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas antiepilépticas e sedativos-hipnóticos"},{"code":"T427","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antiepilépticos, sedativos-hipnóticos, não especificados"},{"code":"T428","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antiparkinsonianos e outros depressores centrais do tônus muscular"},{"code":"T43","display":"Intoxicação por drogas psicotropicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T430","display":"Intoxicação por antidepressivos tricíclicos e tetracíclicos"},{"code":"T431","display":"Intoxicação por antidepressivos inibidores da monoaminooxidase (mao)"},{"code":"T432","display":"Intoxicação por outros antidepressivos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T433","display":"Intoxicação por antipsicóticos e neurolépticos derivados da fenotiazina"},{"code":"T434","display":"Intoxicação por neurolépticos do tipo butirofenona e tioxanteno"},{"code":"T435","display":"Intoxicação por outros antipsicóticos e neurolépticos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T436","display":"Intoxicação por psicoestimulantes que potencialmente podem provocar dependência"},{"code":"T438","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas psicotrópicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T439","display":"Intoxicação por droga psicotrópica não especificada"},{"code":"T44","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que afetam principalmente o sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"T440","display":"Intoxicação por agentes anticolinesterase"},{"code":"T441","display":"Intoxicação por outros agentes parassimpaticomiméticos [colinérgicos]"},{"code":"T442","display":"Intoxicação por bloqueadores ganglionares não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T443","display":"Intoxicação por outros parassimpaticolíticos e espasmolíticos ñ classificados noutra parte"},{"code":"T444","display":"Intoxicação por agonistas principalmente alfa-adrenorreceptores não class. em outra parte"},{"code":"T445","display":"Intoxicação por agonistas principalmente beta-adrenorreceptores não class. em outra parte"},{"code":"T446","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas alfa-adrenorreceptores não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T447","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas beta-adrenorreceptores não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T448","display":"Intoxicação por bloquead. neuronais adrenérgicos e de ação central, não class. noutra parte"},{"code":"T449","display":"Intoxicação por out. drogas que afetam princ. o sist. nervoso autônomo e as ñ especificadas"},{"code":"T45","display":"Intox p/ subst de ação essencialmente sistemica e substancias hematológicas ncop"},{"code":"T450","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antialérgicas e antieméticas"},{"code":"T451","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antineoplásicas e imunomupressoras"},{"code":"T452","display":"Intoxicação por vitaminas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T453","display":"Intoxicação por enzimas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T454","display":"Intoxicação por ferro e seus compostos"},{"code":"T455","display":"Intoxicação por anticoagulantes"},{"code":"T456","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que afetam a fibrinólise"},{"code":"T457","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas de anticoagulantes, vitamina K e outros fatores de coagulação"},{"code":"T458","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias primariamente sistêmicas e hematológicas"},{"code":"T459","display":"Intoxicação por substância essencialmente sistêmica e hematológica não especificada"},{"code":"T46","display":"Intoxicação por substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"T460","display":"Intoxicação por glicosídeos estimulantes do coração e substâncias de ação semelhante"},{"code":"T461","display":"Intoxicação por bloqueadores dos canais de cálcio"},{"code":"T462","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas antidisrítmicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T463","display":"Intoxicação por vasodilatadores coronarianos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T464","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores da enzima de conversão da angiotensina"},{"code":"T465","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas anti-hipertensivas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T466","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antihiperlipêmicas e antiarterioscleróticas"},{"code":"T467","display":"Intoxicação por vasodilatadores periféricos"},{"code":"T468","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antivaricosas, incluindo substâncias esclerosantes"},{"code":"T469","display":"Intoxicação por outras subst. e as não especificada que agem essenc. sobre o aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"T47","display":"Intoxicação por substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"T470","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas dos receptores H2 da histamina"},{"code":"T471","display":"Intoxicação por outros antiácidos e drogas que inibem a secreção gástrica"},{"code":"T472","display":"Intoxicação por laxativos estimulantes"},{"code":"T473","display":"Intoxicação por laxativos salinos e osmóticos"},{"code":"T474","display":"Intoxicação por outros laxativos"},{"code":"T475","display":"Intoxicação por digestivos"},{"code":"T476","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antidiarréicas"},{"code":"T477","display":"Intoxicação por eméticos"},{"code":"T478","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias que atuam primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrintestinal"},{"code":"T479","display":"Intoxicação por substância não especificada que atua primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"T48","display":"Intox p/ subst que atua primáriamente sobre músculo liso e esqueléticos sobre aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"T480","display":"Intoxicação por drogas ocitócicas"},{"code":"T481","display":"Intoxicação por relaxantes musculares esqueléticos [bloqueadores neuromusculares]"},{"code":"T482","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias e as não especificadas que atuam sobre os músculos"},{"code":"T483","display":"Intoxicação por antitussígenos"},{"code":"T484","display":"Intoxicação por expectorantes"},{"code":"T485","display":"Intoxicação por drogas anti-resfriado"},{"code":"T486","display":"Intoxicação por antiasmáticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T487","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias e as não espec. que atuam primar. sobre o aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"T49","display":"Intox p/ subst uso topico atuam pele mucosas medicams utiliz em oftalmo otorrinolaringo e odonto"},{"code":"T490","display":"Intoxicação por antifúngicos, antiinfecciosos e antiinflamat. de uso tópico, não class. noutra parte"},{"code":"T491","display":"Intoxicação por antipruriginosos"},{"code":"T492","display":"Intoxicação por adstringentes e detergentes de uso local"},{"code":"T493","display":"Intoxicação por emolientes, demulcentes e protetores"},{"code":"T494","display":"Intoxicação por ceratolíticos, ceratoplásticos e outras drogas/preparados p/ tratamento dos cabelos"},{"code":"T495","display":"Intoxicação por drogas e preparações de uso oftalmológico"},{"code":"T496","display":"Intoxicação por drogas e preparações de uso otorrinolaringológico"},{"code":"T497","display":"Intoxicação por drogas dentárias de uso tópico"},{"code":"T498","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas de uso tópico"},{"code":"T499","display":"Intoxicação por preparado de uso tópico, não especificado"},{"code":"T50","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas medicamentos e substancias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T500","display":"Intoxicação por mineralocorticóides e seus antagonistas"},{"code":"T501","display":"Intoxicação por diuréticos de alça"},{"code":"T502","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores da anidrase carbônica, benzotiazidas e outros diuréticos"},{"code":"T503","display":"Intoxicação por produtos que agem sobre o equilíbrio eletrolítico, calórico e hídrico"},{"code":"T504","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que agem sobre o metabolismo do ácido úrico"},{"code":"T505","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores do apetite"},{"code":"T506","display":"Intoxicação por antídotos e quelantes não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T507","display":"Intoxicação por analépticos e antagonistas dos receptores de opiáceos"},{"code":"T508","display":"Intoxicação por agentes de diagnóstico"},{"code":"T509","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas, medicamentos e substâncias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T51","display":"Intoxicação por efeito tóxico do álcool"},{"code":"T510","display":"Efeito tóxico do etanol"},{"code":"T511","display":"Efeito tóxico do metanol"},{"code":"T512","display":"Efeito tóxico do 2-propanol"},{"code":"T513","display":"Efeito tóxico do óleo de fusel"},{"code":"T518","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros álcoois"},{"code":"T519","display":"Efeito tóxico de álcool não especificado"},{"code":"T52","display":"Intoxicação por efeito tóxico de solventes orgânicos"},{"code":"T520","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados do petróleo"},{"code":"T521","display":"Efeito tóxico do benzeno"},{"code":"T522","display":"Efeito tóxico de homólogos do benzeno"},{"code":"T523","display":"Efeito tóxico de glicóis"},{"code":"T524","display":"Efeito tóxico de cetonas"},{"code":"T528","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros solventes orgânicos"},{"code":"T529","display":"Efeito tóxico de solvente orgânico não especificado"},{"code":"T53","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogenicos de hidrocarbonetos alifaticos e aromáticos"},{"code":"T530","display":"Efeito tóxico do tetracloreto de carbono"},{"code":"T531","display":"Efeito tóxico do clorofórmio"},{"code":"T532","display":"Efeito tóxico do tricloroetileno"},{"code":"T533","display":"Efeito tóxico do tetracloroetileno"},{"code":"T534","display":"Efeito tóxico do diclorometano"},{"code":"T535","display":"Efeito tóxico do clorofluorcarbono"},{"code":"T536","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos alifáticos"},{"code":"T537","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos aromáticos"},{"code":"T539","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos alifáticos e aromáticos não especificados"},{"code":"T54","display":"Efeito tóxico de corrosivos"},{"code":"T540","display":"Efeito tóxico do fenol e homólogos do fenol"},{"code":"T541","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros compostos corrosivos orgânicos"},{"code":"T542","display":"Efeito tóxico de ácidos corrosivos e substâncias semelhantes"},{"code":"T543","display":"Efeito tóxico de bases (álcalis) cáusticas(os) e substâncias semelhantes"},{"code":"T549","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância corrosiva não especificada"},{"code":"T55","display":"Efeito tóxico de sabões e detergentes"},{"code":"T56","display":"Efeito tóxico de metais"},{"code":"T560","display":"Efeito tóxico do chumbo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T561","display":"Efeito tóxico do mercúrio e seus compostos"},{"code":"T562","display":"Efeito tóxico do cromo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T563","display":"Efeito tóxico do cádmio e seus compostos"},{"code":"T564","display":"Efeito tóxico do cobre e seus compostos"},{"code":"T565","display":"Efeito tóxico do zinco e seus compostos"},{"code":"T566","display":"Efeito tóxico do estanho e seus compostos"},{"code":"T567","display":"Efeito tóxico do berilo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T568","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros metais"},{"code":"T569","display":"Efeito tóxico de metal, não especificado"},{"code":"T57","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias inorgânicas"},{"code":"T570","display":"Efeito tóxico do arsênico e seus compostos"},{"code":"T571","display":"Efeito tóxico do fósforo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T572","display":"Efeito tóxico do manganês e seus compostos"},{"code":"T573","display":"Efeito tóxico do cianeto de hidrogênio (ácido cianídrico)"},{"code":"T578","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias inorgânicas especificadas"},{"code":"T579","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância inorgânica não especificada"},{"code":"T58","display":"Efeito tóxico do monóxido de carbono"},{"code":"T59","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros gases fumacas e vapores"},{"code":"T590","display":"Efeito tóxico de óxidos de nitrogênio"},{"code":"T591","display":"Efeito tóxico do dióxido de enxofre"},{"code":"T592","display":"Efeito tóxico de formaldeído"},{"code":"T593","display":"Efeito tóxico do gás lacrimogêneo"},{"code":"T594","display":"Efeito tóxico do cloro gasoso"},{"code":"T595","display":"Efeito tóxico do fluoreto gasoso e ácido fluorídrico"},{"code":"T596","display":"Efeito tóxico do ácido sulfídrico"},{"code":"T597","display":"Efeito tóxico do dióxido de carbono"},{"code":"T598","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros gases, fumaças e vapores especificados"},{"code":"T599","display":"Efeito tóxico de gases, fumaças e vapores não especificados"},{"code":"T60","display":"Efeito tóxico de pesticidas"},{"code":"T600","display":"Efeito tóxico de inseticidas organofosforados e carbamatos"},{"code":"T601","display":"Efeito tóxico de inseticidas halogenados"},{"code":"T602","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros inseticidas"},{"code":"T603","display":"Efeito tóxico de herbicidas e fungicidas"},{"code":"T604","display":"Efeito tóxico de rodenticidas"},{"code":"T608","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros pesticidas"},{"code":"T609","display":"Efeito tóxico de pesticida não especificado"},{"code":"T61","display":"Efeito tóxico de substancias nocivas consumidas como fruto do mar"},{"code":"T610","display":"Intoxicação pelo peixe ciguatera"},{"code":"T611","display":"Intoxicação por peixes escombrídeos"},{"code":"T612","display":"Outras intoxicações por peixes e mariscos"},{"code":"T618","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros frutos do mar"},{"code":"T619","display":"Efeito tóxico de frutos do mar não especificados"},{"code":"T62","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias nocivas ingeridas como alimento"},{"code":"T620","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de cogumelos"},{"code":"T621","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de frutos"},{"code":"T622","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de outras (partes de) plantas"},{"code":"T628","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias nocivas ingeridas como alimento"},{"code":"T629","display":"Efeito tóxico de substâncias nocivas ingeridas como alimento, não especificadas"},{"code":"T63","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com animais venenosos"},{"code":"T630","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de serpente"},{"code":"T631","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de outros répteis"},{"code":"T632","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de escorpião"},{"code":"T633","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de aranha"},{"code":"T634","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de outros artrópodes"},{"code":"T635","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com peixe"},{"code":"T636","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com outros animais marinhos"},{"code":"T638","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com outros animais venenosos"},{"code":"T639","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com animal venenoso não especificado"},{"code":"T64","display":"Efeito tóxico da aflatoxina e de outras micotoxinas contaminantes de alimentos"},{"code":"T65","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T650","display":"Efeito tóxico de cianetos"},{"code":"T651","display":"Efeito tóxico da estricnina e seus sais"},{"code":"T652","display":"Efeito tóxico do tabaco e da nicotina"},{"code":"T653","display":"Efeito tóxico de nitroderivados e aminoderivados do benzeno e seus homólogos"},{"code":"T654","display":"Efeito tóxico do dissulfeto de carbono"},{"code":"T655","display":"Efeito tóxico da nitroglicerina e outros ácidos e ésteres nítricos"},{"code":"T656","display":"Efeito tóxico de tinturas e corantes, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T658","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias especificadas"},{"code":"T659","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância não especificada"},{"code":"T66","display":"Efeitos não especificados de radiação"},{"code":"T67","display":"Efeitos do calor e da luz"},{"code":"T670","display":"Golpe de calor e insolação"},{"code":"T671","display":"Síncope devida ao calor"},{"code":"T672","display":"Cãibras devidas ao calor"},{"code":"T673","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor e à perda hídrica"},{"code":"T674","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor e à perda de sal"},{"code":"T675","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor, sem especificação"},{"code":"T676","display":"Fadiga transitória devida ao calor"},{"code":"T677","display":"Edema devido ao calor"},{"code":"T678","display":"Outros efeitos do calor e da luz"},{"code":"T679","display":"Efeito do calor e da luz não especificado"},{"code":"T68","display":"Hipotermia"},{"code":"T69","display":"Outros efeitos da temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T690","display":"Mão e pé de imersão"},{"code":"T691","display":"Congelamento [chilblains]"},{"code":"T698","display":"Outros efeitos especificados de temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T699","display":"Efeito não especificado de temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T70","display":"Efeitos da pressão atmosferica e da pressão da água"},{"code":"T700","display":"Otite barotraumática"},{"code":"T701","display":"Sinusite barotraumática"},{"code":"T702","display":"Outros efeitos das grandes altitude e os não especificados"},{"code":"T703","display":"Mal dos caixões [doença de descompressão]"},{"code":"T704","display":"Efeito dos fluidos em alta pressão"},{"code":"T708","display":"Outros efeitos da pressão atmosférica ou da pressão da água"},{"code":"T709","display":"Efeitos não especificados da pressão atmosférica ou da pressão da água"},{"code":"T71","display":"Asfixia"},{"code":"T73","display":"Efeitos de outras privações"},{"code":"T730","display":"Efeitos da fome"},{"code":"T731","display":"Efeitos da sede"},{"code":"T732","display":"Exaustão devida às intempéries"},{"code":"T733","display":"Exaustão devido a um esforço intenso"},{"code":"T738","display":"Outros efeitos de privação"},{"code":"T739","display":"Efeito não especificado de privação"},{"code":"T74","display":"Síndromes de maus tratos"},{"code":"T740","display":"Abandono"},{"code":"T741","display":"Sevícias físicas"},{"code":"T742","display":"Abuso sexual"},{"code":"T743","display":"Abuso psicológico"},{"code":"T748","display":"Outras síndromes especificadas de maus tratos"},{"code":"T749","display":"Síndrome não especificada de maus tratos"},{"code":"T75","display":"Efeito de outras causas externas"},{"code":"T750","display":"Efeitos do raio"},{"code":"T751","display":"Afogamento e submersão não mortal"},{"code":"T752","display":"Efeitos da vibração"},{"code":"T753","display":"Doença causada pelo movimento"},{"code":"T754","display":"Efeitos da corrente elétrica"},{"code":"T758","display":"Outros efeitos especificados de causas externas"},{"code":"T78","display":"Efeitos adversos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T780","display":"Choque anafilático devido à intolerância alimentar"},{"code":"T781","display":"Outras reações de intolerância alimentar não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T782","display":"Choque anafilático não especificado"},{"code":"T783","display":"Edema angioneurótico"},{"code":"T784","display":"Alergia não especificada"},{"code":"T788","display":"Outros efeitos adversos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T789","display":"Efeito adverso não especificado"},{"code":"T79","display":"Algumas complicações precoces dos traumatismos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T790","display":"Embolia gasosa (traumática)"},{"code":"T791","display":"Embolia gordurosa (traumática)"},{"code":"T792","display":"Hemorragia traumática secundária e recidivante"},{"code":"T793","display":"Infecção pós-traumática de ferimento não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T794","display":"Choque traumático"},{"code":"T795","display":"Anúria traumática"},{"code":"T796","display":"Isquemia muscular traumática"},{"code":"T797","display":"Enfisema subcutâneo de origem traumática"},{"code":"T798","display":"Outras complicações precoces de traumatismo"},{"code":"T799","display":"Complicação precoce não especificada de traumatismo"},{"code":"T80","display":"Complicações consequentes a infusão transfusão ou injeção terapeutica"},{"code":"T800","display":"Embolia aérea subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T801","display":"Complicações vasculares subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T802","display":"Infecções subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T803","display":"Reação de incompatibilidade abo"},{"code":"T804","display":"Reação de incompatibilidade rh"},{"code":"T805","display":"Choque anafilático devido a soro"},{"code":"T806","display":"Outras reações ao soro"},{"code":"T808","display":"Outras complicações subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T809","display":"Complicação não especificada subseqüente à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T81","display":"Complicações de procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T810","display":"Hemorragia e hematoma complicando procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T811","display":"Choque durante ou resultante de procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T812","display":"Perfuração e laceração acidentais durante um procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T813","display":"Deiscência de ferida cirúrgica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T814","display":"Infecção subseqüente a procedimento não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T815","display":"Corpo estranho deixado acident. em cavidade corporal ou em ferida operatória subseq. a procedimento"},{"code":"T816","display":"Reação aguda à substância estranha deixada acidentalmente durante um procedimento"},{"code":"T817","display":"Complicações vasculares subseqüentes a um procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T818","display":"Outras complicações de procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T819","display":"Complicação não especificada de procedimento"},{"code":"T82","display":"Complicações de dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos cardiacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T820","display":"Complicação mecânica de prótese valvular cardíaca"},{"code":"T821","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivo eletrônico cardíaco"},{"code":"T822","display":"Complicação mecânica de enxerto de ponte coronária e implantes de valvas"},{"code":"T823","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros enxertos vasculares"},{"code":"T824","display":"Complicação mecânica de cateter vascular de diálise"},{"code":"T825","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros dispositivos e implantes cardiovasculares"},{"code":"T826","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatórias devidas à prótese valvular cardíaca"},{"code":"T827","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a out. disposit., implantes e enxertos cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T828","display":"Outras complicações de dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T829","display":"Complicações não especificada de dispositivo protético, implante e enxerto cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T83","display":"Complicações de dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T830","display":"Complicação mecânica de cateter (de demora) urinário"},{"code":"T831","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos e implantes urinários"},{"code":"T832","display":"Complicação mecânica de enxerto de órgão urinário"},{"code":"T833","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivo intra-uterino (anticoncepcional)"},{"code":"T834","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos do trato genital"},{"code":"T835","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida à disposit. protético, implante e enxerto no aparelho 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reação inflamatória devidas à prótese articular interna"},{"code":"T846","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devidas a dispositivo de fixação interna [qualquer local]"},{"code":"T847","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a out. disposit. protét., implantes e enxertos ortop. internos"},{"code":"T848","display":"Outras complicações de dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos ortopédicos internos"},{"code":"T849","display":"Complicação não especificada de dispositivo protético, implante e enxerto ortopédicos internos"},{"code":"T85","display":"Complicação de outros dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T850","display":"Complicação mecânica de shunt ventricular (comunicação) intracraniano"},{"code":"T851","display":"Complicação mecânica de estimulador eletrônico implantado no sistema nervoso"},{"code":"T852","display":"Complicação mecânica de lente intraocular"},{"code":"T853","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos oculares"},{"code":"T854","display":"Complicação mecânica de prótese e implante mamários"},{"code":"T855","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivos protéticos, implante e enxerto gastrointestinais"},{"code":"T856","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos internos especificados"},{"code":"T857","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a outros dispositivos protét., implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T858","display":"Outras complicações de disposit. protét., implantes e enxertos internos não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"T859","display":"Complicação não especificada de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T86","display":"Falha e rejeição de orgãos e tecidos transplantados"},{"code":"T860","display":"Rejeição a transplante de medula óssea"},{"code":"T861","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de rim"},{"code":"T862","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de coração"},{"code":"T863","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante duplo de coração e pulmão"},{"code":"T864","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de fígado"},{"code":"T868","display":"Outra insuficiência ou rejeição de outros órgãos ou tecidos transplantados"},{"code":"T869","display":"Falência e rejeição a transplante de órgão ou tecido não especificado"},{"code":"T87","display":"Complicações proprias de reimplante e amputação"},{"code":"T870","display":"Complicações de reimplante (de parte) de extremidade superior"},{"code":"T871","display":"Complicações de reimplante (de parte) de extremidade inferior"},{"code":"T872","display":"Complicações de outras partes reimplantadas do corpo"},{"code":"T873","display":"Neuroma de coto da amputação"},{"code":"T874","display":"Infecção de coto da amputação"},{"code":"T875","display":"Necrose do coto da amputação"},{"code":"T876","display":"Outras complicações e as não especificadas do coto de amputação"},{"code":"T88","display":"Outras complicações de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T880","display":"Infecção subseqüente à imunização"},{"code":"T881","display":"Outras complicações subseqüentes à imunização não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T882","display":"Choque devido à anestesia"},{"code":"T883","display":"Hipertermia maligna devida à anestesia"},{"code":"T884","display":"Entubação falha ou difícil"},{"code":"T885","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia"},{"code":"T886","display":"Choque anafilático devido a efeito adverso de droga/medicam. correto e administ. maneira apropriada"},{"code":"T887","display":"Efeito adverso não especificado de droga ou medicamento"},{"code":"T888","display":"Outras complicações de cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos especificados não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T889","display":"Complicação não especificada de cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos"},{"code":"T90","display":"Sequelas de traumatismo da cabeca"},{"code":"T900","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo superficial da cabeça"},{"code":"T901","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento da cabeça"},{"code":"T902","display":"Seqüelas de fratura de crânio e de ossos da face"},{"code":"T903","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervos cranianos"},{"code":"T904","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo do olho e da órbita"},{"code":"T905","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo intracraniano"},{"code":"T908","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados da cabeça"},{"code":"T909","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado da cabeça"},{"code":"T91","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T910","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo superficial e ferimento do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T911","display":"Seqüelas de fratura de coluna vertebral"},{"code":"T912","display":"Seqüelas de outra fratura do tórax e da pelve"},{"code":"T913","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de medula espinhal"},{"code":"T914","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de órgãos intratorácicos"},{"code":"T915","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de órgãos intra-abdominais e órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"T918","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T919","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T92","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do membro superior"},{"code":"T920","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento do membro superior"},{"code":"T921","display":"Seqüelas de fratura do braço"},{"code":"T922","display":"Seqüelas de fratura ao nível do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T923","display":"Seqüelas de luxação, entorse e distensão do membro superior"},{"code":"T924","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervo de membro superior"},{"code":"T925","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de músculo e tendão do membro superior"},{"code":"T926","display":"Seqüelas de esmagamento e amputação traumática do membro superior"},{"code":"T928","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do membro superior"},{"code":"T929","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do membro superior"},{"code":"T93","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do membro inferior"},{"code":"T930","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento do membro inferior"},{"code":"T931","display":"Seqüelas de fratura do fêmur"},{"code":"T932","display":"Seqüelas de outras fraturas do membro inferior"},{"code":"T933","display":"Seqüelas de luxação, entorse e distensão do membro inferior"},{"code":"T934","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervo do membro inferior"},{"code":"T935","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de músculo e tendão do membro inferior"},{"code":"T936","display":"Seqüelas de esmagamento e amputação traumática do membro inferior"},{"code":"T938","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do membro inferior"},{"code":"T939","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do membro inferior"},{"code":"T94","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos envolvendo multiplas regiões do corpo e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T940","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismos envolvendo regiões múltiplas do corpo"},{"code":"T941","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismos não especificados por regiões do corpo"},{"code":"T95","display":"Sequelas de queimaduras corrosões e geladuras"},{"code":"T950","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura da cabeça e pescoço"},{"code":"T951","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do tronco"},{"code":"T952","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do membro superior"},{"code":"T953","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do membro inferior"},{"code":"T954","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura e corrosão classificável só de acordo c/a extensão da área corporal envolvida"},{"code":"T958","display":"Seqüelas de outra queimadura, corrosões e geladuras especificadas"},{"code":"T959","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura de local não especificado"},{"code":"T96","display":"Seqüelas de intoxicação por drogas, medicamentos e substâncias biológicas"},{"code":"T97","display":"Seqüelas de efeitos tóxicos de substâncias de origem predominantemente não-medicinal"},{"code":"T98","display":"Outros efeitos de causas externas e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T980","display":"Seqüelas dos efeitos da penetração de corpo estranho através de orifício natural"},{"code":"T981","display":"Seqüelas em outros efeitos de causas externas e os não especificados"},{"code":"T982","display":"Seqüelas de algumas complicações precoces de traumatismos"},{"code":"T983","display":"Seqüelas de complicações dos cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"U04","display":"Síndrome respiratória aguda grave [severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS]"},{"code":"U049","display":"Síndrome respiratória aguda grave [Severe acute respiratory syndrome) [SARS], não especificada"},{"code":"U80","display":"Agente resistente à penicilina e antibióticos relacionados"},{"code":"U800","display":"Agente resistente à penicilina"},{"code":"U801","display":"Agente resistente à meticilina"},{"code":"U808","display":"Agente resistente a outro antibiótico relacionado à penicilina"},{"code":"U81","display":"Agente resistente à vancomicina e antibióticos relacionados"},{"code":"U810","display":"Agente resistente à vancomicina"},{"code":"U818","display":"Agente resistente a outros antibióticos relacionado à vancomicina"},{"code":"U88","display":"Agente resistente a múltiplos antibióticos"},{"code":"U89","display":"Agente resistente a outros antibióticos e a antibióticos não especificados"},{"code":"U898","display":"Agente resistente a outro antibiótico especificado único"},{"code":"U899","display":"Agente resistente a antibiótico não especificado"},{"code":"V01","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V010","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V011","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V019","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente não especificado se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V02","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V020","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V021","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V029","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente não especif. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V03","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro), pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V030","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V031","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V039","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V04","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou com um ônibus"},{"code":"V040","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V041","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V049","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V05","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V050","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V051","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V059","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente não especif. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V06","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V060","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V061","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V069","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V09","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em outro acidente de transporte e em acidentes de transporte não especificados"},{"code":"V090","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito, envolvendo outros veículos a motor e os não especificados"},{"code":"V091","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V092","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de trânsito envolvendo outros veículos e os não especificados, a motor"},{"code":"V093","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V099","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de transporte não especificado"},{"code":"V10","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V100","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V101","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V102","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - ciclista não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V103","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V104","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V105","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V109","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - ciclista não espec. traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V11","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V110","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - condutor traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V111","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - passageiro traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V112","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V113","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - pessoa traumat. ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V114","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V115","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - passageiro traumat. em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V119","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - ciclista ñ espec. traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V12","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V120","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V121","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V122","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V123","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V124","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V125","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V129","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V13","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel, pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V130","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V131","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V132","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V133","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V134","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V135","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - passageiro traumat. em acidente 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trânsito"},{"code":"V149","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pes. ou ônibus - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V15","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um trem ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V150","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V151","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V152","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V153","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V154","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V155","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V159","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V16","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V160","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V161","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V162","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V163","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V164","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V165","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V169","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V17","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V170","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V171","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V172","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V173","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V174","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V175","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V179","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V18","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V180","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - condutor traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V181","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - passageiro traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V182","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - ciclista ñ espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V183","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V184","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V185","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V189","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - ciclista não espec. traumat. em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V19","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em outro acidente de transporte e em acidentes de transporte não especificados"},{"code":"V190","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veículos ñ espec., a motor, em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V191","display":"Passageiro traum. em col. c/outro veíc. e c/veíc. ñ espec., a motor, em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V192","display":"Ciclista não espec. traum. em col. c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor, em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V193","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V194","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especificado., a motor, em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V195","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não especif., a motor, em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V196","display":"Ciclista não espec. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V198","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V199","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V20","display":"Motociclista traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V200","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V201","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V202","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - motocicl. não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V203","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - pessoa traumatizado ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V204","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de 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trânsito"},{"code":"V377","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V379","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. d tric. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V38","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V380","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V381","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V382","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V383","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V384","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer 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motor em acid ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V393","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V394","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V395","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V396","display":"Ocupante não espec. de tric. motor traum. em col. c/out. veíc. não espec. a motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V398","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em outros acidentes de trânsito especificados"},{"code":"V399","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado, traumatizado em acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V40","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V400","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V401","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V402","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V403","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V404","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V405","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V406","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V407","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V409","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V41","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V410","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V411","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V412","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V413","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V414","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V415","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V416","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V417","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V419","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V42","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel traumatizado em colisão c/ outro veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V420","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V421","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V422","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V423","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V424","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V425","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V426","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V427","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V429","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V43","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel, pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V430","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V431","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V432","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V433","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V434","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V435","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V436","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V437","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V439","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V44","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V440","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V441","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V442","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V443","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V444","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V445","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V446","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V447","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V449","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V45","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V450","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V451","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V452","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V453","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V454","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V455","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V456","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V457","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V459","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V46","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V460","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V461","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V462","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V463","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V464","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V465","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V466","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V467","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V469","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V47","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V470","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V471","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V472","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V473","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V474","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V475","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V476","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V477","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V479","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V48","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V480","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V481","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V482","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V483","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V484","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V485","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V486","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V487","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V489","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V49","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em outro acidentes de transporte e em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V490","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V491","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V492","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de um carro traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. a motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V493","display":"Ocupante qualquer de um carro traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V494","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V495","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V496","display":"Ocupante não espec. de um carro traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V498","display":"Ocupante de carro traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V499","display":"Ocupante de carro traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V50","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V500","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V501","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V502","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V503","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V504","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V505","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V506","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V507","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V509","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V51","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V510","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V511","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V512","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V513","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V514","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V515","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V516","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V517","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V519","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V52","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V520","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V521","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V522","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V523","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V524","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V525","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V526","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V527","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V529","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V53","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro) ou uma caminhoneta"},{"code":"V530","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V531","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V532","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V533","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V534","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V535","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V536","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V537","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V539","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V54","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V540","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V541","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V542","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V543","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V544","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V545","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V546","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V547","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V549","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V55","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V550","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V551","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V552","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V553","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V554","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V555","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V556","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V557","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V559","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V56","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V560","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V561","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V562","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V563","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V564","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V565","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V566","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V567","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V569","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V57","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V570","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V571","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V572","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V573","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V574","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V575","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V576","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V577","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V579","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V58","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V580","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V581","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V582","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V583","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V584","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V585","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V586","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V587","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V589","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V59","display":"Ocupante de caminhonete traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V590","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V591","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V592","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de um caminh. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V593","display":"Ocupante qualquer de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V594","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V595","display":"Passageiro caminhonet. traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V596","display":"Ocupante não espec. de caminhonete traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V598","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de uma caminhonete traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V599","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V60","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V600","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V601","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V602","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V603","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V604","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V605","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V606","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V607","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V609","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V61","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V610","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V611","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V612","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V613","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V614","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V615","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V616","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V617","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V619","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V62","display":"Ocupanteveículo transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/ veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V620","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V621","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V622","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V623","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V624","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V625","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V626","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V627","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V629","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V63","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/automóvel ou uma caminhonete"},{"code":"V630","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V631","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V632","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V633","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V634","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V635","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V636","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V637","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V639","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V64","display":"Ocupante veículo transporte pesado traumat colisão c/ outro veículotransporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V640","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V641","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V642","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V643","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V644","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V645","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V646","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V647","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V649","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V65","display":"Ocupante veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/ trem ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V650","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V651","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V652","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V653","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V654","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V655","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V656","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V657","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V659","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V66","display":"Ocupante de veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V660","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V661","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V662","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V663","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V664","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V665","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V666","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V667","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V669","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V67","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V670","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V671","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V672","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V673","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V674","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V675","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V676","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V677","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V679","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V68","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V680","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V681","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V682","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V683","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V684","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V685","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V686","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V687","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V689","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V69","display":"Ocup de veículo transporte pesado traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V690","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V691","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V692","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de veic. pes. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V693","display":"Ocupante de veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V694","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V695","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veículo não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V696","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veíc. transp. pesado traum. em col. c/outros veíc. a motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V698","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traum. em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V699","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traum. em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V70","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V700","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V701","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V702","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V703","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V704","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V705","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V706","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V707","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V709","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V71","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V710","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V711","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V712","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V713","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V714","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V715","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V716","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V717","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V719","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V72","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um outro veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V720","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V721","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V722","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V723","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V724","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V725","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V726","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V727","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V729","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V73","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro) ou uma caminhonete"},{"code":"V730","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V731","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V732","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V733","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V734","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V735","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V736","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V737","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V739","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V74","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V740","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V741","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V742","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V743","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V744","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V745","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V746","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V747","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V749","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V75","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V750","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V751","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V752","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V753","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V754","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V755","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V756","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V757","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V759","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V76","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V760","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V761","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V762","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V763","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V764","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V765","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V766","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V767","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V769","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V77","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V770","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V771","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V772","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V773","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V774","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V775","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V776","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V777","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V779","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V78","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V780","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V781","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V782","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V783","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V784","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V785","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V786","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V787","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V789","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V79","display":"Ocupante ônibus traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte e em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V790","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V791","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V792","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de ônibus traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V793","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V794","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V795","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veículo não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V796","display":"Ocupante não espec. de ônibus traumatizado em colisão c/outros veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V798","display":"Ocupante [ qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V799","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V80","display":"Pessoa montada em animal ou ocup deveículo atração animal traumatizado emacidente de transporte"},{"code":"V800","display":"Queda/Ejeção de pessoa montada em animal ou ocupante de veíc. tração animal em acidente sem colisão"},{"code":"V801","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V802","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V803","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veículo motor de 2/3 rodas"},{"code":"V804","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/carro, caminhonete, etc."},{"code":"V805","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veíc. motor especificado"},{"code":"V806","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/trem ou veíc. ferroviário"},{"code":"V807","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/outro veíc. não-motorizado"},{"code":"V808","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V809","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em out. acid. de transp. ñ especif."},{"code":"V81","display":"Ocupante de um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário traumatizado em um acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V810","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V811","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V812","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com ou atingido por material rodante"},{"code":"V813","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com outro objeto"},{"code":"V814","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um trem [comboio] ou de um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V815","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado devido a uma queda no interior dos mesmos"},{"code":"V816","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado devido a queda do trem ou do veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V817","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em razão de descarrilhamento s/colisão antecedente"},{"code":"V818","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em outro acidente ferroviário especificado"},{"code":"V819","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em um acidente ferroviário não especificado"},{"code":"V82","display":"Ocupante de um bonde (carro eletrico) traumatizado emum acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V820","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V821","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V822","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com ou atingido por material rodante"},{"code":"V823","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com outro objeto"},{"code":"V824","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um bonde [carro elétrico]"},{"code":"V825","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a uma queda no interior do mesmo"},{"code":"V826","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a uma queda do mesmo"},{"code":"V827","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a um descarrilhamento sem colisão antecedente"},{"code":"V828","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V829","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V83","display":"Ocupante veículo especial a motor usado em areas industriais traumatizado em acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V830","display":"Condutor de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V831","display":"Passageiro de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V832","display":"Pessoa viaj. exter. veículo especial a motor usado princ. em áreas indust. traum. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V833","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas indust. traum. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V834","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer de veículo especial a motor usado princip. em áreas industriais"},{"code":"V835","display":"Condutor de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V836","display":"Passageiro de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V837","display":"Pessoa viaj. exter. veículo especial a motor usado princ. áreas indust. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V839","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. áreas indust. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V84","display":"Ocupante veículo especial a motor de uso essencial agricola traumatizado em acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V840","display":"Condutor de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V841","display":"Passageiro de veículo especial a motor de uso essencialmente agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V842","display":"Pessoa viajando no ext. de veíc. esp. a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V843","display":"Ocupante não especif. de veíc. espec. a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V844","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um veículo especial a motor de uso essencialmente agrícola"},{"code":"V845","display":"Condutor de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V846","display":"Passageiro de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V847","display":"Pessoa viajando ext. de veíc. especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V849","display":"Ocupante não especif. de veíc. especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V85","display":"Ocupante de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de tansporte"},{"code":"V850","display":"Condutor de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V851","display":"Passageiro de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V852","display":"Pessoa viajando no exterior de veíc. a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V853","display":"Ocupante não especificado de veículo a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V854","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um veículo a motor especial de construções"},{"code":"V855","display":"Condutor de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V856","display":"Passageiro de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V857","display":"Pessoa viajando no exter. de veículo a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V859","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V86","display":"Ocup veic espec p/ qq terr ouout veic a motor proj essenc p/ uso n em via publ traumat acid transp"},{"code":"V860","display":"Condutor veíc. espec. p/qq. terreno/veíc. motor proj. essenc. p/ñ uso via púb. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V861","display":"Passag. veíc. espec. p/qq. terreno/veíc. motor proj. essenc. p/ñ uso via púb. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V862","display":"Pessoa viaj ext veíc espec p/qq terreno/veíc motor proj essenc p/ñ uso via púb traum acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V863","display":"Ocupante ñ espec veíc espec p/qq terreno/veíc motor proj essenc p/ñ uso via púb traum acid trânsito"},{"code":"V864","display":"Pessoa traum subir/descer 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escolas, out. inst. e área de adm. públ."},{"code":"Y263","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - área para prát. de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y264","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - rua e estrada"},{"code":"Y265","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y266","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y267","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - fazenda"},{"code":"Y268","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - outros locais especificados"},{"code":"Y269","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - local não especificado"},{"code":"Y27","display":"Exposição a vapor de água gases ou objetos quentes intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y270","display":"Exposição a vapor dágua, gases ou 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especificado"},{"code":"Y28","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y280","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - residência"},{"code":"Y281","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - habitação coletiva"},{"code":"Y282","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - escolas, outras instit. e áreas de administração pública"},{"code":"Y283","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - área para a prática de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y284","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - rua e estrada"},{"code":"Y285","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y286","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y287","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - fazenda"},{"code":"Y288","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - outros locais 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áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y316","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y317","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - fazenda"},{"code":"Y318","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - outros locais especificados"},{"code":"Y319","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - local não especificado"},{"code":"Y32","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y320","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - residência"},{"code":"Y321","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - habitação coletiva"},{"code":"Y322","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - escolas, outras instit. e áreas de administração pública"},{"code":"Y323","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - área para a prática de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y324","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - rua e 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biológicas"},{"code":"Y367","display":"Operações de guerra envolvendo armas químicas e outros meios de combate não-convencionais"},{"code":"Y368","display":"Operações de guerra ocorridas após a cessação das hostilidades"},{"code":"Y369","display":"Operações de guerra não especificadas"},{"code":"Y40","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibióticos sistemicos"},{"code":"Y400","display":"Efeitos adversos de penicilinas"},{"code":"Y401","display":"Efeitos adversos de cefalosporinas e outras betalactaminas"},{"code":"Y402","display":"Efeitos adversos do grupo do cloranfenicol"},{"code":"Y403","display":"Efeitos adversos de macrolídeos"},{"code":"Y404","display":"Efeitos adversos de tetraciclinas"},{"code":"Y405","display":"Efeitos adversos de aminoglicosídeos"},{"code":"Y406","display":"Efeitos adversos de rifamicinas"},{"code":"Y407","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibióticos antifúngicos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"Y408","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antibióticos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"Y409","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibiótico sistêmico, não especificado"},{"code":"Y41","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistemicos"},{"code":"Y410","display":"Efeitos adversos de sulfonamidas"},{"code":"Y411","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antimicobacterianas"},{"code":"Y412","display":"Efeitos adversos de antimaláricos e drogas que atuam sobre outros protozoários parasitas do sangue"},{"code":"Y413","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas antiprotozoárias"},{"code":"Y414","display":"Efeitos adversos de anti-helmínticos"},{"code":"Y415","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antivirais"},{"code":"Y418","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários especificados"},{"code":"Y419","display":"Efeitos adversos de antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"Y42","display":"Efeitos adversos de hormonios e seus substitutos sintéticos e antagonistas ncop"},{"code":"Y420","display":"Efeitos adversos de glicocorticóides e análogos sintéticos"},{"code":"Y421","display":"Efeitos adversos de hormônios e substitutos da tireóide"},{"code":"Y422","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antitireoidianas"},{"code":"Y423","display":"Efeitos adversos de insulina e hipoglicêmicos orais (antidiabéticos)"},{"code":"Y424","display":"Efeitos adversos de anticoncepcionais [contraceptivos] orais"},{"code":"Y425","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros estrógenos e progestágenos"},{"code":"Y426","display":"Efeitos adversos de antigonadotrofinas, antiestrógenos e antiandrógenos, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y427","display":"Efeitos adversos de andrógenos e anabolizantes congêneres"},{"code":"Y428","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros hormônios e os não especificados e seus substitutos sintéticos"},{"code":"Y429","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antagonistas hormonais e os não especificados"},{"code":"Y43","display":"Efeitos 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tetracíclicos"},{"code":"Y491","display":"Efeitos adversos de antidepressivos inibidores da mono-amino-oxidase"},{"code":"Y492","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antidepressivos e os não especificados"},{"code":"Y493","display":"Efeitos adversos de antipsicóticos e neurolépticos fenotiazínicos"},{"code":"Y494","display":"Efeitos adversos de neurolépticos a base da butirofenona e do tioxanteno"},{"code":"Y495","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antipsicóticos e neurolépticos"},{"code":"Y496","display":"Efeitos adversos de psicodislépticos [alucinógenos]"},{"code":"Y497","display":"Efeitos adversos de psicoestimulantes que podem provocar dependência"},{"code":"Y498","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias psicotrópicas, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y499","display":"Efeitos adversos de substância psicotrópica, não especificada"},{"code":"Y50","display":"Efeitos adversos de estimulantes do sistema nervoso central não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y500","display":"Efeitos adversos de analépticos"},{"code":"Y501","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas de receptores dos opiáceos"},{"code":"Y502","display":"Efeitos adversos de metilxantinas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y508","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros estimulantes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"Y509","display":"Efeitos adversos de estimulante do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"Y51","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas que atuam primáriamente sobre o sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"Y510","display":"Efeitos adversos de agentes anticolinesterásicos"},{"code":"Y511","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros parasimpaticomiméticos [colinérgicos]"},{"code":"Y512","display":"Efeitos adversos de ganglioplégicos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y513","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros parassimpaticolíticos e espasmolíticos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y514","display":"Efeitos adversos de agonistas predominantemente alfa-adrenorreceptores, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y515","display":"Efeitos adversos de agonistas predominantemente beta-adrenorreceptores, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y516","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas alfa-adrenorreceptores, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y517","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas beta-adrenorreceptores, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y518","display":"Efeitos adversos de bloqueadores nervosos de ação central e adrenérgicos, não classif. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y519","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam primar. s/ o sist. nerv. autônomo e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y52","display":"Efeitos adversos de substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho cardiovascular"},{"code":"Y520","display":"Efeitos adversos de glicosídeos estimulantes do coração e substâncias de ação semelhante"},{"code":"Y521","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas do cálcio [inibidores do cálcio]"},{"code":"Y522","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas antidisrrítmicas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y523","display":"Efeitos adversos de vasodilatadores coronarianos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y524","display":"Efeitos adversos de inibidores da enzima de conversão da angiotensina"},{"code":"Y525","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas anti-hipertensivas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y526","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas anti-hiperlipidêmicas e antiarterioscleróticas"},{"code":"Y527","display":"Efeitos adversos de vasodilatadores periféricos"},{"code":"Y528","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antivaricosas, incluindo os agentes esclerosantes"},{"code":"Y529","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam primar. s/o apar. cardiovascular e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y53","display":"Efeitos adversos de substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelhogastrointestinal"},{"code":"Y530","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas dos receptores h2 da histamina"},{"code":"Y531","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros medicamentos antiácidos e anti-secreção gástrica"},{"code":"Y532","display":"Efeitos adversos de laxativos estimulantes"},{"code":"Y533","display":"Efeitos adversos de laxativos salinos e osmóticos"},{"code":"Y534","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros laxativos"},{"code":"Y535","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos que facilitam a digestão"},{"code":"Y536","display":"Efeitos adversos de antidiarréicos"},{"code":"Y537","display":"Efeitos adversos de eméticos"},{"code":"Y538","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias que atuam primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"Y539","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias que atuam primar. s/o aparelho gastrointestinal, não especificadas"},{"code":"Y54","display":"Efeit adverso subst que atuam primáriamente sobre metabolismo da água sais minerais eácido urico"},{"code":"Y540","display":"Efeitos adversos de mineralocorticóides"},{"code":"Y541","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas dos mineralocorticóides [antagonistas da aldosterona]"},{"code":"Y542","display":"Efeitos adversos de inibidores da anidrase carbônica"},{"code":"Y543","display":"Efeitos adversos de derivados da benzotiadiazína"},{"code":"Y544","display":"Efeitos adversos de diuréticos de alça"},{"code":"Y545","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros diuréticos"},{"code":"Y546","display":"Efeitos adversos de agentes que atuam sobre o equilíbrio eletrolítico, calórico e hídrico"},{"code":"Y547","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos que atuam sobre o metabolismo de cálcio"},{"code":"Y548","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas que atuam sobre o metabolismo de ácido úrico"},{"code":"Y549","display":"Efeitos adversos de sais minerais não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y55","display":"Efeito adverso subst que atuam primáriamente músculos lisos e esqueléticos o aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Y550","display":"Efeitos adversos de ocitócicos"},{"code":"Y551","display":"Efeitos adversos de relaxantes da muscul. esquelética [bloqueadores neuromusculares] [curarizantes]"},{"code":"Y552","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias que atuam primar. sobre os músculos e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y553","display":"Efeitos adversos de antitússicos"},{"code":"Y554","display":"Efeitos adversos de expectorantes"},{"code":"Y555","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas anti-resfriado comum"},{"code":"Y556","display":"Efeitos adversos de antiasmáticos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y559","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam sobre o aparelho respiratório e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y56","display":"Ef adv subst uso topicoatuam pele e memb mucosa drogas de uso oftalmol otorrinolaringol e dentário"},{"code":"Y560","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antifúng., antiinfec. e antiinflam. de uso local, ñ class. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y561","display":"Efeitos adversos de antipruriginosos"},{"code":"Y562","display":"Efeitos adversos de adstringentes e detergentes locais"},{"code":"Y563","display":"Efeitos adversos de emolientes, suavizantes e protetores da pele"},{"code":"Y564","display":"Efeitos adversos de ceratolíticos, ceratoplásticos e outros medicamentos e preparações capilares"},{"code":"Y565","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos e preparações de uso oftalmológico"},{"code":"Y566","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos e preparações usados em otorrinolaringologia"},{"code":"Y567","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas de uso dentário aplicadas topicamente"},{"code":"Y568","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias de uso tópico"},{"code":"Y569","display":"Efeitos adversos de substância não especificada de uso tópico"},{"code":"Y57","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas e medicamentos e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y570","display":"Efeitos adversos de depressores do apetite [anoréxicos]"},{"code":"Y571","display":"Efeitos adversos de lipotrópicos"},{"code":"Y572","display":"Efeitos adversos de antídotos e agentes quelantes, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y573","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias para restringir a ingestão de álcool"},{"code":"Y574","display":"Efeitos adversos de excipientes farmacêuticos"},{"code":"Y575","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias utilizadas como contraste em radiologia"},{"code":"Y576","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias para fins diagnósticos"},{"code":"Y577","display":"Efeitos adversos de vitaminas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y578","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas e medicamentos"},{"code":"Y579","display":"Efeitos adversos de droga e medicamento não especificado"},{"code":"Y58","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas bactérianas"},{"code":"Y580","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina bcg"},{"code":"Y581","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antitifoídica e antiparafoídica"},{"code":"Y582","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina anticolérica"},{"code":"Y583","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antipeste"},{"code":"Y584","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antitetânica"},{"code":"Y585","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antidiftérica"},{"code":"Y586","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antipertussis, incl. as combin. em que um dos component. é antipertussis"},{"code":"Y588","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas bacter. mistas, exceto as combin. em que um dos compon. é antipertussis"},{"code":"Y589","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas bacterianas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y59","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas e substancias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y590","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antivirais"},{"code":"Y591","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas anti-rickettsias"},{"code":"Y592","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antiprotozoários"},{"code":"Y593","display":"Efeitos adversos da imunoglobulina"},{"code":"Y598","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas e substâncias biológicas especificadas"},{"code":"Y599","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacina ou substância biológica, não especificada"},{"code":"Y60","display":"Corte punção perfuração ou hemorragia acidental durante prestação de cuidados medicos ou cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y600","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y601","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y602","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y603","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y604","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y605","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y606","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. aspir.,punção ou outro tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y607","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante a administração de enema"},{"code":"Y608","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. a prest. outros cuidados cirúrg. e médicos"},{"code":"Y609","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. a prest. cuidado cirúrg. e médico, ñ espec."},{"code":"Y61","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante a prestação de cuidados cirurgicos e medicos"},{"code":"Y610","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y611","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y612","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y613","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y614","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y615","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y616","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante aspir., punção ou out. tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y617","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante a extração de um cateter ou de compressas"},{"code":"Y618","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante prest. de outro cuidado cirúrgico e médico"},{"code":"Y619","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante prest. cuidado cirúr./médico ñ especificados"},{"code":"Y62","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de cuidadoscirurgicos e medicos"},{"code":"Y620","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y621","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y622","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y623","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y624","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y625","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y626","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante aspiração, punção ou outro tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y628","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de outro cuidado cirúrgico e médico"},{"code":"Y629","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de cuidado cirúrgico e médico não especificados"},{"code":"Y63","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y630","display":"Administração de quantidade excessiva de sangue ou de um outro líquido durante transfusão ou infusão"},{"code":"Y631","display":"Diluição incorreta de líquido usado durante a infusão"},{"code":"Y632","display":"Superdosagem de radiação administrada durante a terapia"},{"code":"Y633","display":"Exposição inadvertida de paciente a radiação durante a prestação de cuidado médico"},{"code":"Y634","display":"Erro de dosagem na terapia por eletrochoque ou choque insulínico"},{"code":"Y635","display":"Temperatura inadequada durante aplicação local ou curativo"},{"code":"Y636","display":"Não administração de droga, medicamento ou substância biológica necessária"},{"code":"Y638","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de outro cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y639","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de cuidados médico e cirúrgico, não especificados"},{"code":"Y64","display":"Acidente por medicamentos ou substancias biológicas contaminados"},{"code":"Y640","display":"Transfusão ou infusão de medicamento ou substância biológica contaminados"},{"code":"Y641","display":"Injeção ou vacinação com medicamento ou substância biológica contaminados"},{"code":"Y648","display":"Administração por outros meios de medicamento ou substância biológicas contaminados"},{"code":"Y649","display":"Medicamento e substância biológica contaminados, administrada por meios não especificados"},{"code":"Y65","display":"Acidente por outros acidentes durante a prestação de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y650","display":"Uso de sangue incompatível em transfusão"},{"code":"Y651","display":"Uso de líquido errado em infusão"},{"code":"Y652","display":"Falha de sutura ou de ligadura durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y653","display":"Cânula endotraqueal mal posicionada durante procedimento anestésico"},{"code":"Y654","display":"Falha na introdução ou na remoção de outras cânulas ou instrumentos"},{"code":"Y655","display":"Realização de uma operação inapropriada"},{"code":"Y658","display":"Outros acidentes especificados durante a prestação de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y66","display":"Não administração de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y69","display":"Acidente não especificado durante a prestação de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y70","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) de anestesiologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y700","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y701","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y702","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y703","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y708","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y71","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) cardiovasculares associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y710","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y711","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y712","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y713","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y718","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y72","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em otorrinolaringologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y720","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y721","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y722","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - prótes. e implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y723","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. sutura)"},{"code":"Y728","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class noutra parte"},{"code":"Y73","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) usados em gastroenterologia e em urologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y730","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y731","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y732","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y733","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y738","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y74","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) gerais de uso hospitalar ou pessoal associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y740","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y741","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y742","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y743","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y748","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y75","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em neurologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y750","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y751","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y752","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y753","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y758","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y76","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em obstetricia eem ginecologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y760","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y761","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y762","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y763","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y768","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y77","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em oftalmologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y770","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y771","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y772","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y773","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y778","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y78","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em radiologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y780","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y781","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y782","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y783","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y788","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y79","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) ortopedicos associado a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y790","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y791","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y792","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y793","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y798","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y80","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em medicina fisica (fisiatria) associado a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y800","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y801","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y802","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y803","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y808","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y81","display":"Dispositivos utilizados em cirurgia geral ou cirurgia plastica associados a incidente adversos"},{"code":"Y810","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y811","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y812","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - prót. e out. implantes,incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y813","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - instrum.,mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. 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!-- Narrative removed -->
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histológica"},{"code":"A167","display":"Tuberculosa respiratória primária sem menção de confirmação bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A168","display":"Outras formas de tubercul. das vias respirat., sem menção de confirm. bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A169","display":"Tuberculose respiratória, não especificada, sem menção de confirmação bacteriológica ou histológica"},{"code":"A17","display":"Meningite tuberculosa"},{"code":"A170","display":"Meningite tuberculosa"},{"code":"A171","display":"Tuberculoma meníngeo"},{"code":"A178","display":"Outras tuberculoses do sistema nervoso"},{"code":"A179","display":"Tuberculose não especificada do sistema nervoso"},{"code":"A18","display":"Tuberculose de outros orgãos"},{"code":"A180","display":"Tuberculose óssea e das articulações"},{"code":"A181","display":"Tuberculose do aparelho geniturinário"},{"code":"A182","display":"Linfadenopatia tuberculosa periférica"},{"code":"A183","display":"Tuberculose do intestino, do peritônio e 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trematódeo"},{"code":"B67","display":"Equinococose"},{"code":"B670","display":"Infestação hepática por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B671","display":"Infestação pulmonar por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B672","display":"Infestação óssea por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B673","display":"Infestações por Echinmococcus Granulosus, outras e de localizações múltiplas"},{"code":"B674","display":"Infestação não especificada por Echinococcus Granulosus"},{"code":"B675","display":"Infestação hepática por Echinococcus Multilocularis"},{"code":"B676","display":"Infecções por Echinococcus Multilocularis, outras e de localizações múltiplas"},{"code":"B677","display":"Infestação não especificada por Echinococcus Multilocularis"},{"code":"B678","display":"Infestação hepática não especificada, por Echinococcus"},{"code":"B679","display":"Infestações por Echinococcus, outras e as não especificadas"},{"code":"B68","display":"Infestação por taenia"},{"code":"B680","display":"Infestação por Taenia Solium"},{"code":"B681","display":"Infestação por Taenia Saginata"},{"code":"B689","display":"Infestação não especificada por taenia"},{"code":"B69","display":"Cisticercose"},{"code":"B690","display":"Cisticercose do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"B691","display":"Cisticercose do olho"},{"code":"B698","display":"Cisticercose de outras localizações"},{"code":"B699","display":"Cisticercose não especificada"},{"code":"B70","display":"Difilobotriase e esparganose"},{"code":"B700","display":"Difilobotríase"},{"code":"B701","display":"Esparganose"},{"code":"B71","display":"Outras infestações por cestóides"},{"code":"B710","display":"Infestação por Hymenolepis"},{"code":"B711","display":"Infestação por Dipylidium"},{"code":"B718","display":"Outras infestações especificadas por cestóides"},{"code":"B719","display":"Infestação não especificada por cestóides"},{"code":"B72","display":"Dracontíase"},{"code":"B73","display":"Oncocercose"},{"code":"B74","display":"Filáriose"},{"code":"B740","display":"Filariose por Wuchereria Bancrofti"},{"code":"B741","display":"Filariose por Brugia Malayi"},{"code":"B742","display":"Filariose por Brugia Timori"},{"code":"B743","display":"Loaíase"},{"code":"B744","display":"Mansonelose"},{"code":"B748","display":"Outras filarioses"},{"code":"B749","display":"Filariose não especificada"},{"code":"B75","display":"Triquinose"},{"code":"B76","display":"Ancilostomiase"},{"code":"B760","display":"Ancilostomose"},{"code":"B761","display":"Necatoríase"},{"code":"B768","display":"Outras ancilostomíases"},{"code":"B769","display":"Ancilostomíase não especificada"},{"code":"B77","display":"Ascaridiase"},{"code":"B770","display":"Ascaridíase com complicações intestinais"},{"code":"B778","display":"Ascaridíase com outras complicações"},{"code":"B779","display":"Ascaridíase não especificada"},{"code":"B78","display":"Estrongiloidiase"},{"code":"B780","display":"Estrongiloidíase intestinal"},{"code":"B781","display":"Estrongiloidíase cutânea"},{"code":"B787","display":"Estrongiloidíase disseminada"},{"code":"B789","display":"Estrongiloidíase não especificada"},{"code":"B79","display":"Tricuríase"},{"code":"B80","display":"Oxiuríase"},{"code":"B81","display":"Outras helmintiases intestinais não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"B810","display":"Anisaquíase"},{"code":"B811","display":"Capilaríase intestinal"},{"code":"B812","display":"Tricostrongilose"},{"code":"B813","display":"Angiostrongilíase intestinal"},{"code":"B814","display":"Helmintíases intestinais mistas"},{"code":"B818","display":"Outras helmintíases intestinais especificadas"},{"code":"B82","display":"Parasitose intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B820","display":"Helmintíase intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B829","display":"Parasitose intestinal não especificada"},{"code":"B83","display":"Outras helmintiases"},{"code":"B830","display":"Larva Migrans visceral"},{"code":"B831","display":"Gnatostomíase"},{"code":"B832","display":"Angrostrongilíase devida a Parastrongylus cantonensis"},{"code":"B833","display":"Singamose"},{"code":"B834","display":"Hirudiníase Interna"},{"code":"B838","display":"Outras Helmintíases especificadas"},{"code":"B839","display":"Helmintíase não especificada"},{"code":"B85","display":"Pediculose e ftiriase"},{"code":"B850","display":"Pediculose devida a Pediculus Humanus Capitis"},{"code":"B851","display":"Pediculose devida a Pediculus Humanus Corporis"},{"code":"B852","display":"Pediculose não especificada"},{"code":"B853","display":"Ftiríase"},{"code":"B854","display":"Pediculose e Ftiríase mista"},{"code":"B86","display":"Escabiose [sarna]"},{"code":"B87","display":"Miiase"},{"code":"B870","display":"Miíase cutânea"},{"code":"B871","display":"Miíase das feridas"},{"code":"B872","display":"Miíase ocular"},{"code":"B873","display":"Miíase nasofaríngea"},{"code":"B874","display":"Miíase auricular"},{"code":"B878","display":"Miíase de outras localizações"},{"code":"B879","display":"Miíase não especificada"},{"code":"B88","display":"Outras infestações"},{"code":"B880","display":"Outras acaríases"},{"code":"B881","display":"Tungíase [infestação pela pulga da areia]"},{"code":"B882","display":"Outras infestações por artrópodos"},{"code":"B883","display":"Hirudiníase externa"},{"code":"B888","display":"Outras infestações especificadas"},{"code":"B889","display":"Infestação não especificada"},{"code":"B89","display":"Doença parasitária não especificada"},{"code":"B90","display":"Sequelas de tuberculose"},{"code":"B900","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"B901","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose geniturinária"},{"code":"B902","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose óssea e das articulações"},{"code":"B908","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose de outros órgãos"},{"code":"B909","display":"Seqüelas de tuberculose das vias respiratórias e de órgãos não especificados"},{"code":"B91","display":"Seqüelas de poliomielite"},{"code":"B92","display":"Seqüelas de hanseníase [lepra]"},{"code":"B94","display":"Sequelas de doenças infecciosas e parasitáriase das não especificadas"},{"code":"B940","display":"Seqüelas de tracoma"},{"code":"B941","display":"Seqüelas de encefalite viral"},{"code":"B942","display":"Seqüelas de hepatite viral"},{"code":"B948","display":"Seqüelas de outras doenças infecciosas e parasitárias especificadas"},{"code":"B949","display":"Seqüelas de doença infecciosa ou parasitária não especificada"},{"code":"B95","display":"Estreptococos e estafilococos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B950","display":"Estreptococo do grupo A, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B951","display":"Estreptococo do grupo B, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B952","display":"Estreptococo do grupo D, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B953","display":"Streptococcus Pneumoniae, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B954","display":"Outros estreptococos, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B955","display":"Estreptococo não especificado, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B956","display":"Staphylococcus Aureus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B957","display":"Outros estafilococos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B958","display":"Estafilococo não especificado, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B96","display":"Outros agentes bactérianos como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B960","display":"Mycoplasma Pneumoniae [m. pneumoniae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B961","display":"Klebsiella Pneumoniae [m. pneumoniae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B962","display":"Escherichia Coli [e. coli], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B963","display":"Haemophilus Influenzae [h. influenzae], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B964","display":"Proteus (Mirabilis) (Morganii), como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B965","display":"Pseudomonas (Aeruginosa, Mallei, Pseudomallei), como causa de doenças classif. em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B966","display":"Bacillus Fragilis [B. Fragilis], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B967","display":"Clostridium Perfringens [C. Perfringens], como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B968","display":"Outros agentes bacterianos especificados, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B97","display":"vírus como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capitulos"},{"code":"B970","display":"Adenovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B971","display":"Enterovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B972","display":"Coronavírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B973","display":"Retrovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B974","display":"Vírus sincicial respiratório, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B975","display":"Reovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B976","display":"Parvovírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B977","display":"Papilomavírus, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B978","display":"Outros agentes virais, como causa de doenças classificadas em outros capítulos"},{"code":"B99","display":"Doenças infecciosas, outras e as não especificadas"},{"code":"C00","display":"Neoplasia malígna do lábio"},{"code":"C000","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio superior externo"},{"code":"C001","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio inferior externo"},{"code":"C002","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio externo, não especificado"},{"code":"C003","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio superior, face interna"},{"code":"C004","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio inferior, face interna"},{"code":"C005","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, sem especificação, face interna"},{"code":"C006","display":"Neoplasia maligna da comissura labial"},{"code":"C008","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C009","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, não especificado"},{"code":"C01","display":"Neoplasia maligna da base da língua"},{"code":"C02","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da língua"},{"code":"C020","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face dorsal da língua"},{"code":"C021","display":"Neoplasia maligna da borda da língua"},{"code":"C022","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face ventral da língua"},{"code":"C023","display":"Neoplasia maligna de dois terços anteriores da língua, parte não especificada"},{"code":"C024","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala lingual"},{"code":"C028","display":"Neoplasia maligna da língua com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C029","display":"Neoplasia maligna da língua, não especificada"},{"code":"C03","display":"Neoplasia malígna da gengiva"},{"code":"C030","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva superior"},{"code":"C031","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva inferior"},{"code":"C039","display":"Neoplasia maligna da gengiva, não especificada"},{"code":"C04","display":"Neoplasia malígna do assoalho da boca"},{"code":"C040","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho anterior da boca"},{"code":"C041","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho lateral da boca"},{"code":"C048","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho da boca com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C049","display":"Neoplasia maligna do assoalho da boca, não especificado"},{"code":"C05","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato"},{"code":"C050","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato duro"},{"code":"C051","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato mole"},{"code":"C052","display":"Neoplasia maligna da úvula"},{"code":"C058","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C059","display":"Neoplasia maligna do palato, não especificado"},{"code":"C06","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da boca"},{"code":"C060","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mucosa oral"},{"code":"C061","display":"Neoplasia maligna do vestíbulo da boca"},{"code":"C062","display":"Neoplasia maligna da área retromolar"},{"code":"C068","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da boca com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C069","display":"Neoplasia maligna da boca, não especificada"},{"code":"C07","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula parótida"},{"code":"C08","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras glândulas salivares maiores e as não especificadas"},{"code":"C080","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula submandibular"},{"code":"C081","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula sublingual"},{"code":"C088","display":"Neoplasia maligna das glândulas salivares maiores com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C089","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula salivar maior, não especificada"},{"code":"C09","display":"Neoplasia malígna da amigdala"},{"code":"C090","display":"Neoplasia maligna da fossa amigdaliana"},{"code":"C091","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pilar amigdaliano (anterior) (posterior)"},{"code":"C098","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C099","display":"Neoplasia maligna da amígdala, não especificada"},{"code":"C10","display":"Neoplasia malígna da orofaringe"},{"code":"C100","display":"Neoplasia maligna da valécula"},{"code":"C101","display":"Neoplasia maligna da face anterior da epiglote"},{"code":"C102","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da orofaringe"},{"code":"C103","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da orofaringe"},{"code":"C104","display":"Neoplasia maligna da fenda branquial"},{"code":"C108","display":"Neoplasia maligna da orofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C109","display":"Neoplasia maligna da orofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C11","display":"Neoplasia malígna da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C110","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede superior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C111","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C112","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C113","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede anterior da nasofaringe"},{"code":"C118","display":"Neoplasia maligna da nasofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C119","display":"Neoplasia maligna da nasofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C12","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio piriforme"},{"code":"C13","display":"Neoplasia malígna da hipofaringe"},{"code":"C130","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região pós-cricóidea"},{"code":"C131","display":"Neoplasia maligna da prega ariepiglótica, face hipofaríngea"},{"code":"C132","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da hipofaringe"},{"code":"C138","display":"Neoplasia maligna da hipofaringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C139","display":"Neoplasia maligna da hipofaringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C14","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizaçõeslocalizações mal definid lábio cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"C140","display":"Neoplasia maligna da faringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C142","display":"Neoplasia maligna do anel de waldeyer"},{"code":"C148","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lábio, cavidade oral e faringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C15","display":"Neoplasia malígna do esôfago"},{"code":"C150","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção cervical do esôfago (esôfago cervical)"},{"code":"C151","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção torácica do esôfago (esôfago torácico)"},{"code":"C152","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção abdominal do esôfago (esôfago abdominal)"},{"code":"C153","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço superior do esôfago"},{"code":"C154","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço médio do esôfago"},{"code":"C155","display":"Neoplasia maligna do terço inferior do esôfago"},{"code":"C158","display":"Neoplasia maligna do esôfago com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C159","display":"Neoplasia maligna do esôfago, não especificado"},{"code":"C16","display":"Neoplasia malígna do estomago"},{"code":"C160","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cárdia"},{"code":"C161","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fundo do estômago"},{"code":"C162","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do estômago"},{"code":"C163","display":"Neoplasia maligna do antro pilórico"},{"code":"C164","display":"Neoplasia maligna do piloro"},{"code":"C165","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pequena curvatura do estômago, não especificada"},{"code":"C166","display":"Neoplasia maligna da grande curvatura do estômago, não especificada"},{"code":"C168","display":"Neoplasia maligna do estômago com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C169","display":"Neoplasia maligna do estômago, não especificado"},{"code":"C17","display":"Neoplasia malígna do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C170","display":"Neoplasia maligna do duodeno"},{"code":"C171","display":"Neoplasia maligna do jejuno"},{"code":"C172","display":"Neoplasia maligna do íleo"},{"code":"C173","display":"Neoplasia maligna do divertículo de meckel"},{"code":"C178","display":"Neoplasia maligna do intestino delgado com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C179","display":"Neoplasia maligna do intestino delgado, não especificado"},{"code":"C18","display":"Neoplasia malígna do colon"},{"code":"C180","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ceco"},{"code":"C181","display":"Neoplasia maligna do apêndice (vermiforme)"},{"code":"C182","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon ascendente"},{"code":"C183","display":"Neoplasia maligna da flexura (ângulo) hepática(o)"},{"code":"C184","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon transverso"},{"code":"C185","display":"Neoplasia maligna da flexura (ângulo) esplênica(o)"},{"code":"C186","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon descendente"},{"code":"C187","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon sigmóide"},{"code":"C188","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C189","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cólon, não especificado"},{"code":"C19","display":"Neoplasia maligna da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"C20","display":"Neoplasia maligna do reto"},{"code":"C21","display":"Neoplasia malígna do anûs e do canal anal"},{"code":"C210","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ânus, não especificado"},{"code":"C211","display":"Neoplasia maligna do canal anal"},{"code":"C212","display":"Neoplasia maligna da zona cloacogênica"},{"code":"C218","display":"Neoplasia maligna do reto, ânus e do canal anal com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C22","display":"Neoplasia malígna do fígado e das vias biliares intra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C220","display":"Carcinoma de células hepáticas"},{"code":"C221","display":"Carcinoma de vias biliares intra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C222","display":"Hepatoblastoma"},{"code":"C223","display":"Angiossarcoma do fígado"},{"code":"C224","display":"Outros sarcomas do fígado"},{"code":"C227","display":"Outros carcinomas especificados do fígado"},{"code":"C229","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fígado, não especificada"},{"code":"C23","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"C24","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes e de partes não especificadas das vias biliares"},{"code":"C240","display":"Neoplasia maligna das vias biliares extra-hepáticas"},{"code":"C241","display":"Neoplasia maligna da ampola de vater"},{"code":"C248","display":"Neoplasia maligna das vias biliares com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C249","display":"Neoplasia maligna da via biliar, não especificada"},{"code":"C25","display":"Neoplasia malígna do pâncreas"},{"code":"C250","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cabeça do pâncreas"},{"code":"C251","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do pâncreas"},{"code":"C252","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cauda do pâncreas"},{"code":"C253","display":"Neoplasia maligna do canal pancreático"},{"code":"C254","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas endócrino"},{"code":"C257","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes do pâncreas"},{"code":"C258","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C259","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pâncreas, não especificado"},{"code":"C26","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos digestivos e de localizações mal definidas no aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"C260","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trato intestinal, parte não especificada"},{"code":"C261","display":"Neoplasia maligna do baço"},{"code":"C268","display":"Neoplasia maligna do aparelho digestivo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C269","display":"Neoplasia maligna de localizações mal definidas dentro do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"C30","display":"Neoplasia malígna da cavidade nasal e do ouvido médio"},{"code":"C300","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cavidade nasal"},{"code":"C301","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ouvido médio"},{"code":"C31","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos seios da face"},{"code":"C310","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio maxilar"},{"code":"C311","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio etmoidal"},{"code":"C312","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio frontal"},{"code":"C313","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio esfenoidal"},{"code":"C318","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos seios da face com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C319","display":"Neoplasia maligna do seio da face, não especificado"},{"code":"C32","display":"Neoplasia malígna da laringe"},{"code":"C320","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glote"},{"code":"C321","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região supraglótica"},{"code":"C322","display":"Neoplasia maligna da região subglótica"},{"code":"C323","display":"Neoplasia maligna das cartilagens da laringe"},{"code":"C328","display":"Neoplasia maligna da laringe com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C329","display":"Neoplasia maligna da laringe, não especificada"},{"code":"C33","display":"Neoplasia maligna da traquéia"},{"code":"C34","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos bronquios e dos pulmões"},{"code":"C340","display":"Neoplasia maligna do brônquio principal"},{"code":"C341","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo superior, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C342","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo médio, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C343","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo inferior, brônquio ou pulmão"},{"code":"C348","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos brônquios e dos pulmões com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C349","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos brônquios ou pulmões, não especificado"},{"code":"C37","display":"Neoplasia maligna do timo"},{"code":"C38","display":"Neoplasia malígna do coração mediastino e pleura"},{"code":"C380","display":"Neoplasia maligna do coração"},{"code":"C381","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino anterior"},{"code":"C382","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino posterior"},{"code":"C383","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mediastino, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C384","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pleura"},{"code":"C388","display":"Neoplasia maligna do coração, mediastino e pleura com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C39","display":"Neoplasia malígna out localização de localização mal def aparelho respiratório orgão intratoracico"},{"code":"C390","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trato respiratório superior, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C398","display":"Neoplasia maligna do aparelho respiratório e dos órgãos intratorácicos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C399","display":"Neoplasia maligna de localizações mal definidas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"C40","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares dos membros"},{"code":"C400","display":"Neoplasia maligna da omoplata [escápula] e ossos longos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"C401","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos curtos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"C402","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos longos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"C403","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos curtos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"C408","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares dos membros com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C409","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares de membro não especificado"},{"code":"C41","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizações e de localizações não especificadas"},{"code":"C410","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos do crânio e da face"},{"code":"C411","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mandíbula"},{"code":"C412","display":"Neoplasia maligna da coluna vertebral"},{"code":"C413","display":"Neoplasia maligna das costelas, esterno e clavícula"},{"code":"C414","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos da pelve, sacro e cóccix"},{"code":"C418","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e das cartilagens articulares com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C419","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ossos e cartilagens articulares, não especificados"},{"code":"C43","display":"Melanoma maligno da pele"},{"code":"C430","display":"Melanoma maligno do lábio"},{"code":"C431","display":"Melanoma maligno da pálpebra, incluindo as comissuras palpebrais"},{"code":"C432","display":"Melanoma maligno da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"C433","display":"Melanoma maligno de outras partes e partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"C434","display":"Melanoma maligno do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"C435","display":"Melanoma maligno do tronco"},{"code":"C436","display":"Melanoma maligno do membro superior, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C437","display":"Melanoma maligno do membro inferior, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C438","display":"Melanoma maligno invasivo da pele"},{"code":"C439","display":"Melanoma maligno de pele, não especificado"},{"code":"C44","display":"Outras neoplasias malígnas da pele"},{"code":"C440","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do lábio"},{"code":"C441","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"C442","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"C443","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"C444","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"C445","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do tronco"},{"code":"C446","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do membro superior, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C447","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele do membro inferior, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C448","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C449","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"C45","display":"Mesotelioma"},{"code":"C450","display":"Mesotelioma da pleura"},{"code":"C451","display":"Mesotelioma do peritônio"},{"code":"C452","display":"Mesotelioma do pericárdio"},{"code":"C457","display":"Mesotelioma de outras localizações"},{"code":"C459","display":"Mesotelioma, não especificado"},{"code":"C46","display":"Sarcoma de Kaposi"},{"code":"C460","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi da pele"},{"code":"C461","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de tecidos moles"},{"code":"C462","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi do palato"},{"code":"C463","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"C467","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de outras localizações"},{"code":"C468","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi de múltiplos órgãos"},{"code":"C469","display":"Sarcoma de kaposi, não especificado"},{"code":"C47","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos nervos perifericos e do sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"C470","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C471","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C472","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C473","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do tórax"},{"code":"C474","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do abdome"},{"code":"C475","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos da pelve"},{"code":"C476","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos do tronco"},{"code":"C478","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos e do sistema nervoso autônomo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C479","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos nervos periféricos e sistema nervoso autônomo, não especificados"},{"code":"C48","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos tecidos moles do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"C480","display":"Neoplasia maligna do retroperitônio"},{"code":"C481","display":"Neoplasia maligna de partes especificadas do peritônio"},{"code":"C482","display":"Neoplasia maligna do peritônio"},{"code":"C488","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos tecidos moles do retroperitônio e do peritônio com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C49","display":"Neoplasia malígna do tecido conjuntivo e de outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"C490","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C491","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"C492","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"C493","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do tórax"},{"code":"C494","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do abdome"},{"code":"C495","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles da pelve"},{"code":"C496","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles do tronco"},{"code":"C498","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e dos tecidos moles com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C499","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tecido conjuntivo e tecidos moles, não especificados"},{"code":"C50","display":"Neoplasia malígna da mama"},{"code":"C500","display":"Neoplasia maligna do mamilo e aréola"},{"code":"C501","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção central da mama"},{"code":"C502","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante superior interno da mama"},{"code":"C503","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante inferior interno da mama"},{"code":"C504","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante superior externo da mama"},{"code":"C505","display":"Neoplasia maligna do quadrante inferior externo da mama"},{"code":"C506","display":"Neoplasia maligna da porção axilar da mama"},{"code":"C508","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mama com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C509","display":"Neoplasia maligna da mama, não especificada"},{"code":"C51","display":"Neoplasia malígna da vulva"},{"code":"C510","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos grandes lábios"},{"code":"C511","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos pequenos lábios"},{"code":"C512","display":"Neoplasia maligna do clitóris"},{"code":"C518","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vulva com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C519","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vulva, não especificada"},{"code":"C52","display":"Neoplasia maligna da vagina"},{"code":"C53","display":"Neoplasia malígna do colo do utero"},{"code":"C530","display":"Neoplasia maligna do endocérvix"},{"code":"C531","display":"Neoplasia maligna do exocérvix"},{"code":"C538","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo do útero com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C539","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"C54","display":"Neoplasia malígna do corpo do utero"},{"code":"C540","display":"Neoplasia maligna do istmo do útero"},{"code":"C541","display":"Neoplasia maligna do endométrio"},{"code":"C542","display":"Neoplasia maligna do miométrio"},{"code":"C543","display":"Neoplasia maligna do fundo do útero"},{"code":"C548","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do útero com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C549","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"C55","display":"Neoplasia maligna do útero, porção não especificada"},{"code":"C56","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ovário"},{"code":"C57","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos genitais femininose dos não especificados"},{"code":"C570","display":"Neoplasia maligna da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"C571","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ligamento largo"},{"code":"C572","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ligamento redondo"},{"code":"C573","display":"Neoplasia maligna do paramétrio"},{"code":"C574","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos anexos uterinos"},{"code":"C577","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras partes especificadas dos órgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"C578","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos genitais femininos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C579","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"C58","display":"Neoplasia maligna da placenta"},{"code":"C60","display":"Neoplasia malígna do pênis"},{"code":"C600","display":"Neoplasia maligna do prepúcio"},{"code":"C601","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glande"},{"code":"C602","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo do pênis"},{"code":"C608","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pênis com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C609","display":"Neoplasia maligna do pênis, não especificado"},{"code":"C61","display":"Neoplasia maligna da próstata"},{"code":"C62","display":"Neoplasia malígna dos testiculos"},{"code":"C620","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo criptorquídico"},{"code":"C621","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo tópico"},{"code":"C629","display":"Neoplasia maligna do testículo, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"C63","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos genitais masculinos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"C630","display":"Neoplasia maligna do epidídimo"},{"code":"C631","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cordão espermático"},{"code":"C632","display":"Neoplasia maligna do escroto"},{"code":"C637","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outros órgãos genitais masculinos especificados"},{"code":"C638","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos genitais masculinos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C639","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"C64","display":"Neoplasia maligna do rim, exceto pelve renal"},{"code":"C65","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pelve renal"},{"code":"C66","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos ureteres"},{"code":"C67","display":"Neoplasia malígna da bexiga"},{"code":"C670","display":"Neoplasia maligna do trígono da bexiga"},{"code":"C671","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cúpula da bexiga"},{"code":"C672","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede lateral da bexiga"},{"code":"C673","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede anterior da bexiga"},{"code":"C674","display":"Neoplasia maligna da parede posterior da bexiga"},{"code":"C675","display":"Neoplasia maligna do colo da bexiga"},{"code":"C676","display":"Neoplasia maligna do orifício uretérico"},{"code":"C677","display":"Neoplasia maligna do úraco"},{"code":"C678","display":"Neoplasia maligna da bexiga com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C679","display":"Neoplasia maligna da bexiga, sem outra especificações"},{"code":"C68","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outros orgãos urinários e dos não especificados"},{"code":"C680","display":"Neoplasia maligna da uretra"},{"code":"C681","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula parauretral"},{"code":"C688","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos órgãos urinários com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C689","display":"Neoplasia maligna de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"C69","display":"Neoplasia malígna do olho e anexos"},{"code":"C690","display":"Neoplasia maligna da conjuntiva"},{"code":"C691","display":"Neoplasia maligna da córnea"},{"code":"C692","display":"Neoplasia maligna da retina"},{"code":"C693","display":"Neoplasia maligna da coróide"},{"code":"C694","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo ciliar"},{"code":"C695","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula e canal lacrimal"},{"code":"C696","display":"Neoplasia maligna da órbita"},{"code":"C698","display":"Neoplasia maligna do olho e anexos com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C699","display":"Neoplasia maligna do olho, não especificado"},{"code":"C70","display":"Neoplasia malígna das meninges"},{"code":"C700","display":"Neoplasia maligna das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"C701","display":"Neoplasia maligna das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"C709","display":"Neoplasia maligna da meninge, não especificada"},{"code":"C71","display":"Neoplasia malígna do encefalo"},{"code":"C710","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cérebro, exceto lobos e ventrículos"},{"code":"C711","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo frontal"},{"code":"C712","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo temporal"},{"code":"C713","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo parietal"},{"code":"C714","display":"Neoplasia maligna do lobo occipital"},{"code":"C715","display":"Neoplasia maligna do ventrículo cerebral"},{"code":"C716","display":"Neoplasia maligna do cerebelo"},{"code":"C717","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tronco cerebral"},{"code":"C718","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C719","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"C72","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"C720","display":"Neoplasia maligna da medula espinhal"},{"code":"C721","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cauda eqüina"},{"code":"C722","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo olfativo"},{"code":"C723","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo óptico"},{"code":"C724","display":"Neoplasia maligna do nervo acústico"},{"code":"C725","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outros nervos cranianos e os não especificados"},{"code":"C728","display":"Neoplasia maligna do encéfalo e de out. partes do sist. nervoso central com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C729","display":"Neoplasia maligna do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"C73","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"C74","display":"Neoplasia malígna da glândula supra-renal"},{"code":"C740","display":"Neoplasia maligna do córtex da supra-renal"},{"code":"C741","display":"Neoplasia maligna da medula da supra-renal"},{"code":"C749","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula supra-renal, não especificada"},{"code":"C75","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras glândulas endocrinas e de estruturas relacionadas"},{"code":"C750","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"C751","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"C752","display":"Neoplasia maligna do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"C753","display":"Neoplasia maligna da glândula pineal"},{"code":"C754","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"C755","display":"Neoplasia maligna do corpo aórtico e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"C758","display":"Neoplasia maligna com comprometimento pluriglandular, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"C759","display":"Neoplasia maligna de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"C76","display":"Neoplasia malígna de outras localizações e de localizações mal definidas"},{"code":"C760","display":"Neoplasia maligna da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C761","display":"Neoplasia maligna do tórax"},{"code":"C762","display":"Neoplasia maligna do abdome"},{"code":"C763","display":"Neoplasia maligna da pelve"},{"code":"C764","display":"Neoplasia maligna do membro superior"},{"code":"C765","display":"Neoplasia maligna do membro inferior"},{"code":"C767","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras localizações mal definidas"},{"code":"C768","display":"Neoplasia maligna de outras localizações e das mal definidas com lesão invasiva"},{"code":"C77","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária e não especificada dos ganglios linfáticos"},{"code":"C770","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"C771","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intratorácicos"},{"code":"C772","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intra-abdominais"},{"code":"C773","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linf. axilares e membros superiores"},{"code":"C774","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linf. inguinais e membros inferiores"},{"code":"C775","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos intrapélvicos"},{"code":"C778","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada dos gânglios linfáticos de múltiplas regiões"},{"code":"C779","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária e não especificada de gânglio linfático, não especificado"},{"code":"C78","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária dos orgãos respiratórios e digestivos"},{"code":"C780","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária dos pulmões"},{"code":"C781","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do mediastino"},{"code":"C782","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da pleura"},{"code":"C783","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outros órgãos respiratórios e não especificados"},{"code":"C784","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C785","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do intestino grosso e do reto"},{"code":"C786","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"C787","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do fígado"},{"code":"C788","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outros órgãos digestivos e não especificados"},{"code":"C79","display":"Neoplasia malígna secundária de outras localizações"},{"code":"C790","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do rim e da pelve renal"},{"code":"C791","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da bexiga, de outro órgão urinário e não especificado"},{"code":"C792","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária da pele"},{"code":"C793","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do encéfalo e das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"C794","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outras partes do sistema nervoso e não especificadas"},{"code":"C795","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária dos ossos e da medula óssea"},{"code":"C796","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária do ovário"},{"code":"C797","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária das glândulas supra-renais (adrenais)"},{"code":"C798","display":"Neoplasia maligna secundária de outra localização especificada"},{"code":"C80","display":"Neoplasia maligna, sem especificação de localização"},{"code":"C81","display":"Doença de Hodgkin"},{"code":"C810","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, predominância linfocítica"},{"code":"C811","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, esclerose nodular"},{"code":"C812","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, celularidade mista"},{"code":"C813","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, depleção linfocítica"},{"code":"C817","display":"Outra forma da doença de Hodgkin"},{"code":"C819","display":"Doença de Hodgkin, não especificada"},{"code":"C82","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin folicular (nodular)"},{"code":"C820","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, pequenas células clivadas, folicular"},{"code":"C821","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, misto, de pequenas e grandes células clivadas, folicular"},{"code":"C822","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, grandes células, folicular"},{"code":"C827","display":"Outros tipos de linfoma não-hodgkin, folicular"},{"code":"C829","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin, folicular, não especificado"},{"code":"C83","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso"},{"code":"C830","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, pequenas células (difuso)"},{"code":"C831","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, pequenas células clivadas (difuso)"},{"code":"C832","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, misto, de pequenas e grandes células (difuso)"},{"code":"C833","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, grandes células (difuso)"},{"code":"C834","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, imunoblástico (difuso)"},{"code":"C835","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, linfoblástico (difuso)"},{"code":"C836","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, indiferenciado (difuso)"},{"code":"C837","display":"Tumor de Burkitt"},{"code":"C838","display":"Outros tipos de linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso"},{"code":"C839","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin difuso, não especificado"},{"code":"C84","display":"Linfomas de células t cutâneas e periféricas"},{"code":"C840","display":"Micose fungóide"},{"code":"C841","display":"Doença de Sézary"},{"code":"C842","display":"Linfoma da zona T"},{"code":"C843","display":"Linfoma linfoepitelióide"},{"code":"C844","display":"Linfoma de células T, periférico"},{"code":"C845","display":"Outros linfomas de células T e os não especificados"},{"code":"C85","display":"Outros tipos e de tipo não especificado"},{"code":"C850","display":"Linfossarcoma"},{"code":"C851","display":"Linfoma de células B, não especificado"},{"code":"C857","display":"Outros tipos especificados de linfoma não-hodgkin"},{"code":"C859","display":"Linfoma não-Hodgkin de tipo não especificado"},{"code":"C88","display":"Doenças imunoproliferativas malígnas"},{"code":"C880","display":"Macroglobulinemia de waldenström"},{"code":"C881","display":"Doença de cadeia pesada Alfa"},{"code":"C882","display":"Doença de cadeia pesada Gama"},{"code":"C883","display":"Doença imunoproliferativa do intestino delgado"},{"code":"C887","display":"Outras doenças imunoproliferativas malignas"},{"code":"C889","display":"Doença imunoproliferativa maligna, não especificada"},{"code":"C90","display":"Mieloma múltiplo e neoplasias malígnas de plasmócitos"},{"code":"C900","display":"Mieloma múltiplo"},{"code":"C901","display":"Leucemia plasmocitária"},{"code":"C902","display":"Plasmocitoma extramedular"},{"code":"C91","display":"Leucemia linfóide"},{"code":"C910","display":"Leucemia linfoblástica aguda"},{"code":"C911","display":"Leucemia linfocítica crônica"},{"code":"C912","display":"Leucemia linfocítica subaguda"},{"code":"C913","display":"Leucemia pró-linfocítica"},{"code":"C914","display":"Leucemia de células pilosas"},{"code":"C915","display":"Leucemia de células t do adulto"},{"code":"C917","display":"Outras leucemias linfóides"},{"code":"C919","display":"Leucemia linfóide, não especificada"},{"code":"C92","display":"Leucemia mielóide"},{"code":"C920","display":"Leucemia mielóide aguda"},{"code":"C921","display":"Leucemia mielóide crônica"},{"code":"C922","display":"Leucemia mielóide subaguda"},{"code":"C923","display":"Sarcoma mielóide"},{"code":"C924","display":"Leucemia pró-mielocítica aguda"},{"code":"C925","display":"Leucemia mielomonocítica aguda"},{"code":"C927","display":"Outras leucemias mielóides"},{"code":"C929","display":"Leucemia mielóide, não especificada"},{"code":"C93","display":"Leucemia monocitica"},{"code":"C930","display":"Leucemia monocítica aguda"},{"code":"C931","display":"Leucemia monocítica crônica"},{"code":"C932","display":"Leucemia monocítica subaguda"},{"code":"C937","display":"Outras leucemias monocíticas"},{"code":"C939","display":"Leucemia monocítica, não especificada"},{"code":"C94","display":"Outras leucemias de células de tipo especificado"},{"code":"C940","display":"Eritremia e eritroleucemia agudas"},{"code":"C941","display":"Eritremia crônica"},{"code":"C942","display":"Leucemia megacarioblástica aguda"},{"code":"C943","display":"Leucemia de mastócitos"},{"code":"C944","display":"Panmielose aguda"},{"code":"C945","display":"Mielofibrose aguda"},{"code":"C947","display":"Outras leucemias especificadas"},{"code":"C95","display":"Leucemia de tipo célular não especificado"},{"code":"C950","display":"Leucemia aguda de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C951","display":"Leucemia crônica de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C952","display":"Leucemia subaguda de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C957","display":"Outras leucemias de tipo celular não especificado"},{"code":"C959","display":"Leucemia não especificada"},{"code":"C96","display":"Out neoplasias malígnas e as não especificadas tecidos linfático hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"C960","display":"Doença de Letterer-Siwe"},{"code":"C961","display":"Histiocitose maligna"},{"code":"C962","display":"Tumor maligno de mastócitos"},{"code":"C963","display":"Linfoma histiocítico verdadeiro"},{"code":"C967","display":"Outras neoplasias malignas especificadas dos tecidos linfático, hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"C969","display":"Neoplasia maligna dos tecidos linfático, hematopoético e tecidos correlatos, não especificada"},{"code":"C97","display":"Neoplasias malignas de localizações múltiplas independentes (primárias)"},{"code":"D00","display":"Carcinoma in situ da cavidade oral do esôfago e do estomago"},{"code":"D000","display":"Carcinoma in situ dos lábios, cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"D001","display":"Carcinoma in situ do esôfago"},{"code":"D002","display":"Carcinoma in situ do estômago"},{"code":"D01","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros orgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D010","display":"Carcinoma in situ do cólon"},{"code":"D011","display":"Carcinoma in situ da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"D012","display":"Carcinoma in situ do reto"},{"code":"D013","display":"Carcinoma in situ do ânus e canal anal"},{"code":"D014","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do intestino e as não especificadas"},{"code":"D015","display":"Carcinoma in situ do fígado, vesícula biliar e vias biliares"},{"code":"D017","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos especificados do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D019","display":"Carcinoma in situ de órgãos digestivos, não especificado"},{"code":"D02","display":"Carcinoma in situ do ouvido médio e do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D020","display":"Carcinoma in situ da laringe"},{"code":"D021","display":"Carcinoma in situ da traquéia"},{"code":"D022","display":"Carcinoma in situ dos brônquios e pulmões"},{"code":"D023","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D029","display":"Carcinoma in situ do aparelho respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D03","display":"Melanoma in situ"},{"code":"D030","display":"Melanoma in situ do lábio"},{"code":"D031","display":"Melanoma in situ da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D032","display":"Melanoma in situ da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D033","display":"Melanoma in situ de outras partes, e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D034","display":"Melanoma in situ do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D035","display":"Melanoma in situ do tronco"},{"code":"D036","display":"Melanoma in situ dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D037","display":"Melanoma in situ dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D038","display":"Melanoma in situ de outras localizações"},{"code":"D039","display":"Melanoma in situ, não especificado"},{"code":"D04","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele"},{"code":"D040","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do lábio"},{"code":"D041","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D042","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D043","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D044","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D045","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele do tronco"},{"code":"D046","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D047","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D048","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele de outras localizações"},{"code":"D049","display":"Carcinoma in situ da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"D05","display":"Carcinoma in situ da mama"},{"code":"D050","display":"Carcinoma lobular in situ"},{"code":"D051","display":"Carcinoma intraductal in situ"},{"code":"D057","display":"Outros carcinomas in situ"},{"code":"D059","display":"Carcinoma in situ da mama, não especificado"},{"code":"D06","display":"Carcinoma in situ do colo do útero (cervix)"},{"code":"D060","display":"Carcinoma in situ do endocérvix"},{"code":"D061","display":"Carcinoma in situ do exocérvix"},{"code":"D067","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras partes do colo do útero"},{"code":"D069","display":"Carcinoma in situ do colo do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D07","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros orgãos genitais e dos não especificados"},{"code":"D070","display":"Carcinoma in situ do endométrio"},{"code":"D071","display":"Carcinoma in situ da vulva"},{"code":"D072","display":"Carcinoma in situ da vagina"},{"code":"D073","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos genitais femininos e os não especificados"},{"code":"D074","display":"Carcinoma in situ do pênis"},{"code":"D075","display":"Carcinoma in situ da próstata"},{"code":"D076","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos genitais masculinos e os não especificados"},{"code":"D09","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras localizações e das não especificadas"},{"code":"D090","display":"Carcinoma in situ da bexiga"},{"code":"D091","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outros órgãos urinários e os não especificados"},{"code":"D092","display":"Carcinoma in situ do olho"},{"code":"D093","display":"Carcinoma in situ da tireóide e de outras glândulas endócrinas"},{"code":"D097","display":"Carcinoma in situ de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D099","display":"Carcinoma in situ, não especificado"},{"code":"D10","display":"Neoplasia benigna da boca e da faringe"},{"code":"D100","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos lábios"},{"code":"D101","display":"Neoplasia benigna da língua"},{"code":"D102","display":"Neoplasia benigna do assoalho da boca"},{"code":"D103","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes da boca e as não especificadas"},{"code":"D104","display":"Neoplasia benigna da amígdala"},{"code":"D105","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes da orofaringe"},{"code":"D106","display":"Neoplasia benigna da nasofaringe"},{"code":"D107","display":"Neoplasia benigna da hipofaringe"},{"code":"D109","display":"Neoplasia benigna da faringe, não especificada"},{"code":"D11","display":"Neoplasia benigna de glândulas salivares maiores"},{"code":"D110","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula parótida"},{"code":"D117","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas salivares maiores"},{"code":"D119","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula salivar maior, não especificada"},{"code":"D12","display":"Neoplasia benigna do colon reto canal anal e anûs"},{"code":"D120","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ceco"},{"code":"D121","display":"Neoplasia benigna do apêndice (vermiforme)"},{"code":"D122","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon ascendente"},{"code":"D123","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon transverso"},{"code":"D124","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon descendente"},{"code":"D125","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon sigmóide"},{"code":"D126","display":"Neoplasia benigna do cólon, não especificada"},{"code":"D127","display":"Neoplasia benigna da junção retossigmóide"},{"code":"D128","display":"Neoplasia benigna do reto"},{"code":"D129","display":"Neoplasia benigna do canal anal e ânus"},{"code":"D13","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes e de partes mal definidas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D130","display":"Neoplasia benigna do esôfago"},{"code":"D131","display":"Neoplasia benigna do estômago"},{"code":"D132","display":"Neoplasia benigna do duodeno"},{"code":"D133","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes e partes não especificadas do intestino delgado"},{"code":"D134","display":"Neoplasia benigna do fígado"},{"code":"D135","display":"Neoplasia benigna das vias biliares extra-hepáticas"},{"code":"D136","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pâncreas"},{"code":"D137","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pâncreas endócrino"},{"code":"D139","display":"Neoplasia benigna de localizações mal definidas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"D14","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ouvido médio e do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"D140","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ouvido médio, cavidade nasal e seios paranasais"},{"code":"D141","display":"Neoplasia benigna da laringe"},{"code":"D142","display":"Neoplasia benigna da traquéia"},{"code":"D143","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos brônquios e pulmão"},{"code":"D144","display":"Neoplasia benigna do aparelho respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D15","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros orgãos intratoracicos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"D150","display":"Neoplasia benigna do timo"},{"code":"D151","display":"Neoplasia benigna do coração"},{"code":"D152","display":"Neoplasia benigna do mediastino"},{"code":"D157","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos intratorácicos especificados"},{"code":"D159","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão intratorácico, não especificado"},{"code":"D16","display":"Neoplasia benigna de osso e de cartilagem articular"},{"code":"D160","display":"Neoplasia benigna da omoplata [escápula] e ossos longos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"D161","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos curtos dos membros superiores"},{"code":"D162","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos longos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"D163","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos curtos dos membros inferiores"},{"code":"D164","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos do crânio e da face"},{"code":"D165","display":"Neoplasia benigna do osso da mandíbula"},{"code":"D166","display":"Neoplasia benigna da coluna vertebral"},{"code":"D167","display":"Neoplasia benigna das costelas, do esterno e da clavícula"},{"code":"D168","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos ossos pélvicos, sacro e cóccix"},{"code":"D169","display":"Neoplasia benigna do osso e cartilagem articular, não especificado"},{"code":"D17","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna"},{"code":"D170","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e do tecido subcutâneo da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"D171","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo do tronco"},{"code":"D172","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo dos membros"},{"code":"D173","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna da pele e tecido subcutâneo de out. localiz. e de localiz. não especif."},{"code":"D174","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de órgãos intratorácicos"},{"code":"D175","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de órgãos intra-abdominais"},{"code":"D176","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna do cordão espermático"},{"code":"D177","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de outras localizações"},{"code":"D179","display":"Neoplasia lipomatosa benigna de localização não especificada"},{"code":"D18","display":"Hemangioma e linfangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D180","display":"Hemangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D181","display":"Linfangioma de qualquer localização"},{"code":"D19","display":"Neoplasia benigna de tecido mesotelial"},{"code":"D190","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial da pleura"},{"code":"D191","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial do peritônio"},{"code":"D197","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial de outras localizações"},{"code":"D199","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido mesotelial, não especificado"},{"code":"D20","display":"Neoplasia benigna de tecido mole do retroperitônio e do peritônio"},{"code":"D200","display":"Neoplasia benigna do retroperitônio"},{"code":"D201","display":"Neoplasia benigna do peritônio"},{"code":"D21","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas do tecido conjuntivo e de outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"D210","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles da cabeça, face e pescoço"},{"code":"D211","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles dos membros superiores, incl. ombro"},{"code":"D212","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles dos membros inferiores, incl. quadril"},{"code":"D213","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do tórax"},{"code":"D214","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do abdome"},{"code":"D215","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles da pelve"},{"code":"D216","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles do tronco, não especificado"},{"code":"D219","display":"Neoplasia benigna do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"D22","display":"Nevos melanociticos"},{"code":"D220","display":"Nevo melanocítico do lábio"},{"code":"D221","display":"Nevo melanocítico da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D222","display":"Nevo melanocítico da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D223","display":"Nevo melanocítico de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D224","display":"Nevo melanocítico do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D225","display":"Nevo melanocítico do tronco"},{"code":"D226","display":"Nevo melanocítico dos membros superiores, incluindo ombro"},{"code":"D227","display":"Nevo melanocítico dos membros inferiores, incluindo quadril"},{"code":"D229","display":"Nevo melanocítico, não especificado"},{"code":"D23","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas da pele"},{"code":"D230","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos lábios"},{"code":"D231","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele da pálpebra, incluindo o canto"},{"code":"D232","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele da orelha e do conduto auditivo externo"},{"code":"D233","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele de outras partes e de partes não especificadas da face"},{"code":"D234","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele do couro cabeludo e do pescoço"},{"code":"D235","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele do tronco"},{"code":"D236","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos membros superiores, incluindo o ombro"},{"code":"D237","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele dos membros inferiores, incluindo o quadril"},{"code":"D239","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pele, não especificada"},{"code":"D24","display":"Neoplasia benigna da mama"},{"code":"D25","display":"Leiomioma do utero"},{"code":"D250","display":"Leiomioma submucoso do útero"},{"code":"D251","display":"Leiomioma intramural do útero"},{"code":"D252","display":"Leiomioma subseroso do útero"},{"code":"D259","display":"Leiomioma do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D26","display":"Outras neoplasias benignas do utero"},{"code":"D260","display":"Neoplasia benigna do colo do útero"},{"code":"D261","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo do útero"},{"code":"D267","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes do útero"},{"code":"D269","display":"Neoplasia benigna do útero, não especificado"},{"code":"D27","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ovário"},{"code":"D28","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros orgãos genitais femininose de orgãos não especificados"},{"code":"D280","display":"Neoplasia benigna da vulva"},{"code":"D281","display":"Neoplasia benigna da vagina"},{"code":"D282","display":"Neoplasia benigna das trompas e ligamentos uterinos"},{"code":"D287","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos genitais femininos especificados"},{"code":"D289","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"D29","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos orgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D290","display":"Neoplasia benigna do pênis"},{"code":"D291","display":"Neoplasia benigna da próstata"},{"code":"D292","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos testículos"},{"code":"D293","display":"Neoplasia benigna do epidídimo"},{"code":"D294","display":"Neoplasia benigna do escroto"},{"code":"D297","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D299","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"D30","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos orgãos urinários"},{"code":"D300","display":"Neoplasia benigna do rim"},{"code":"D301","display":"Neoplasia benigna da pelve renal"},{"code":"D302","display":"Neoplasia benigna do ureter"},{"code":"D303","display":"Neoplasia benigna da bexiga"},{"code":"D304","display":"Neoplasia benigna da uretra"},{"code":"D307","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outros órgãos urinários"},{"code":"D309","display":"Neoplasia benigna de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"D31","display":"Neoplasia benigna do olho e anexos"},{"code":"D310","display":"Neoplasia benigna da conjuntiva"},{"code":"D311","display":"Neoplasia benigna da córnea"},{"code":"D312","display":"Neoplasia benigna da retina"},{"code":"D313","display":"Neoplasia benigna da coróide"},{"code":"D314","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo ciliar"},{"code":"D315","display":"Neoplasia benigna das glândulas e dos canais lacrimais"},{"code":"D316","display":"Neoplasia benigna da órbita, não especificada"},{"code":"D319","display":"Neoplasia benigna do olho, não especificado"},{"code":"D32","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges"},{"code":"D320","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"D321","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"D329","display":"Neoplasia benigna das meninges, não especificada"},{"code":"D33","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encefalo e de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D330","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, supratentorial"},{"code":"D331","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, infratentorial"},{"code":"D332","display":"Neoplasia benigna do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"D333","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos nervos cranianos"},{"code":"D334","display":"Neoplasia benigna da medula espinhal"},{"code":"D337","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras partes especificadas do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D339","display":"Neoplasia benigna do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"D34","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"D35","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas endocrinas e das não especificadas"},{"code":"D350","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula supra-renal (adrenal)"},{"code":"D351","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"D352","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"D353","display":"Neoplasia benigna do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"D354","display":"Neoplasia benigna da glândula pineal"},{"code":"D355","display":"Neoplasia benigna do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"D356","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos corpos aórticos e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"D357","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras glândulas endócrinas especificadas"},{"code":"D358","display":"Neoplasia benigna com comprometimento pluriglandular"},{"code":"D359","display":"Neoplasia benigna de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"D36","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras localizações e de localizações não especificadas"},{"code":"D360","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos gânglios linfáticos (linfonodos)"},{"code":"D361","display":"Neoplasia benigna dos nervos periféricos e sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"D367","display":"Neoplasia benigna de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D369","display":"Neoplasia benigna de localização não especificada"},{"code":"D37","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da cavidade oral e dos orgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D370","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do lábio, cavidade oral e faringe"},{"code":"D371","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do estômago"},{"code":"D372","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do intestino delgado"},{"code":"D373","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do apêndice"},{"code":"D374","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos cólons"},{"code":"D375","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do reto"},{"code":"D376","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do fígado, vesícula biliar e vias biliares"},{"code":"D377","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos digestivos"},{"code":"D379","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão digestivo, não especificado"},{"code":"D38","display":"Neoplasia comport incerto ou desconhecido ouvido médio e dos orgãos respiratórios e intratoracicos"},{"code":"D380","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da laringe"},{"code":"D381","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da traquéia, brônquios e pulmão"},{"code":"D382","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pleura"},{"code":"D383","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do mediastino"},{"code":"D384","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do timo"},{"code":"D385","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos respiratórios"},{"code":"D386","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão respiratório, não especificado"},{"code":"D39","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"D390","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do útero"},{"code":"D391","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do ovário"},{"code":"D392","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da placenta"},{"code":"D397","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"D399","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão genital feminino, não especificado"},{"code":"D40","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D400","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da próstata"},{"code":"D401","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do testículo"},{"code":"D407","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos genitais masculinos"},{"code":"D409","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão genital masculino, não especificado"},{"code":"D41","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos orgãos urinários"},{"code":"D410","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do rim"},{"code":"D411","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pelve renal"},{"code":"D412","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do ureter"},{"code":"D413","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da uretra"},{"code":"D414","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da bexiga"},{"code":"D417","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outros órgãos urinários"},{"code":"D419","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de órgão urinário, não especificado"},{"code":"D42","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges"},{"code":"D420","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges cerebrais"},{"code":"D421","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das meninges espinhais"},{"code":"D429","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de meninges não especificadas"},{"code":"D43","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encefalo e do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D430","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, supratentorial"},{"code":"D431","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, infratentorial"},{"code":"D432","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do encéfalo, não especificado"},{"code":"D433","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos nervos cranianos"},{"code":"D434","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da medula espinhal"},{"code":"D437","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras partes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"D439","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"D44","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido das glândulas endocrinas"},{"code":"D440","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula tireóide"},{"code":"D441","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula supra-renal (adrenal)"},{"code":"D442","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula paratireóide"},{"code":"D443","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula hipófise (pituitária)"},{"code":"D444","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do conduto craniofaríngeo"},{"code":"D445","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da glândula pineal"},{"code":"D446","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do corpo carotídeo"},{"code":"D447","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos corpos aórticos e outros paragânglios"},{"code":"D448","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido com comprometimento pluriglandular"},{"code":"D449","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de glândula endócrina, não especificada"},{"code":"D45","display":"Policitemia vera"},{"code":"D46","display":"Síndromes mielodisplásicas"},{"code":"D460","display":"Anemia refratária sem sideroblastos"},{"code":"D461","display":"Anemia refratária com sideroblastos"},{"code":"D462","display":"Anemia refratária com excesso de blastos"},{"code":"D463","display":"Anemia refratária com excesso de blastos com transformação"},{"code":"D464","display":"Anemia refratária, não especificada"},{"code":"D467","display":"Outras síndromes mielodisplásicas"},{"code":"D469","display":"Síndrome mielodisplásica, não especificada"},{"code":"D47","display":"Out neoplasias comport incerto ou desconhecido tecidos linfático hematopoético e tecidos correlatos"},{"code":"D470","display":"Tumores de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de mastócitos e células histiocíticas"},{"code":"D471","display":"Doença mieloproliferativa crônica"},{"code":"D472","display":"Gamopatia monoclonal"},{"code":"D473","display":"Trombocitemia essencial (hemorrágica)"},{"code":"D477","display":"Outras neoplasias especif. de comport. incerto ou desc. dos tecidos linf., hematop. e relacionados"},{"code":"D479","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconh. dos tec. linf., hematop. e correlatos,ñ especificada"},{"code":"D48","display":"Neoplasiacomportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras localizações e de localizações ne"},{"code":"D480","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos ossos e cartilagens articulares"},{"code":"D481","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do tecido conjuntivo e outros tecidos moles"},{"code":"D482","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido dos nervos perif. e do sistema nervoso periférico"},{"code":"D483","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do retroperitônio"},{"code":"D484","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido do peritônio"},{"code":"D485","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da pele"},{"code":"D486","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido da mama"},{"code":"D487","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido de outras localizações especificadas"},{"code":"D489","display":"Neoplasia de comportamento incerto ou desconhecido sem outra especificação"},{"code":"D50","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro"},{"code":"D500","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro secundária à perda de sangue (crônica)"},{"code":"D501","display":"Disfagia sideropênica"},{"code":"D508","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de ferro"},{"code":"D509","display":"Anemia por deficiência de ferro não especificada"},{"code":"D51","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12"},{"code":"D510","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 devida à deficiência de fator intrínseco"},{"code":"D511","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 devida à má-absorção seletiva de vitamina B12 com proteinúria"},{"code":"D512","display":"Deficiência de transcobalamina II"},{"code":"D513","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de vitamina B12 na dieta"},{"code":"D518","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de vitamina B12"},{"code":"D519","display":"Anemia por deficiência de vitamina B12 não especificada"},{"code":"D52","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato"},{"code":"D520","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato na dieta"},{"code":"D521","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D528","display":"Outras anemias por deficiência de folato"},{"code":"D529","display":"Anemia por deficiência de folato não especificada"},{"code":"D53","display":"Outras anemias nutricionais"},{"code":"D530","display":"Anemia por deficiência de proteínas"},{"code":"D531","display":"Outras anemias megaloblásticas não classificadas em outras partes"},{"code":"D532","display":"Anemia escorbútica"},{"code":"D538","display":"Outras anemias nutricionais especificadas"},{"code":"D539","display":"Anemia nutricional não especificada"},{"code":"D55","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos enzimáticos"},{"code":"D550","display":"Anemia devida à deficiência de glicose-6-fosfato-desidrogenase [G-6-Pd]"},{"code":"D551","display":"Anemia devida a outros transtornos do metabolismo do glutation"},{"code":"D552","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos das enzimas glicolíticas"},{"code":"D553","display":"Anemia devida a transtornos do metabolismo de nucleotídios"},{"code":"D558","display":"Outras anemias devidas a transtornos enzimáticos"},{"code":"D559","display":"Anemia devida a transtorno enzimático não especificada"},{"code":"D56","display":"Talassemia"},{"code":"D560","display":"Talassemia Alfa"},{"code":"D561","display":"Talassemia Beta"},{"code":"D562","display":"Talassemia Delta-Beta"},{"code":"D563","display":"Estigma talassêmico"},{"code":"D564","display":"Persistência hereditária de hemoglobina fetal"},{"code":"D568","display":"Outras talassemias"},{"code":"D569","display":"Talassemia não especificada"},{"code":"D57","display":"Transtornos falciformes"},{"code":"D570","display":"Anemia falciforme com crise"},{"code":"D571","display":"Anemia falciforme sem crise"},{"code":"D572","display":"Transtornos falciformes heterozigóticos duplos"},{"code":"D573","display":"Estigma falciforme"},{"code":"D578","display":"Outros transtornos falciformes"},{"code":"D58","display":"Outras anemias hemoliticas hereditárias"},{"code":"D580","display":"Esferocitose hereditária"},{"code":"D581","display":"Eliptocitose hereditária"},{"code":"D582","display":"Outras hemoglobinopatias"},{"code":"D588","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas hereditárias especificadas"},{"code":"D589","display":"Anemia hemolítica hereditária não especificada"},{"code":"D59","display":"Anemia hemolitica adquirida"},{"code":"D590","display":"Anemia hemolítica auto-imune induzida por droga"},{"code":"D591","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas auto-imunes"},{"code":"D592","display":"Anemia hemolítica não-auto-imune induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D593","display":"Síndrome hemolítico-urêmica"},{"code":"D594","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas não-autoimunes"},{"code":"D595","display":"Hemoglobinúria paroxística noturna [marchiafava-micheli]"},{"code":"D596","display":"Hemoglobinúria devida à hemólise por outras causas externas"},{"code":"D598","display":"Outras anemias hemolíticas adquiridas"},{"code":"D599","display":"Anemia hemolítica adquirida não especificada"},{"code":"D60","display":"Aplasia pura da serie vermelha adquirida (eritroblastopenia)"},{"code":"D600","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida crônica da série vermelha"},{"code":"D601","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida transitória da série vermelha"},{"code":"D608","display":"Outras aplasias puras adquiridas da série vermelha"},{"code":"D609","display":"Aplasia pura adquirida, não especificada, da série vermelha"},{"code":"D61","display":"Outras anemias aplasticas"},{"code":"D610","display":"Anemia aplástica constitucional"},{"code":"D611","display":"Anemia aplástica induzida por drogas"},{"code":"D612","display":"Anemia aplástica devida a outros agentes externos"},{"code":"D613","display":"Anemia aplástica idiopática"},{"code":"D618","display":"Outras anemias aplásticas especificadas"},{"code":"D619","display":"Anemia aplástica não especificada"},{"code":"D62","display":"Anemia aguda pós-hemorrágica"},{"code":"D63","display":"Doenças crônicas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D630","display":"Anemia em neoplasias"},{"code":"D638","display":"Anemia em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D64","display":"Outras anemias"},{"code":"D640","display":"Anemia sideroblástica hereditária"},{"code":"D641","display":"Anemia sideroblástica secundária a doença"},{"code":"D642","display":"Anemia sideroblástica secundária ao uso de drogas e a toxinas"},{"code":"D643","display":"Outras anemias sideroblásticas"},{"code":"D644","display":"Anemia diseritropoética congênita"},{"code":"D648","display":"Outras anemias especificadas"},{"code":"D649","display":"Anemia não especificada"},{"code":"D65","display":"Coagulação intravascular disseminada [síndrome de desfibrinação]"},{"code":"D66","display":"Deficiência hereditária do fator VIII"},{"code":"D67","display":"Deficiência hereditária do fator IX"},{"code":"D68","display":"Outros defeitos da coagulação"},{"code":"D680","display":"Doença de von Willebrand"},{"code":"D681","display":"Deficiência hereditária de fator XI"},{"code":"D682","display":"Deficiência hereditária de outros fatores de coagulação"},{"code":"D683","display":"Transtorno hemorrágico devido a anticoagulantes circulantes"},{"code":"D684","display":"Deficiência adquirida de fator de coagulação"},{"code":"D688","display":"Outros defeitos especificados da coagulação"},{"code":"D689","display":"Defeito de coagulação não especificado"},{"code":"D69","display":"Purpura e outras afecções hemorrágicas"},{"code":"D690","display":"Púrpura alérgica"},{"code":"D691","display":"Defeitos qualitativos das plaquetas"},{"code":"D692","display":"Outras púrpuras não-trombocitopênicas"},{"code":"D693","display":"Púrpura trombocitopênica idiopática"},{"code":"D694","display":"Outra trombocitopenia primária"},{"code":"D695","display":"Trombocitopenia secundária"},{"code":"D696","display":"Trombocitopenia não especificada"},{"code":"D698","display":"Outras afecções hemorrágicas especificadas"},{"code":"D699","display":"Afecção hemorrágica não especificada"},{"code":"D70","display":"Agranulocitose"},{"code":"D71","display":"Transtornos funcionais dos neutrófilos polimorfonucleares"},{"code":"D72","display":"Outros transtornos dos globulos brancos"},{"code":"D720","display":"Anomalias genéticas dos leucócitos"},{"code":"D721","display":"Eosinofilia"},{"code":"D728","display":"Outros transtornos especificados dos glóbulos brancos"},{"code":"D729","display":"Transtornos não especificados dos glóbulos brancos"},{"code":"D73","display":"Doenças do baco"},{"code":"D730","display":"Hipoesplenismo"},{"code":"D731","display":"Hiperesplenismo"},{"code":"D732","display":"Esplenomegalia congestiva crônica"},{"code":"D733","display":"Abscesso do baço"},{"code":"D734","display":"Cisto do baço"},{"code":"D735","display":"Infarto do baço"},{"code":"D738","display":"Outras doenças do baço"},{"code":"D739","display":"Doença não especificada do baço"},{"code":"D74","display":"Metemoglobinemia"},{"code":"D740","display":"Metemoglobinemia congênita"},{"code":"D748","display":"Outras metemoglobinemias"},{"code":"D749","display":"Metemoglobinemia não especificada"},{"code":"D75","display":"Doenças do sangue e dos orgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D750","display":"Eritrocitose familiar"},{"code":"D751","display":"Policitemia secundária"},{"code":"D752","display":"Trombocitose essencial"},{"code":"D758","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D759","display":"Doença não especificada do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos"},{"code":"D76","display":"Doenças que envolvem o tecido linforreticular e o sistema reticulo-histiocitico"},{"code":"D760","display":"Histiocitose das células de langerhans não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D761","display":"Linfohistiocitose hemofagocítica"},{"code":"D762","display":"Síndrome hematofagocítica associada à infecção"},{"code":"D763","display":"Outras síndromes histiocíticas"},{"code":"D77","display":"Outros transtornos do sangue e dos órgãos hematopoéticos em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"D80","display":"Imunodeficiência com predominancia de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D800","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia hereditária"},{"code":"D801","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia não familiar"},{"code":"D802","display":"Deficiência seletiva de imunoglobulina A [IGA]"},{"code":"D803","display":"Deficiência seletiva de subclasses de imunoglobulina G [IGG]"},{"code":"D804","display":"Deficiência seletiva de imunoglobulina M [IGM]"},{"code":"D805","display":"Imunodeficiência com aumento de imunoglobulina M [IGM]"},{"code":"D806","display":"Deficiência de anticorpos com imunoglobulinas próximas do normal ou com hiperimunoglobulinemia"},{"code":"D807","display":"Hipogamaglobulinemia transitória da infância"},{"code":"D808","display":"Outras imunodeficiências com predominância de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D809","display":"Imunodeficiência não especificada com predominância de defeitos de anticorpos"},{"code":"D81","display":"Deficiências imunitárias combinadas"},{"code":"D810","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com disgenesia reticular"},{"code":"D811","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com números baixos de células T e B"},{"code":"D812","display":"Imunodeficiência combinada grave [SCID] com números baixos ou normais de células B"},{"code":"D813","display":"Deficiência de adenosina-deaminase [ADA]"},{"code":"D814","display":"Síndrome de nezelof"},{"code":"D815","display":"Deficiência de purina-nucleosídeo fosforilase [pnp]"},{"code":"D816","display":"Deficiência major classe I do complexo de histocompatibilidade"},{"code":"D817","display":"Deficiência major classe II do complexo de histocompatibilidade"},{"code":"D818","display":"Outras deficiências imunitárias combinadas"},{"code":"D819","display":"Deficiências imunitárias combinadas não especificadas"},{"code":"D82","display":"Imunodeficiência associada com outros defeitos major"},{"code":"D820","display":"Síndrome de Wiskott-Aldrich"},{"code":"D821","display":"Síndrome de di George"},{"code":"D822","display":"Imunodeficiência com encurtamento de membros"},{"code":"D823","display":"Imunodeficiência que se segue à resposta hereditária defeituosa ao vírus de epstein-barr (eb)"},{"code":"D824","display":"Síndrome da hiperimunoglobulina E [IGE]"},{"code":"D828","display":"Imunodeficiências associadas com outros defeitos major especificados"},{"code":"D829","display":"Imunodeficiência associada com defeitos major não especificados"},{"code":"D83","display":"Imunodeficiência comum váriavel"},{"code":"D830","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com predominância de anormal. do número e da função das células B"},{"code":"D831","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com predominância de transtornos imunorregulatórios de células T"},{"code":"D832","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável com auto-anticorpos às células B ou T"},{"code":"D838","display":"Outras imunodeficiências comuns variáveis"},{"code":"D839","display":"Imunodeficiência comum variável não especificada"},{"code":"D84","display":"Outras imunodeficiências"},{"code":"D840","display":"Defeito do antígeno-1 da função de linfócito [LFA-1]"},{"code":"D841","display":"Defeitos no sistema complemento"},{"code":"D848","display":"Outras imunodeficiências especificadas"},{"code":"D849","display":"Imunodeficiência não especificada"},{"code":"D86","display":"Sarcoidose"},{"code":"D860","display":"Sarcoidose do pulmão"},{"code":"D861","display":"Sarcoidose dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"D862","display":"Sarcoidose do pulmão com sarcoidose dos gânglios linfáticos"},{"code":"D863","display":"Sarcoidose da pele"},{"code":"D868","display":"Sarcoidose de outros locais especificados e locais combinados"},{"code":"D869","display":"Sarcoidose não especificada"},{"code":"D89","display":"Outros transtornos que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"D890","display":"Hipergamaglobulinemia policlonal"},{"code":"D891","display":"Crioglobulinemia"},{"code":"D892","display":"Hipergamaglobulinemia não especificada"},{"code":"D898","display":"Outros transtornos especificados que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário ñ classificados noutra parte"},{"code":"D899","display":"Transtornos não especificados que comprometem o mecanismo imunitário"},{"code":"E00","display":"Síndrome de deficiência congênita de iodo"},{"code":"E000","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo neurológico"},{"code":"E001","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo mixedematoso"},{"code":"E002","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo do tipo misto"},{"code":"E009","display":"Síndrome da deficiência congênita de iodo, não especificada"},{"code":"E01","display":"Transtornos tireoidianos e afecções associadas relacionados a deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E010","display":"Bócio (endêmico) difuso por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E011","display":"Bócio (endêmico) multinodular por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E012","display":"Bócio (endêmico) não especificado, por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E018","display":"Outros transtornos tireoidianos e afecções associadas, relacionados com a deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E02","display":"Hipotireoidismo subclínico por deficiência de iodo"},{"code":"E03","display":"Outros hipotireoidismos"},{"code":"E030","display":"Hipotireoidismo congênito com bócio difuso"},{"code":"E031","display":"Hipotireoidismo congênito sem bócio"},{"code":"E032","display":"Hipotireoidismo devido a medicamentos e outras substâncias exógenas"},{"code":"E033","display":"Hipotireoidismo pós-infeccioso"},{"code":"E034","display":"Atrofia (adquirida) da tireóide"},{"code":"E035","display":"Coma mixedematoso"},{"code":"E038","display":"Outros hipotireoidismos especificados"},{"code":"E039","display":"Hipotireoidismo não especificado"},{"code":"E04","display":"Outros bocios não-tóxicos"},{"code":"E040","display":"Bócio não-tóxico difuso"},{"code":"E041","display":"Bócio não-tóxico uninodular"},{"code":"E042","display":"Bócio não-tóxico multinodular"},{"code":"E048","display":"Outro bócio não-tóxico especificado"},{"code":"E049","display":"Bócio não-tóxico, não especificado"},{"code":"E05","display":"Tireotóxicose (hipertireoidismo)"},{"code":"E050","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio difuso"},{"code":"E051","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio tóxico uninodular"},{"code":"E052","display":"Tireotoxicose com bócio tóxico multinodular"},{"code":"E053","display":"Tireotoxicose causada por tecido tireoidiano ectópico"},{"code":"E054","display":"Tireotoxicose factícia"},{"code":"E055","display":"Crise ou tempestade tireotóxica"},{"code":"E058","display":"Outras tireotoxicoses"},{"code":"E059","display":"Tireotoxicose não especificada"},{"code":"E06","display":"Tireoidite"},{"code":"E060","display":"Tireoidite aguda"},{"code":"E061","display":"Tireoidite subaguda"},{"code":"E062","display":"Tireoidite crônica com tireotoxicose transitória"},{"code":"E063","display":"Tireoidite auto-imune"},{"code":"E064","display":"Tireoidite induzida por droga"},{"code":"E065","display":"Outras tireoidites crônicas"},{"code":"E069","display":"Tireoidite não especificada"},{"code":"E07","display":"Transtornos da tireóide"},{"code":"E070","display":"Hipersecreção de calcitonina"},{"code":"E071","display":"Bócio 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depressivos"},{"code":"F329","display":"Episódio depressivo não especificado"},{"code":"F33","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente"},{"code":"F330","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual leve"},{"code":"F331","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual moderado"},{"code":"F332","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual grave sem sintomas psicóticos"},{"code":"F333","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, episódio atual grave com sintomas psicóticos"},{"code":"F334","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente, atualmente em remissão"},{"code":"F338","display":"Outros transtornos depressivos recorrentes"},{"code":"F339","display":"Transtorno depressivo recorrente sem especificação"},{"code":"F34","display":"Transtornos de humor (afetivos) persistentes"},{"code":"F340","display":"Ciclotimia"},{"code":"F341","display":"Distimia"},{"code":"F348","display":"Outros transtornos do humor [afetivos] 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puerpério ñ classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F538","display":"Outros transtornos mentais e comportamentais associados ao puerpério ñ classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F539","display":"Transtorno mental e comportamental associado ao puerpério, não especificado"},{"code":"F54","display":"Fatores psicológicos ou comportamentais associados a doença ou transt. classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"F55","display":"Abuso de substâncias que não produzem dependência"},{"code":"F59","display":"Síndromes comportamentais associados a transt. das funções fisiol. e a fat. físicos, ñ especificadas"},{"code":"F60","display":"Transtornos especificos da personalidade"},{"code":"F600","display":"Personalidade paranóica"},{"code":"F601","display":"Personalidade esquizóide"},{"code":"F602","display":"Personalidade dissocial"},{"code":"F603","display":"Transtorno de personalidade com instabilidade emocional"},{"code":"F604","display":"Personalidade 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alérgica"},{"code":"J451","display":"Asma não-alérgica"},{"code":"J458","display":"Asma mista"},{"code":"J459","display":"Asma não especificada"},{"code":"J46","display":"Estado de mal asmático"},{"code":"J47","display":"Bronquectasia"},{"code":"J60","display":"Pneumoconiose dos mineiros de carvão"},{"code":"J61","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a amianto [asbesto] e outras fibras minerais"},{"code":"J62","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a poeira que contenham silica"},{"code":"J620","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a pó de talco"},{"code":"J628","display":"Pneumoconiose devida a outras poeiras que contenham sílica"},{"code":"J63","display":"Outras poeiras inorgânicas"},{"code":"J630","display":"Aluminose (do pulmão)"},{"code":"J631","display":"Fibrose (do pulmão) causada por bauxita"},{"code":"J632","display":"Beriliose"},{"code":"J633","display":"Fibrose (do pulmão) causada por 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intersticiais crônicos induzidos por droga"},{"code":"J704","display":"Transtornos pulmonar intersticial não especificado induzido por droga"},{"code":"J708","display":"Afecções respiratórias devidas a outros agentes externos especificados"},{"code":"J709","display":"Afecções respiratórias devidas a agentes externos não especificados"},{"code":"J80","display":"Síndrome do desconforto respiratório do adulto"},{"code":"J81","display":"Edema pulmonar, não especificado de outra forma"},{"code":"J82","display":"Eosinofilia pulmonar, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"J84","display":"Doenças pulmonares intersticiais"},{"code":"J840","display":"Afecções alveolares e parieto-alveolares"},{"code":"J841","display":"Outras doenças pulmonares intersticiais com fibrose"},{"code":"J848","display":"Outras doenças pulmonares intersticiais especificadas"},{"code":"J849","display":"Doença pulmonar intersticial não especificadas"},{"code":"J85","display":"Abscesso do pulmão e do mediastino"},{"code":"J850","display":"Gangrena e necrose do pulmão"},{"code":"J851","display":"Abscesso do pulmão com pneumonia"},{"code":"J852","display":"Abscesso do pulmão sem pneumonia"},{"code":"J853","display":"Abscesso do mediastino"},{"code":"J86","display":"Piotorax"},{"code":"J860","display":"Piotórax com fístula"},{"code":"J869","display":"Piotórax sem fístula"},{"code":"J90","display":"Derrame pleural não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"J91","display":"Derrame pleural em afecções classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J92","display":"Placas pleurais"},{"code":"J920","display":"Placas pleurais com presença de amianto [asbesto]"},{"code":"J929","display":"Placas pleurais sem presença de amianto [asbesto]"},{"code":"J93","display":"Pneumotorax"},{"code":"J930","display":"Pneumotórax de tensão, espontâneo"},{"code":"J931","display":"Outras formas de pneumotórax espontâneo"},{"code":"J938","display":"Outros tipos de pneumotórax, especificados"},{"code":"J939","display":"Pneumotórax não especificado"},{"code":"J94","display":"Outras afecções pleurais"},{"code":"J940","display":"Derrame quiloso ou quiliforme"},{"code":"J941","display":"Fibrotórax"},{"code":"J942","display":"Hemotórax"},{"code":"J948","display":"Outras afecções pleurais especificadas"},{"code":"J949","display":"Afecção pleural não especificada"},{"code":"J95","display":"Afecções respiratórias pós-procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J950","display":"Mau funcionamento de traqueostomia"},{"code":"J951","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar aguda subsequente a cirurgia torácica"},{"code":"J952","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar aguda subsequente a cirurgia não torácica"},{"code":"J953","display":"Insuficiência pulmonar crônica pós-cirúrgica"},{"code":"J954","display":"Síndrome de mendelson"},{"code":"J955","display":"Estenose subglótica pós-procedimento"},{"code":"J958","display":"Outros transtornos respiratórios 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não especificados"},{"code":"J99","display":"Doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"J990","display":"Doença pulmonar reumatóide"},{"code":"J991","display":"Transtornos respiratórios em outras doenças sistêmicas do tecido conjuntivo classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"J998","display":"Transtornos respiratórios em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K00","display":"Disturbios do desenvolvimento e da erupção dos dentes"},{"code":"K000","display":"Anodontia"},{"code":"K001","display":"Dentes supranumerários"},{"code":"K002","display":"Anomalias do tamanho e da forma dos dentes"},{"code":"K003","display":"Dentes manchados"},{"code":"K004","display":"Distúrbios na formação dos dentes"},{"code":"K005","display":"Anomalias hereditárias da estrutura dentária não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K006","display":"Distúrbios da erupção dentária"},{"code":"K007","display":"Síndrome da erupção dentária"},{"code":"K008","display":"Outros distúrbios do desenvolvimento 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especificadas"},{"code":"K05","display":"Doenças periodontais"},{"code":"K050","display":"Gengivite aguda"},{"code":"K051","display":"Gengivite crônica"},{"code":"K052","display":"Periodontite aguda"},{"code":"K053","display":"Periodontite crônica"},{"code":"K054","display":"Periodontose"},{"code":"K055","display":"Outras doenças periodontais"},{"code":"K056","display":"Doença periodontal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K06","display":"Transtornos da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes"},{"code":"K060","display":"Retração gengival"},{"code":"K061","display":"Hiperplasia gengival"},{"code":"K062","display":"Lesões da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes, associadas a traumatismos"},{"code":"K068","display":"Outros transtornos especificados da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes"},{"code":"K069","display":"Transtorno da gengiva e do rebordo alveolar sem dentes sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K07","display":"Anomalias dentofaciais (inclusive a 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hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K27","display":"Úlcera peptica de localização não especificada"},{"code":"K270","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com hemorragia"},{"code":"K271","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com perfuração"},{"code":"K272","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K273","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - aguda sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K274","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia"},{"code":"K275","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especificada com perfuração"},{"code":"K276","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica ou não especif. com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K277","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - crônica sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K279","display":"Úlcera péptica de localização não especificada - ñ espec. como aguda/crônica, sem hemorr./perfuração"},{"code":"K28","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal"},{"code":"K280","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com hemorragia"},{"code":"K281","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com perfuração"},{"code":"K282","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K283","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - aguda sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K284","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia"},{"code":"K285","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com perfuração"},{"code":"K286","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica ou não especificada com hemorragia e perfuração"},{"code":"K287","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - crônica sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K289","display":"Úlcera gastrojejunal - não especificada como aguda ou crônica, sem hemorragia ou perfuração"},{"code":"K29","display":"Gastrite e duodenite"},{"code":"K290","display":"Gastrite hemorrágica aguda"},{"code":"K291","display":"Outras gastrites agudas"},{"code":"K292","display":"Gastrite alcoólica"},{"code":"K293","display":"Gastrite superficial crônica"},{"code":"K294","display":"Gastrite atrófica crônica"},{"code":"K295","display":"Gastrite crônica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K296","display":"Outras gastrites"},{"code":"K297","display":"Gastrite não especificada"},{"code":"K298","display":"Duodenite"},{"code":"K299","display":"Gastroduodenite, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K30","display":"DISPEPSIA"},{"code":"K31","display":"Doenças do estomago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K310","display":"Dilatação aguda do estômago"},{"code":"K311","display":"Estenose pilórica hipertrófica do adulto"},{"code":"K312","display":"Estenose e estreitamento em ampulheta do estômago"},{"code":"K313","display":"Espasmo do piloro não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K314","display":"Divertículo gástrico"},{"code":"K315","display":"Obstrução do duodeno"},{"code":"K316","display":"Fístula do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K317","display":"Pólipo do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K318","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do estômago e do duodeno"},{"code":"K319","display":"Doenças do estômago e do duodeno, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K35","display":"Apendicite aguda"},{"code":"K350","display":"Apendicite aguda com peritonite generalizada"},{"code":"K351","display":"Apendicite aguda com abscesso peritonial"},{"code":"K359","display":"Apendicite aguda sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K36","display":"OUTRAS FORMAS DE APENDICITE"},{"code":"K37","display":"OUTRAS ESPECIFICACOES"},{"code":"K38","display":"Doenças do apendice"},{"code":"K380","display":"Hiperplasia do apêndice"},{"code":"K381","display":"Concreções apendiculares"},{"code":"K382","display":"Divertículo do apêndice"},{"code":"K383","display":"Fístula do apêndice"},{"code":"K388","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do apêndice"},{"code":"K389","display":"Doença do apêndice, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K40","display":"Hérnia inguinal"},{"code":"K400","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K401","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, com gangrena"},{"code":"K402","display":"Hérnia inguinal bilateral, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K403","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, com obstrução sem gangrena"},{"code":"K404","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, com gangrena"},{"code":"K409","display":"Hérnia inguinal unilateral ou não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K41","display":"Hérnia femoral"},{"code":"K410","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K411","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, com gangrena"},{"code":"K412","display":"Hérnia femoral bilateral, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K413","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K414","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, com gangrena"},{"code":"K419","display":"Hérnia femoral unilateral ou não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K42","display":"Hérnia umbilical"},{"code":"K420","display":"Hérnia umbilical com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K421","display":"Hérnia umbilical com gangrena"},{"code":"K429","display":"Hérnia umbilical sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K43","display":"Hérnia ventral"},{"code":"K430","display":"Hérnia ventral com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K431","display":"Hérnia ventral com gangrena"},{"code":"K439","display":"Hérnia ventral sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K44","display":"Hérnia diafragmática"},{"code":"K440","display":"Hérnia diafragmática com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K441","display":"Hérnia diafragmática com gangrena"},{"code":"K449","display":"Hérnia diafragmática sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K45","display":"Outras Hérnias abdominais"},{"code":"K450","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K451","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, com gangrena"},{"code":"K458","display":"Outras hérnias abdominais especificadas, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K46","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada"},{"code":"K460","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada, com obstrução, sem gangrena"},{"code":"K461","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada com gangrena"},{"code":"K469","display":"Hérnia abdominal não especificada, sem obstrução ou gangrena"},{"code":"K50","display":"Doença de crohn (enterite regional)"},{"code":"K500","display":"Doença de crohn do intestino delgado"},{"code":"K501","display":"Doença de crohn do intestino grosso"},{"code":"K508","display":"Outra forma de doença de crohn"},{"code":"K509","display":"Doença de crohn de localização não especificada"},{"code":"K51","display":"Colite Úlcerativa"},{"code":"K510","display":"Enterocolite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K511","display":"Ileocolite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K512","display":"Proctite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K513","display":"Retossigmoidite ulcerativa (crônica)"},{"code":"K514","display":"Pseudopolipose do cólon"},{"code":"K515","display":"Proctocolite mucosa"},{"code":"K518","display":"Outras colites ulcerativas"},{"code":"K519","display":"Colite ulcerativa, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K52","display":"Outras gastroenterites e colites não-infecciosas"},{"code":"K520","display":"Gastroenterite e colite devida à radiação"},{"code":"K521","display":"Gastroenterite e colite tóxicas"},{"code":"K522","display":"Gastroenterite e colite alérgicas ou ligadas à dieta"},{"code":"K528","display":"Outras gastroenterites e colites especificadas, não-infecciosas"},{"code":"K529","display":"Gastroenterite e colite não-infecciosas, não especificadas"},{"code":"K55","display":"Transtornos vasculares do intestino"},{"code":"K550","display":"Transtornos vasculares agudos do intestino"},{"code":"K551","display":"Transtornos vasculares crônicos do intestino"},{"code":"K552","display":"Angiodisplasia do cólon"},{"code":"K558","display":"Outros transtornos vasculares do intestino"},{"code":"K559","display":"Transtorno vascular do intestino, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K56","display":"Ileo paralitico e obstrução intestinal sem Hérnia"},{"code":"K560","display":"Íleo paralítico"},{"code":"K561","display":"Intussuscepção"},{"code":"K562","display":"Volvo"},{"code":"K563","display":"Íleo biliar"},{"code":"K564","display":"Outras obstruções do intestino"},{"code":"K565","display":"Aderências intestinais (bridas) com obstrução"},{"code":"K566","display":"Outras formas de obstrução intestinal, e as não especificadas"},{"code":"K567","display":"Íleo, não especificado"},{"code":"K57","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino"},{"code":"K570","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino delgado com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K571","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino delgado sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K572","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino grosso com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K573","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino grosso sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K574","display":"Doença diverticular concomitante dos intestinos delgado e grosso com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K575","display":"Doença diverticular concomitante dos intestinos delgado e grosso sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K578","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino, de localização não especificada, com perfuração e abscesso"},{"code":"K579","display":"Doença diverticular do intestino, de localização não especificada, sem perfuração ou abscesso"},{"code":"K58","display":"Síndrome do colon irritavel"},{"code":"K580","display":"Síndrome do cólon irritável com diarréia"},{"code":"K589","display":"Síndrome do cólon irritável sem diarréia"},{"code":"K59","display":"Transtornos funcionais do intestino"},{"code":"K590","display":"Constipação"},{"code":"K591","display":"Diarréia funcional"},{"code":"K592","display":"Cólon neurogênico não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K593","display":"Megacólon não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"K594","display":"Espasmo anal"},{"code":"K598","display":"Outros transtornos funcionais especificados do intestino"},{"code":"K599","display":"Transtorno intestinal funcional, não especificado"},{"code":"K60","display":"Fissura e fístula das regiões anal e retal"},{"code":"K600","display":"Fissura anal aguda"},{"code":"K601","display":"Fissura anal crônica"},{"code":"K602","display":"Fissura anal, não especificada"},{"code":"K603","display":"Fístula anal"},{"code":"K604","display":"Fístula retal"},{"code":"K605","display":"Fístula anorretal"},{"code":"K61","display":"Abscesso das regiões anal e retal"},{"code":"K610","display":"Abscesso anal"},{"code":"K611","display":"Abscesso retal"},{"code":"K612","display":"Abscesso anorretal"},{"code":"K613","display":"Abscesso ísquio-retal"},{"code":"K614","display":"Abscesso intra-esfincteriano"},{"code":"K62","display":"Doenças do reto e do anûs"},{"code":"K620","display":"Pólipo anal"},{"code":"K621","display":"Pólipo retal"},{"code":"K622","display":"Prolapso anal"},{"code":"K623","display":"Prolapso retal"},{"code":"K624","display":"Estenose do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K625","display":"Hemorragia do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K626","display":"Úlcera do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K627","display":"Proctite por radiação"},{"code":"K628","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do ânus e do reto"},{"code":"K629","display":"Doença do ânus e do reto, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K63","display":"Doenças do intestino"},{"code":"K630","display":"Abscesso do intestino"},{"code":"K631","display":"Perfuração do intestino (não-traumática)"},{"code":"K632","display":"Fístula do intestino"},{"code":"K633","display":"Úlcera do intestino"},{"code":"K634","display":"Enteroptose"},{"code":"K635","display":"Pólipo do cólon"},{"code":"K638","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do intestino"},{"code":"K639","display":"Doença do intestino, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K65","display":"Peritonite"},{"code":"K650","display":"Peritonite aguda"},{"code":"K658","display":"Outras peritonites"},{"code":"K659","display":"Peritonite, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"K66","display":"Transtornos do peritônio"},{"code":"K660","display":"Aderências peritoniais"},{"code":"K661","display":"Hemoperitônio"},{"code":"K668","display":"Outras afecções especificadas do peritônio"},{"code":"K669","display":"Afecções do peritônio, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K67","display":"Comprometimento do peritônio em doenças infecciosas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K670","display":"Peritonite por clamídias"},{"code":"K671","display":"Peritonite gonocócica"},{"code":"K672","display":"Peritonite sifilítica"},{"code":"K673","display":"Peritonite tuberculosa"},{"code":"K678","display":"Outras formas de comprometimento do peritônio em doenças infecciosas classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K70","display":"Doença álcoolica do fígado"},{"code":"K700","display":"Fígado gorduroso alcoólico"},{"code":"K701","display":"Hepatite alcoólica"},{"code":"K702","display":"Fibrose e esclerose alcoólicas do fígado"},{"code":"K703","display":"Cirrose hepática alcoólica"},{"code":"K704","display":"Insuficiência hepática alcoólica"},{"code":"K709","display":"Doença alcoólica do fígado, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K71","display":"Doença hepática toxica"},{"code":"K710","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com colestase"},{"code":"K711","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com necrose hepática"},{"code":"K712","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite aguda"},{"code":"K713","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica persistente"},{"code":"K714","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica lobular"},{"code":"K715","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite crônica ativa"},{"code":"K716","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com hepatite não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K717","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com fibrose e cirrose hepáticas"},{"code":"K718","display":"Doença hepática tóxica com outros transtornos do fígado"},{"code":"K719","display":"Doença hepática tóxica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K72","display":"Insuficiência hepática não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K720","display":"Insuficiência hepática aguda e subaguda"},{"code":"K721","display":"Insuficiência hepática crônica"},{"code":"K729","display":"Insuficiência hepática, sem outras especificações"},{"code":"K73","display":"Hepatite crônica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K730","display":"Hepatite crônica persistente, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K731","display":"Hepatite crônica lobular, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K732","display":"Hepatite crônica ativa, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K738","display":"Outras hepatites crônicas não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K739","display":"Hepatite crônica, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K74","display":"Fibrose e cirrose hepáticas"},{"code":"K740","display":"Fibrose hepática"},{"code":"K741","display":"Esclerose hepática"},{"code":"K742","display":"Fibrose hepática com esclerose hepática"},{"code":"K743","display":"Cirrose biliar primária"},{"code":"K744","display":"Cirrose biliar secundária"},{"code":"K745","display":"Cirrose biliar, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K746","display":"Outras formas de cirrose hepática e as não especificadas"},{"code":"K75","display":"Doenças inflamatórias do fígado"},{"code":"K750","display":"Abscesso hepático"},{"code":"K751","display":"Flebite da veia porta"},{"code":"K752","display":"Hepatite reativa não-específica"},{"code":"K753","display":"Hepatite granulomatosa não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K754","display":"Hepatite autoimune"},{"code":"K758","display":"Outras doenças hepáticas inflamatórias especificadas"},{"code":"K759","display":"Doença hepática inflamatória, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K76","display":"Doenças do fígado"},{"code":"K760","display":"Degeneração gordurosa do fígado não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K761","display":"Congestão passiva crônica do fígado"},{"code":"K762","display":"Necrose hemorrágica central do fígado"},{"code":"K763","display":"Infarto do fígado"},{"code":"K764","display":"Peliose hepática"},{"code":"K765","display":"Doença hepática veno-oclusiva"},{"code":"K766","display":"Hipertensão portal"},{"code":"K767","display":"Síndrome hepatorrenal"},{"code":"K768","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do fígado"},{"code":"K769","display":"Doença hepática, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K77","display":"Transtornos do fígado em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K770","display":"Transtornos hepáticos em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K778","display":"Transtornos hepáticos em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K80","display":"Colelitiase"},{"code":"K800","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar com colicistite aguda"},{"code":"K801","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar com outras formas de colecistite"},{"code":"K802","display":"Calculose da vesícula biliar sem colecistite"},{"code":"K803","display":"Calculose de via biliar com colangite"},{"code":"K804","display":"Calculose de via biliar com colecistite"},{"code":"K805","display":"Calculose de via biliar sem colangite ou colecistite"},{"code":"K808","display":"Outras colelitíases"},{"code":"K81","display":"Cistite"},{"code":"K810","display":"Colecistite aguda"},{"code":"K811","display":"Colecistite crônica"},{"code":"K818","display":"Outras colecistites"},{"code":"K819","display":"Colecistite, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K82","display":"Doenças da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K820","display":"Obstrução da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K821","display":"Hidropsia da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K822","display":"Perfuração da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K823","display":"Fístula da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K824","display":"Colesterolose da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K828","display":"Outras doenças especificadas da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"K829","display":"Doença da vesícula biliar, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K83","display":"Doenças das vias biliares"},{"code":"K830","display":"Colangite"},{"code":"K831","display":"Obstrução de via biliar"},{"code":"K832","display":"Perfuração de via biliar"},{"code":"K833","display":"Fístula de via biliar"},{"code":"K834","display":"Espasmo do esfíncter de Oddi"},{"code":"K835","display":"Cisto biliar"},{"code":"K838","display":"Outras doenças especificadas das vias biliares"},{"code":"K839","display":"Doença das vias biliares, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K850","display":"Pancreatite aguda idiopática"},{"code":"K851","display":"Pancreatite aguda biliar"},{"code":"K852","display":"Pancreatite aguda induzida por álcool"},{"code":"K853","display":"Pancreatite aguda induzida por droga"},{"code":"K858","display":"Outras pancreatites agudas"},{"code":"K859","display":"Pancreatite aguda, não especificada"},{"code":"K86","display":"Doenças do pâncreas"},{"code":"K860","display":"Pancreatite crônica induzida por álcool"},{"code":"K861","display":"Outras pancreatites crônicas"},{"code":"K862","display":"Cisto do pâncreas"},{"code":"K863","display":"Pseudocisto do pâncreas"},{"code":"K868","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do pâncreas"},{"code":"K869","display":"Doença do pâncreas, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K87","display":"Transtorno da vesícula biliar das vias biliares do pâncreas em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K870","display":"Transtornos da vesícula biliar e das vias biliares em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K871","display":"Transtornos do pâncreas em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K90","display":"Ma-absorção intestinal"},{"code":"K900","display":"Doença celíaca"},{"code":"K901","display":"Espru tropical"},{"code":"K902","display":"Síndrome da alça cega não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K903","display":"Esteatorréia pancreática"},{"code":"K904","display":"Má-absorção devida a intolerância não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K908","display":"Outras formas de má-absorção intestinal"},{"code":"K909","display":"Má-absorção intestinal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K91","display":"Transtornos do aparelho digestivo pós-procedimentos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"K910","display":"Vômitos pós-cirurgia gastrointestinal"},{"code":"K911","display":"Síndromes pós-cirurgia gástrica"},{"code":"K912","display":"Má-absorção pós-cirúrgica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"K913","display":"Obstrução intestinal pós-operatória"},{"code":"K914","display":"Mau funcionamento de colostomia e enterostomia"},{"code":"K915","display":"Síndrome pós-colecistectomia"},{"code":"K918","display":"Outros transtornos do aparelho digestivo, pós-cirúrgicos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"K919","display":"Transtorno do aparelho digestivo pós procedimento"},{"code":"K92","display":"Doenças do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"K920","display":"Hematêmese"},{"code":"K921","display":"Melena"},{"code":"K922","display":"Hemorragia gastrointestinal, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K928","display":"Outras doenças especificadas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"K929","display":"Doença do aparelho digestivo, sem outra especificação"},{"code":"K93","display":"Transtornos de outros orgãos digestivos em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"K930","display":"Transtornos devido a tuberculose do intestino, do peritônio e dos gânglios do mesentério"},{"code":"K931","display":"Megacólon na doença de Chagas"},{"code":"K938","display":"Transtornos de outros órgãos digestivos especificados em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"L00","display":"Síndrome da pele escaldada estafilocócica do recém-nascido"},{"code":"L01","display":"Impetigo"},{"code":"L010","display":"Impetigo [qualquer localização] [qualquer microorganismo]"},{"code":"L011","display":"Impetiginização de outras dermatoses"},{"code":"L02","display":"Abscesso cutâneo furunculo e antraz"},{"code":"L020","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz da face"},{"code":"L021","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do pescoço"},{"code":"L022","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do tronco"},{"code":"L023","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz da nádega"},{"code":"L024","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz do(s) membro(s)"},{"code":"L028","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz de outras localizações"},{"code":"L029","display":"Abscesso cutâneo, furúnculo e antraz de localização não especificada"},{"code":"L03","display":"Celulite (flegmao)"},{"code":"L030","display":"Celulite de dedos das mãos e dos pés"},{"code":"L031","display":"Celulite de outras partes do(s) membro(s)"},{"code":"L032","display":"Celulite da face"},{"code":"L033","display":"Celulite do tronco"},{"code":"L038","display":"Celulite de outros locais"},{"code":"L039","display":"Celulite não especificada"},{"code":"L04","display":"Linfadenite aguda"},{"code":"L040","display":"Linfadenite aguda de face, cabeça e pescoço"},{"code":"L041","display":"Linfadenite aguda do tronco"},{"code":"L042","display":"Linfadenite aguda de membro 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irritantes devido a óleos e gorduras"},{"code":"L242","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a solventes"},{"code":"L243","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a cosméticos"},{"code":"L244","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a drogas em contato com a pele"},{"code":"L245","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a outros produtos químicos"},{"code":"L246","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devida a alimentos em contato com a pele"},{"code":"L247","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devido a plantas, exceto alimentos"},{"code":"L248","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes devido a outros agentes"},{"code":"L249","display":"Dermatite de contato por irritantes, de causa não especificada"},{"code":"L25","display":"Dermatite de contato não especificada"},{"code":"L250","display":"Dermatite de contato não especificada devida a cosméticos"},{"code":"L251","display":"Dermatite de contato não 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alimentos"},{"code":"L278","display":"Dermatite devida a outras substâncias de uso interno"},{"code":"L279","display":"Dermatite devida a substância não especificada de uso interno"},{"code":"L28","display":"Líquen simples crônico e prurigo"},{"code":"L280","display":"Líquen simples crônico"},{"code":"L281","display":"Prurigo nodular"},{"code":"L282","display":"Outras formas de prurigo"},{"code":"L29","display":"Prurido"},{"code":"L290","display":"Prurido anal"},{"code":"L291","display":"Prurido escrotal"},{"code":"L292","display":"Prurido vulvar"},{"code":"L293","display":"Prurido anogenital, não especificado"},{"code":"L298","display":"Outras formas de prurido"},{"code":"L299","display":"Prurido não especificado"},{"code":"L30","display":"Outras dermatites"},{"code":"L300","display":"Dermatite numular"},{"code":"L301","display":"Disidrose [Pompholyx]"},{"code":"L302","display":"Autossensibilização cutânea"},{"code":"L303","display":"Dermatite 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quelóide"},{"code":"L918","display":"Outras afecções hipertróficas da pele"},{"code":"L919","display":"Afecções hipertróficas da pele, não especificadas"},{"code":"L92","display":"Afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L920","display":"Granuloma anular"},{"code":"L921","display":"Necrobiose lipoídica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"L922","display":"Granuloma facial [granuloma eosinófilo da pele]"},{"code":"L923","display":"Granuloma de corpo estranho da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L928","display":"Outras afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo"},{"code":"L929","display":"Afecções granulomatosas da pele e do tecido subcutâneo, não especificados"},{"code":"L93","display":"Lupus eritematoso"},{"code":"L930","display":"Lúpus eritematoso discóide"},{"code":"L931","display":"Lúpus eritematoso cutâneo subagudo"},{"code":"L932","display":"Outras formas de lúpus eritematoso localizado"},{"code":"L94","display":"Outras afecções 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classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N081","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças neoplásicas"},{"code":"N082","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças do sangue e transtornos imunitários"},{"code":"N083","display":"Transtornos glomerulares no diabetes mellitus"},{"code":"N084","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças endócrinas, nutricionais e metabólicas"},{"code":"N085","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em doenças sistêmicas do tecido conjuntivo"},{"code":"N088","display":"Transtornos glomerulares em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N10","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial aguda"},{"code":"N11","display":"Nefrite tubulo-intersticial crônica"},{"code":"N110","display":"Pielonefrite não-obstrutiva crônica associada a refluxo"},{"code":"N111","display":"Pielonefrite obstrutiva crônica"},{"code":"N118","display":"Outras nefrites túbulo-intersticiais crônicas"},{"code":"N119","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial crônica não especificada"},{"code":"N12","display":"Nefrite túbulo-intersticial não especificada se aguda ou crônica"},{"code":"N13","display":"Uropatia obstrutiva e por refluxo"},{"code":"N130","display":"Hidronefrose com obstrução da junção uretero-pélvica"},{"code":"N131","display":"Hidronefrose com estreitamento de ureter não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N132","display":"Hidronefrose com obstrução por calculose renal e ureteral"},{"code":"N133","display":"Outras hidronefroses e as não especificadas"},{"code":"N134","display":"Hidroureter"},{"code":"N135","display":"Torção e estreitamento do ureter sem hidronefrose"},{"code":"N136","display":"Pionefrose"},{"code":"N137","display":"Uropatia associada a refluxo vésico-ureteral"},{"code":"N138","display":"Outras uropatias obstrutivas e por refluxo"},{"code":"N139","display":"Uropatia obstrutiva e por refluxo não especificada"},{"code":"N14","display":"Afecções tubulares e tubulo-intersticiais induzidas por drogas ou metais 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aguda"},{"code":"N179","display":"Insuficiência renal aguda não especificada"},{"code":"N18","display":"Insuficiência renal crônica"},{"code":"N180","display":"Doença renal em estádio final"},{"code":"N188","display":"Outra insuficiência renal crônica"},{"code":"N189","display":"Insuficiência renal crônica não especificada"},{"code":"N19","display":"Insuficiência renal não especificada"},{"code":"N20","display":"Calculose do rim e do ureter"},{"code":"N200","display":"Calculose do rim"},{"code":"N201","display":"Calculose do ureter"},{"code":"N202","display":"Calculose do rim com cálculo do ureter"},{"code":"N209","display":"Calculose urinária, não especificada"},{"code":"N21","display":"Calculose do trato urinário inferior"},{"code":"N210","display":"Calculose na bexiga"},{"code":"N211","display":"Cálculo uretral"},{"code":"N218","display":"Outros cálculos do trato urinário inferior"},{"code":"N219","display":"Cálculo do trato urinário inferior, porção não 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feminina"},{"code":"N736","display":"Aderências pelviperitonais femininas"},{"code":"N738","display":"Outras doenças inflamatórias especificadas da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N739","display":"Doença inflamatória não especificada da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N74","display":"Transtornos inflamatórios da pelve feminina em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N740","display":"Tuberculose do colo do útero"},{"code":"N741","display":"Tuberculose da pelve feminina"},{"code":"N742","display":"Sífilis pélvica feminina"},{"code":"N743","display":"Infecção gonocócica pélvica feminina"},{"code":"N744","display":"Infecção pélvica feminina por clamídia"},{"code":"N748","display":"Inflamação pélvica feminina em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N75","display":"Doenças da glândula de Bartholin"},{"code":"N750","display":"Cisto da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N751","display":"Abscesso da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N758","display":"Outras doenças da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N759","display":"Doença não especificada da glândula de bartholin"},{"code":"N76","display":"Outras afecções inflamatórias da vagina e da vulva"},{"code":"N760","display":"Vaginite aguda"},{"code":"N761","display":"Vaginite subaguda e crônica"},{"code":"N762","display":"Vulvite aguda"},{"code":"N763","display":"Vulvite subaguda e crônica"},{"code":"N764","display":"Abscesso vulvar"},{"code":"N765","display":"Ulceração vaginal"},{"code":"N766","display":"Ulceração vulvar"},{"code":"N768","display":"Outras inflamações especificadas da vagina e da vulva"},{"code":"N77","display":"Úlceração e inflamação vulvovaginais em doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N770","display":"Ulceração da vulva em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N771","display":"Vaginite, vulvite e vulvovaginite em doenças infecciosas e parasitárias classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N778","display":"Ulceração e inflamação vulvovaginais em outras doenças classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"N80","display":"Endometriose"},{"code":"N800","display":"Endometriose do útero"},{"code":"N801","display":"Endometriose do ovário"},{"code":"N802","display":"Endometriose da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N803","display":"Endometriose do peritônio pélvico"},{"code":"N804","display":"Endometriose do septo retovaginal e da vagina"},{"code":"N805","display":"Endometriose do intestino"},{"code":"N806","display":"Endometriose em cicatriz cutânea"},{"code":"N808","display":"Outra endometriose"},{"code":"N809","display":"Endometriose não especificada"},{"code":"N81","display":"Prolapso genital feminino"},{"code":"N810","display":"Uretrocele feminina"},{"code":"N811","display":"Cistocele"},{"code":"N812","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal incompleto"},{"code":"N813","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal completo"},{"code":"N814","display":"Prolapso uterovaginal não especificado"},{"code":"N815","display":"Enterocele vaginal"},{"code":"N816","display":"Retocele"},{"code":"N818","display":"Outro prolapso genital feminino"},{"code":"N819","display":"Prolapso genital feminino não especificado"},{"code":"N82","display":"Fístulas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N820","display":"Fístula vesicovaginal"},{"code":"N821","display":"Outras fístulas do trato geniturinário feminino"},{"code":"N822","display":"Fístula vagina-intestino delgado"},{"code":"N823","display":"Fístula vagina-cólon"},{"code":"N824","display":"Outras fístulas genito-intestinais femininas"},{"code":"N825","display":"Fístula genitocutânea feminina"},{"code":"N828","display":"Outras fístulas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N829","display":"Fístulas não especificadas do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N83","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário da trompa defalopio e do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N830","display":"Cisto folicular do ovário"},{"code":"N831","display":"Cisto do corpo lúteo"},{"code":"N832","display":"Outros cistos ovarianos e os não especificados"},{"code":"N833","display":"Atrofia adquirida do ovário e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N834","display":"Prolapso e hérnia do ovário e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N835","display":"Torção do ovário, do pedículo ovariano e da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"N836","display":"Hematossalpinge"},{"code":"N837","display":"Hematoma do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N838","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário, da trompa de falópio e do ligamento largo"},{"code":"N839","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do ovário, da trompa de falópio e do ligamento largo, não especificado"},{"code":"N84","display":"Pólipo do trato genital feminino"},{"code":"N840","display":"Pólipo do corpo do útero"},{"code":"N841","display":"Pólipo do colo do útero"},{"code":"N842","display":"Pólipo da vagina"},{"code":"N843","display":"Pólipo da vulva"},{"code":"N848","display":"Pólipo de outras partes do trato genital 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moderada"},{"code":"N872","display":"Displasia cervical grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N879","display":"Displasia do colo do útero, não especificada"},{"code":"N88","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios do colo do utero"},{"code":"N880","display":"Leucoplasia do colo do útero"},{"code":"N881","display":"Laceração antiga do colo do útero"},{"code":"N882","display":"Estreitamento e estenose do colo do útero"},{"code":"N883","display":"Incompetência do colo do útero"},{"code":"N884","display":"Alongamento hipertrófico do colo do útero"},{"code":"N888","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados do colo do útero"},{"code":"N889","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório e não especificado do colo do útero"},{"code":"N89","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios da vagina"},{"code":"N890","display":"Displasia vaginal leve"},{"code":"N891","display":"Displasia vaginal moderada"},{"code":"N892","display":"Displasia vaginal grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N893","display":"Displasia da vagina, não especificada"},{"code":"N894","display":"Leucoplasia da vagina"},{"code":"N895","display":"Estreitamento e atresia da vagina"},{"code":"N896","display":"Anel himenal apertado"},{"code":"N897","display":"Hematocolpos"},{"code":"N898","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados da vagina"},{"code":"N899","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório da vagina, não especificado"},{"code":"N90","display":"Transtornos não-inflamatórios da vulva e do perineo"},{"code":"N900","display":"Displasia vulvar leve"},{"code":"N901","display":"Displasia vulvar moderada"},{"code":"N902","display":"Displasia vulvar grave, não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"N903","display":"Displasia de vulva, não especificada"},{"code":"N904","display":"Leucoplasia de vulva"},{"code":"N905","display":"Atrofia da vulva"},{"code":"N906","display":"Hipertrofia da vulva"},{"code":"N907","display":"Cisto vulvar"},{"code":"N908","display":"Outros transtornos não-inflamatórios especificados da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"N909","display":"Transtorno não-inflamatório e não especificado da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"N91","display":"Menstruação ausente escassa e pouco frequente"},{"code":"N910","display":"Amenorréia primária"},{"code":"N911","display":"Amenorréia secundária"},{"code":"N912","display":"Amenorréia, não especificada"},{"code":"N913","display":"Oligomenorréia primária"},{"code":"N914","display":"Oligomenorréia secundária"},{"code":"N915","display":"Oligomenorréia, não especificada"},{"code":"N92","display":"Menstruação excessiva frequente e irregular"},{"code":"N920","display":"Menstruação excessiva e freqüente com ciclo regular"},{"code":"N921","display":"Menstruação excessiva e freqüente com ciclo irregular"},{"code":"N922","display":"Menstruação excessiva na puberdade"},{"code":"N923","display":"Sangramento da ovulação"},{"code":"N924","display":"Sangramento abundante na 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afecções especificadas associadas com os órgãos genitais femininos e com o ciclo menstrual"},{"code":"N949","display":"Afecções não especificadas associadas com os órgãos genitais femininos e com o ciclo menstrual"},{"code":"N95","display":"Transtornos da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N950","display":"Sangramento pós-menopausa"},{"code":"N951","display":"Estado da menopausa e do climatério feminino"},{"code":"N952","display":"Vaginite atrófica pós-menopausa"},{"code":"N953","display":"Condições associadas com a menopausa artificial"},{"code":"N958","display":"Outros transtornos especificados da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N959","display":"Transtorno não especificado da menopausa e da perimenopausa"},{"code":"N96","display":"Abortamento habitual"},{"code":"N97","display":"Infertilidade feminina"},{"code":"N970","display":"Infertilidade feminina associada à anovulação"},{"code":"N971","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem tubária"},{"code":"N972","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem uterina"},{"code":"N973","display":"Infertilidade feminina de origem cervical"},{"code":"N974","display":"Infertilidade feminina associada à fatores do parceiro"},{"code":"N978","display":"Infertilidade feminina de outra origem"},{"code":"N979","display":"Infertilidade feminina não especificada"},{"code":"N98","display":"Complicações associadas a fecundação artificial"},{"code":"N980","display":"Infecção associada à inseminação artificial"},{"code":"N981","display":"Hiperestimulação dos ovários"},{"code":"N982","display":"Complicações relacionadas com a tentativa de introdução do óvulo fecundado artificialmente(in vitro)"},{"code":"N983","display":"Complicações relacionadas com a tentativa de transferência do embrião"},{"code":"N988","display":"Outras complicações associadas à fecundação artificial"},{"code":"N989","display":"Complicações não especificadas associadas à fecundação 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embolia"},{"code":"O033","display":"Aborto espontâneo - incompleto, com outras complicações ou com complicações não especificadas"},{"code":"O034","display":"Aborto espontâneo - incompleto, sem complicações"},{"code":"O035","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ infec. do trato genital ou órg. pélvicos"},{"code":"O036","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ hemor. excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O037","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., complicado p/ embolia"},{"code":"O038","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., com outras complicações ou com complicações não especif."},{"code":"O039","display":"Aborto espontâneo - completo ou não espec., sem complicações"},{"code":"O04","display":"Aborto por razões medicas e legais"},{"code":"O040","display":"Aborto por razões médicas/legais - incompl., complicado p/ infec. do trato genital ou órg. pélvicos"},{"code":"O041","display":"Aborto por razões 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complicações"},{"code":"O05","display":"Outros tipos de aborto"},{"code":"O050","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por infecção do trato genital ou dos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O051","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por hemorragia excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O052","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, complicado por embolia"},{"code":"O053","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, com outras complicações ou com complicações não especificadas"},{"code":"O054","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - incompleto, sem complicações"},{"code":"O055","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complic. p/infec. do trato genit./órg. pélv."},{"code":"O056","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complicado por hemorragia excessiva ou tardia"},{"code":"O057","display":"Outros tipos de aborto - completo ou não especificado, complicado por embolia"},{"code":"O058","display":"Outros 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leve"},{"code":"O211","display":"Hiperêmese gravídica com distúrbio metabólico"},{"code":"O212","display":"Vômitos tardios da gravidez"},{"code":"O218","display":"Outras formas de vômitos complicando a gravidez"},{"code":"O219","display":"Vômitos da gravidez, não especificados"},{"code":"O22","display":"Complicações venosas na gravidez"},{"code":"O220","display":"Varizes dos membros inferiores na gravidez"},{"code":"O221","display":"Varizes genitais na gravidez"},{"code":"O222","display":"Tromboflebite superficial na gravidez"},{"code":"O223","display":"Flebotrombose profunda na gravidez"},{"code":"O224","display":"Hemorróidas na gravidez"},{"code":"O225","display":"Trombose venosa cerebral na gravidez"},{"code":"O228","display":"Outras complicações venosas na gravidez"},{"code":"O229","display":"Complicações venosas na gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O23","display":"Infecções do trato geniturinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O230","display":"Infecções do rim na gravidez"},{"code":"O231","display":"Infecções da bexiga na gravidez"},{"code":"O232","display":"Infecções da uretra na gravidez"},{"code":"O233","display":"Infecções de outras partes do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O234","display":"Infecção não especificada do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O235","display":"Infecções do trato genital na gravidez"},{"code":"O239","display":"Outras infecções e as não especificadas do trato urinário na gravidez"},{"code":"O24","display":"Diabetes mellitus na gravidez"},{"code":"O240","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, insulino-dependente"},{"code":"O241","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, não-insulino-dependente"},{"code":"O242","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, relacionado com a desnutrição"},{"code":"O243","display":"Diabetes Mellitus pré-existente, não especificado"},{"code":"O244","display":"Diabetes Mellitus que surge durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O249","display":"Diabetes Mellitus na gravidez, não especificado"},{"code":"O25","display":"DESNUTRICAO NA GRAVIDEZ"},{"code":"O26","display":"Outras complicações ligadas predominantemente a gravidez"},{"code":"O260","display":"Ganho excessivo de peso na gravidez"},{"code":"O261","display":"Ganho de peso insuficiente na gravidez"},{"code":"O262","display":"Assistência à gravidez por motivo de abortamento habitual"},{"code":"O263","display":"Retenção de dispositivo intra-uterino contraceptivo (diu) na gravidez"},{"code":"O264","display":"Herpes gestacional"},{"code":"O265","display":"Síndrome da hipotensão materna"},{"code":"O266","display":"Transtornos do fígado na gravidez, no parto e no puerpério"},{"code":"O267","display":"Subluxação da sínfise (púbica) na gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O268","display":"Outras afecções especificadas, ligadas a gravidez"},{"code":"O269","display":"Afecções ligadas a gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O28","display":"Achados anormais do rastreamento (screening) antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O280","display":"Achados hematológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O281","display":"Achados bioquímicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O282","display":"Achados citológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O283","display":"Achados ultrassonográficos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O284","display":"Achados radiológicos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O285","display":"Achados cromossômicos e genéticos anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O288","display":"Outros achados anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe"},{"code":"O289","display":"Achados anormais do rastreamento [screening] antenatal da mãe, não especificados"},{"code":"O29","display":"Complicações de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O290","display":"Complicações pulmonares de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O291","display":"Complicações cardíacas de anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O292","display":"Complicações relativas ao sistema nervoso central devida a anestesia administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O293","display":"Reação tóxica causada por anestesia local administrada durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O294","display":"Cefaléia causada por anestesia raquidiana ou peridural administradas durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O295","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural administradas durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O296","display":"Falha ou dificuldade na entubação durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O298","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia durante a gravidez"},{"code":"O299","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante a gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"O30","display":"Gestação multipla"},{"code":"O300","display":"Gravidez dupla"},{"code":"O301","display":"Gravidez trigemelar"},{"code":"O302","display":"Gravidez quadrigemelar"},{"code":"O308","display":"Outras gestações múltiplas"},{"code":"O309","display":"Gestação múltipla, não especificada"},{"code":"O31","display":"Complicações especificas de gestação multipla"},{"code":"O310","display":"Feto papiráceo"},{"code":"O311","display":"Continuação da gravidez após aborto de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O312","display":"Continuação da gravidez após a morte intra-uterina de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O318","display":"Outras complicações específicas de gestação múltipla"},{"code":"O32","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por motivo de apresentação anormal conhecida ou suspeitada do feto"},{"code":"O320","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por posição fetal instável"},{"code":"O321","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação pélvica"},{"code":"O322","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por posição fetal transversa e oblíqua"},{"code":"O323","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação de face, mento e fronte"},{"code":"O324","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por polo cefálico alto em gestação a termo"},{"code":"O325","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por gestação múltipla com apresentação anormal de um ou mais fetos"},{"code":"O326","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação composta"},{"code":"O328","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras formas de apresentação anormal do feto"},{"code":"O329","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por apresentação anormal do feto, não especificada"},{"code":"O33","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por uma desproporção conhecida ou suspeita"},{"code":"O330","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à deformidade da pelve óssea materna"},{"code":"O331","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração geral da pelve"},{"code":"O332","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração do estreito superior da pelve"},{"code":"O333","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida à contração do estreito inferior da pelve"},{"code":"O334","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção de origem mista, materna e fetal"},{"code":"O335","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a feto excepcionalmente grande"},{"code":"O336","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a feto hidrocefálico"},{"code":"O337","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção devida a outras deformidades fetais"},{"code":"O338","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção de outra origem"},{"code":"O339","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por uma desproporção, não especificada"},{"code":"O34","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por anormalidade conhecida ou suspeita dos orgãos pélvicos maternos"},{"code":"O340","display":"Assistência à mãe por malformação congênita do útero"},{"code":"O341","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por tumor do corpo do útero"},{"code":"O342","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por cicatriz uterina devida a uma cirurgia anterior"},{"code":"O343","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por incompetência cervical"},{"code":"O344","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades do colo do útero"},{"code":"O345","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades do útero gravídico"},{"code":"O346","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade da vagina"},{"code":"O347","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade da vulva e do períneo"},{"code":"O348","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades dos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O349","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade de órgãos pélvicos, não especificada"},{"code":"O35","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por anormalidade e lesão fetais conhecidas ou suspeitadas"},{"code":"O350","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por malformação do sistema nervoso central do feto (suspeitada)"},{"code":"O351","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por anormalidade cromossômica (suspeitada) do feto"},{"code":"O352","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por doença hereditária (suspeitada) do feto"},{"code":"O353","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por doença viral materna"},{"code":"O354","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão (suspeitada) causada ao feto por alcoolismo materno"},{"code":"O355","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por drogas"},{"code":"O356","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por radiação"},{"code":"O357","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão fetal (suspeitada) causada por outros procedimentos médicos"},{"code":"O358","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outras anormalidades ou lesões fetais (suspeitadas)"},{"code":"O359","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por lesão ou anormalidade fetais (suspeitadas), não especificadas"},{"code":"O36","display":"Assistência prestada a mãe por outros problemas fetais conhecidos ou suspeitados"},{"code":"O360","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por isoimunização rh"},{"code":"O361","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outros tipos de isoimunização"},{"code":"O362","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por hidropsia fetal"},{"code":"O363","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por sinais de hipóxia fetal"},{"code":"O364","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por morte intra-uterina"},{"code":"O365","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por insuficiência de crescimento fetal"},{"code":"O366","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por crescimento fetal excessivo"},{"code":"O367","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por feto viável em gravidez abdominal"},{"code":"O368","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por outros problemas fetais especificados"},{"code":"O369","display":"Assistência prestada à mãe por problema fetal não especificado"},{"code":"O40","display":"POLI-HIDRAMNIO"},{"code":"O41","display":"Transtornos das membranas e do líquido amniótico"},{"code":"O410","display":"Oligohidrâmnio"},{"code":"O411","display":"Infecção do saco amniótico e das membranas"},{"code":"O418","display":"Outros transtornos especificados do líquido amniótico e das membranas"},{"code":"O419","display":"Transtornos do líquido amniótico e das membranas não especificados"},{"code":"O42","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas"},{"code":"O420","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com início do trabalho de parto dentro de 24 horas"},{"code":"O421","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com início do trabalho de parto depois das primeiras 24 horas"},{"code":"O422","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, com trabalho de parto retardado por terapêutica"},{"code":"O429","display":"Ruptura prematura de membranas, não especificada"},{"code":"O43","display":"Transtornos da placenta"},{"code":"O430","display":"Síndromes de transfusão placentária"},{"code":"O431","display":"Malformação da placenta"},{"code":"O438","display":"Outros transtornos da placenta"},{"code":"O439","display":"Transtorno da placenta, não especificado"},{"code":"O44","display":"Placenta previa"},{"code":"O440","display":"Placenta prévia especificada como sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O441","display":"Placenta prévia com hemorragia"},{"code":"O45","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta (abruptio placentae)"},{"code":"O450","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O458","display":"Outro descolamento prematuro da placenta"},{"code":"O459","display":"Descolamento prematuro da placenta, não especificado"},{"code":"O46","display":"Hemorragia anteparto não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"O460","display":"Hemorragia anteparto com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O468","display":"Outra forma de hemorragia anteparto"},{"code":"O469","display":"Hemorragia anteparto, não especificada"},{"code":"O47","display":"Falso trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O470","display":"Falso trabalho de parto antes de se completarem 37 semanas de gestação"},{"code":"O471","display":"Falso trabalho de parto na 37ª semana completa ou depois dela"},{"code":"O479","display":"Falso trabalho de parto, não especificado"},{"code":"O48","display":"GRAVIDEZ PROLONGADA"},{"code":"O600","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo sem parto"},{"code":"O601","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo com parto pré-termo"},{"code":"O602","display":"Trabalho de parto pré-termo com parto a termo"},{"code":"O61","display":"Falha na indução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O610","display":"Falha na indução médica do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O611","display":"Falha na indução instrumental do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O618","display":"Outras formas de falha na indução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O619","display":"Falha na indução do trabalho de parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O62","display":"Anormalidades da contração uterina"},{"code":"O620","display":"Contrações iniciais inadequadas"},{"code":"O621","display":"Inércia uterina secundária"},{"code":"O622","display":"Outras formas de inércia uterina"},{"code":"O623","display":"Trabalho de parto precipitado"},{"code":"O624","display":"Contrações uterinas hipertônicas, incoordenadas ou prolongadas"},{"code":"O628","display":"Outras anormalidades da contração uterina"},{"code":"O629","display":"Anormalidades da contração uterina, não especificadas"},{"code":"O63","display":"Trabalho de parto prolongado"},{"code":"O630","display":"Prolongamento do primeiro período (dilatação)"},{"code":"O631","display":"Prolongamento do segundo período (expulsão)"},{"code":"O632","display":"Parto retardado do segundo gêmeo, do terceiro gêmeo etc"},{"code":"O639","display":"Trabalho de parto prolongado, não especificado"},{"code":"O64","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a má-posição ou má-apresentação do feto"},{"code":"O640","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à rotação incompleta do polo cefálico fetal"},{"code":"O641","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação pélvica"},{"code":"O642","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de face"},{"code":"O643","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de fronte"},{"code":"O644","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação de ombro"},{"code":"O645","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à apresentação complexa"},{"code":"O648","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a outras formas de má-apresentação e má-posição"},{"code":"O649","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a má-posição ou má-apresentação, não especificadas"},{"code":"O65","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidade pélvica da mãe"},{"code":"O650","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a deformidade pélvica"},{"code":"O651","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração geral da pelve"},{"code":"O652","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração do estreito superior"},{"code":"O653","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida à contração do estreito inferior ou da cavidade mediana"},{"code":"O654","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a desproporção feto-pélvica, não especificada"},{"code":"O655","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidade dos órgãos pélvicos maternos"},{"code":"O658","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a outras anormalidades pélvicas maternas"},{"code":"O659","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devida a anormalidades pélvicas maternas não especificadas"},{"code":"O66","display":"Outras formas de obstrução do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O660","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devido a distócia de ombro"},{"code":"O661","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto por colisão de gêmeos"},{"code":"O662","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto por feto excepcionalmente grande"},{"code":"O663","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto devido a outras anormalidades do feto"},{"code":"O664","display":"Falha de tentativa de trabalho de parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O665","display":"Falha de aplicação de fórceps e vácuo-extrator, não especificada"},{"code":"O668","display":"Outras formas de obstrução do trabalho de parto, especificadas"},{"code":"O669","display":"Obstrução do trabalho de parto, não especificado"},{"code":"O67","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por hemorragia intraparto não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"O670","display":"Hemorragia intraparto com deficiência de coagulação"},{"code":"O678","display":"Outras hemorragias intraparto"},{"code":"O679","display":"Hemorragia intraparto não especificada"},{"code":"O68","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O680","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anormalidade da freqüência cardíaca fetal"},{"code":"O681","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por mecônio no líquido amniótico"},{"code":"O682","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anorm. na freq. cardíaca fetal c/mecônio no líq. amniótico"},{"code":"O683","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por evidências bioquímicas de sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O688","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outras evidências de sofrimento fetal"},{"code":"O689","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por sofrimento fetal, não especificado"},{"code":"O69","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por anormalidade do cordão umbilical"},{"code":"O690","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por prolapso do cordão"},{"code":"O691","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por circular de cordão, com compressão"},{"code":"O692","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outros enovelamentos do cordão"},{"code":"O693","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por cordão curto"},{"code":"O694","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por vasa praevia"},{"code":"O695","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por lesão vascular do cordão"},{"code":"O698","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por outras complicações do cordão"},{"code":"O699","display":"Trabalho de parto e parto complicados por complicações do cordão, não especificadas"},{"code":"O70","display":"Laceração do perineo durante o parto"},{"code":"O700","display":"Laceração de períneo de primeiro grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O701","display":"Laceração de períneo de segundo grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O702","display":"Laceração de períneo de terceiro grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O703","display":"Laceração de períneo de quarto grau durante o parto"},{"code":"O709","display":"Laceração de períneo durante o parto, não especificada"},{"code":"O71","display":"Outros traumatismos obstétricos"},{"code":"O710","display":"Ruptura do útero antes do início do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O711","display":"Ruptura do útero durante o trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O712","display":"Inversão do útero pós-parto"},{"code":"O713","display":"Laceração obstétrica do colo do útero"},{"code":"O714","display":"Laceração vaginal alta isolada, de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O715","display":"Outras lesões obstétricas aos órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"O716","display":"Lesão obstétrica das articulações e dos ligamentos pélvicos"},{"code":"O717","display":"Hematoma obstétrico da pelve"},{"code":"O718","display":"Outros traumatismos obstétricos especificados"},{"code":"O719","display":"Traumatismo obstétrico, não especificado"},{"code":"O72","display":"Hemorragia pós-parto"},{"code":"O720","display":"Hemorragia do terceiro estágio"},{"code":"O721","display":"Outras hemorragias do pós-parto imediato"},{"code":"O722","display":"Hemorragias pós-parto, tardias e secundárias"},{"code":"O723","display":"Deficiências de coagulação pós-parto"},{"code":"O73","display":"Retenção da placenta e das membranas sem hemorragias"},{"code":"O730","display":"Retenção da placenta sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O731","display":"Retenção de partes da placenta ou das membranas, sem hemorragia"},{"code":"O74","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O740","display":"Pneumonite aspirativa devida a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O741","display":"Outras complicações pulmonares devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O742","display":"Complicações cardíacas devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O743","display":"Complicações do sistema nervoso central devidas a anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e no parto"},{"code":"O744","display":"Reação tóxica a anestesia local durante trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O745","display":"Cefaléia pós-anestesia raquidiana e peridural, durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O746","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O747","display":"Falha ou dificuldade de entubação durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O748","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e parto"},{"code":"O749","display":"Complicações de anestesia durante o trabalho de parto e parto, não especificadas"},{"code":"O75","display":"Outras complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O750","display":"Sofrimento materno durante o trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O751","display":"Choque durante ou subseqüente ao trabalho de parto e o parto"},{"code":"O752","display":"Febre durante o trabalho de parto não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"O753","display":"Outras infecções durante o trabalho de parto"},{"code":"O754","display":"Outras complicações de procedimentos ou de cirurgia obstétrica"},{"code":"O755","display":"Demora do parto após ruptura artificial das membranas"},{"code":"O756","display":"Demora do parto após ruptura espontânea ou não especificada das membranas"},{"code":"O757","display":"Parto vaginal subseqüente a cesariana anterior"},{"code":"O758","display":"Outras complicações especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"O759","display":"Complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto, não especificadas"},{"code":"O80","display":"Parto único espontâneo"},{"code":"O800","display":"Parto espontâneo cefálico"},{"code":"O801","display":"Parto espontâneo pélvico"},{"code":"O808","display":"Outros tipos de parto único espontâneo"},{"code":"O809","display":"Parto único espontâneo, não especificado"},{"code":"O81","display":"Parto único por forceps ou vacuo-extrator"},{"code":"O810","display":"Parto por fórceps baixo"},{"code":"O811","display":"Parto por fórceps da cavidade mediana"},{"code":"O812","display":"Fórceps da cavidade mediana com rotação"},{"code":"O813","display":"Outros tipos de parto por fórceps e os não especificados"},{"code":"O814","display":"Parto por vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O815","display":"Parto por combinação de fórceps e vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O82","display":"Parto único por cesáriana"},{"code":"O820","display":"Parto por cesariana eletiva"},{"code":"O821","display":"Parto por cesariana de emergência"},{"code":"O822","display":"Parto por cesariana para histerectomia"},{"code":"O828","display":"Outros tipos de parto único por cesariana"},{"code":"O829","display":"Parto por cesariana, não especificada"},{"code":"O83","display":"Outros tipos de parto único assistido"},{"code":"O830","display":"Extração pélvica"},{"code":"O831","display":"Outros tipos de parto pélvico assistido"},{"code":"O832","display":"Outras formas de parto com o auxílio de manipulação"},{"code":"O833","display":"Parto de gravidez intra-abdominal com feto viável"},{"code":"O834","display":"Cirurgia destrutiva para facilitar o parto"},{"code":"O838","display":"Outros tipos especificados de parto único assistido"},{"code":"O839","display":"Parto único assistido, não especificado"},{"code":"O84","display":"Parto múltiplo"},{"code":"O840","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos espontâneos"},{"code":"O841","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos por fórceps ou vácuo-extrator"},{"code":"O842","display":"Parto múltiplo, todos por cesariana"},{"code":"O848","display":"Outro tipo de parto múltiplo"},{"code":"O849","display":"Parto múltiplo, não especificado"},{"code":"O85","display":"INFECCAO PUERPERAL"},{"code":"O86","display":"Outras infecções puerperais"},{"code":"O860","display":"Infecção da incisão cirúrgica de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O861","display":"Outras infecções dos órgãos genitais subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O862","display":"Infecção das vias urinárias subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O863","display":"Outras infecções das vias genitourinárias subseqüentes ao parto"},{"code":"O864","display":"Febre de origem desconhecida subseqüente ao parto"},{"code":"O868","display":"Outras infecções puerperais especificadas"},{"code":"O87","display":"Complicações venosas no puerpério"},{"code":"O870","display":"Tromboflebite superficial no puerpério"},{"code":"O871","display":"Tromboflebite profunda no puerpério"},{"code":"O872","display":"Hemorróidas no puerpério"},{"code":"O873","display":"Trombose venosa cerebral no puerpério"},{"code":"O878","display":"Outras complicações venosas no puerpério"},{"code":"O879","display":"Complicações venosas no puerpério, não especificadas"},{"code":"O88","display":"Embolia de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O880","display":"Embolia gasosa de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O881","display":"Embolia amniótica"},{"code":"O882","display":"Embolia obstétrica por coágulo de sangue"},{"code":"O883","display":"Embolia séptica ou piêmica de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O888","display":"Outras embolias de origem obstétrica"},{"code":"O89","display":"Complicações da anestesia administrada durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O890","display":"Complicações pulmonares da anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O891","display":"Complicações cardíacas devidas a anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O892","display":"Complicações relativas ao sistema nervoso central devidas a anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O893","display":"Reação tóxica a uma anestesia local durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O894","display":"Cefaléia provocada por uma anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O895","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia raquidiana ou peridural, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O896","display":"Falha na ou dificuldade de entubação, durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O898","display":"Outras complicações da anestesia durante o puerpério"},{"code":"O899","display":"Complicação devida a anestesia, durante o puerpério, não especificada"},{"code":"O90","display":"Complicações do puerpério não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O900","display":"Ruptura da incisão de cesariana"},{"code":"O901","display":"Ruptura da incisão obstétrica, no períneo"},{"code":"O902","display":"Hematoma da incisão obstétrica"},{"code":"O903","display":"Cardiomiopatia no puerpério"},{"code":"O904","display":"Insuficiência renal aguda do pós-parto"},{"code":"O905","display":"Tireoidite do pós-parto"},{"code":"O908","display":"Outras complicações do puerpério, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"O909","display":"Complicação do puerpério não especificada"},{"code":"O91","display":"Infecções mamárias associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O910","display":"Infecção do mamilo associada ao parto"},{"code":"O911","display":"Abscesso da mama associada ao parto"},{"code":"O912","display":"Mastite não purulenta associada ao parto"},{"code":"O92","display":"Outras afecções da mama e da lactação associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O920","display":"Mamilo retraído associado ao parto"},{"code":"O921","display":"Fissuras do mamilo associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O922","display":"Outras afecções da mama, e as não especificadas, associadas ao parto"},{"code":"O923","display":"Agalactia"},{"code":"O924","display":"Hipogalactia"},{"code":"O925","display":"Suspensão da lactação"},{"code":"O926","display":"Galactorréia"},{"code":"O927","display":"Outros distúrbios da lactação e os não especificados"},{"code":"O94","display":"Seqüelas de complicações da gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O95","display":"MORTE OBSTETRICA DE CAUSA NAO ESPECIFICADA"},{"code":"O96","display":"MORTE POR QUALQUER CAUSA OBSTETRICA QUE OCORRE MAIS DE 42 DIAS MAS MENOS DE 1 ANO APOS O PARTO"},{"code":"O97","display":"MORTE POR SEQUELAS DE CAUSAS OBSTETRICAS 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especif., complic. a gravidez, parto e puerpério"},{"code":"O99","display":"Doenças da mãe classificadas em outra partemas que complicam a gravidez o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O990","display":"Anemia complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O991","display":"Outras doenças do sangue e dos órgãos hematop. e alguns transt. que comprometem o sist. imunológico"},{"code":"O992","display":"Doenças endócrinas, nutricionais e metabólicas complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O993","display":"Transtornos mentais e doenças do sistema nervoso complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O994","display":"Doenças do aparelho circulatório complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O995","display":"Doenças do aparelho respiratório complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O996","display":"Doenças do aparelho digestivo complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O997","display":"Doenças da pele e do tecido subcutâneo complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"O998","display":"Outras doenças e afecções especificadas complicando a gravidez, o parto e o puerpério"},{"code":"P00","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados p/ afecções maternas n obrigatoriamente relacionadas c/ gravidez atual"},{"code":"P000","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por transtornos maternos hipertensivos"},{"code":"P001","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por doenças maternas renais e das vias urinárias"},{"code":"P002","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por doenças infecciosas e parasitárias da mãe"},{"code":"P003","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras doenças circulatórias e respiratórias maternas"},{"code":"P004","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por transtornos nutricionais maternos"},{"code":"P005","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por traumatismo materno"},{"code":"P006","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por intervenção cirúrgica na mãe"},{"code":"P007","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outros procedimentos médicos na mãe, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"P008","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras afecções maternas"},{"code":"P009","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por afecção materna não especificada"},{"code":"P01","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações maternas da gravidez"},{"code":"P010","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por incompetência do colo uterino"},{"code":"P011","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por ruptura prematura das membranas"},{"code":"P012","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por oligohidrâmnio"},{"code":"P013","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por polihidrâmnio"},{"code":"P014","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por gravidez ectópica"},{"code":"P015","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por gravidez múltipla"},{"code":"P016","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por morte materna"},{"code":"P017","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por apresentação anormal antes do trabalho de parto"},{"code":"P018","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações maternas da gravidez"},{"code":"P019","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por afecções maternas da gravidez, não especificadas"},{"code":"P02","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações da placenta do cordão umbilical e das membranas"},{"code":"P020","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por placenta prévia"},{"code":"P021","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras formas de descolamento da placenta e hemorragia"},{"code":"P022","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras anormal. morfol. e funcionais da placenta e as ñ especif."},{"code":"P023","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por síndromes de transfusão placentária"},{"code":"P024","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por prolapso de cordão umbilical"},{"code":"P025","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras compressões do cordão umbilical"},{"code":"P026","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras afecções do cordão umbilical e as não especificadas"},{"code":"P027","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por corioamnionite"},{"code":"P028","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras anormalidades das membranas"},{"code":"P029","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por anormalidade não especificada das membranas"},{"code":"P03","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P030","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto e extração pélvicas"},{"code":"P031","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por out. apres. anorm., má-posic. e desprop. dur. trab. parto e parto"},{"code":"P032","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por fórceps"},{"code":"P033","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por vácuo-extrator [ventosa]"},{"code":"P034","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto por cesariana"},{"code":"P035","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por parto precipitado"},{"code":"P036","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por contrações uterinas anormais"},{"code":"P038","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras complicações especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P039","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por complicações não especificadas do trabalho de parto e do parto"},{"code":"P04","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados p/ influência nociva transmitida ao feto via placenta ou leite materno"},{"code":"P040","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por anest. e analg. materna durante gravidez, trab. de parto e parto"},{"code":"P041","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outros medicamentos utilizados pela mãe"},{"code":"P042","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de fumo pela mãe"},{"code":"P043","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de álcool pela mãe"},{"code":"P044","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pelo uso de drogas que causam dependência pela mãe"},{"code":"P045","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por uso materno de substâncias químicas dos alimentos"},{"code":"P046","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados pela exposição da mãe a substâncias químicas do meio ambiente"},{"code":"P048","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por outras influências nocivas maternas"},{"code":"P049","display":"Feto e recém-nascido afetados por influências nocivas maternas não especificadas"},{"code":"P05","display":"Crescimento fetal retardado e desnutrição fetal"},{"code":"P050","display":"Recém-nascido de baixo peso para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P051","display":"Pequeno para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P052","display":"Desnutrição fetal sem menção de peso e comprimento baixos para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P059","display":"Retardo não especificado do crescimento fetal"},{"code":"P07","display":"Transtornos relacionados com a gestação de curta duração e peso baixo ao nascer ncop"},{"code":"P070","display":"Recém-nascido com peso muito baixo"},{"code":"P071","display":"Outros recém-nascidos de peso baixo"},{"code":"P072","display":"Imaturidade extrema"},{"code":"P073","display":"Outros recém-nascidos de pré-termo"},{"code":"P08","display":"Transtornos relacionados com a gestação prolongada e peso elevado ao nascer"},{"code":"P080","display":"Recém-nascido de tamanho excessivamente grande"},{"code":"P081","display":"Outros recém-nascidos grandes para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P082","display":"Recém-nascido pós-termo, não-grande para a idade gestacional"},{"code":"P10","display":"Laceração intracraniana e hemorragia devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P100","display":"Hemorragia subdural devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P101","display":"Hemorragia cerebral devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P102","display":"Hemorragia intraventricular devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P103","display":"Hemorragia subaracnoídea devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P104","display":"Ruptura tentorial devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P108","display":"Outras lacerações e hemorragias intracranianas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P109","display":"Laceração e hemorragia intracranianas não especificadas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P11","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"P110","display":"Edema cerebral devido a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P111","display":"Outras lesões cerebrais especificadas devidas a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P112","display":"Lesão cerebral não especificada devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P113","display":"Traumatismo de parto do nervo facial"},{"code":"P114","display":"Traumatismo de parto de outros nervos cranianos"},{"code":"P115","display":"Traumatismo de parto da coluna e da medula 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parto"},{"code":"P149","display":"Lesão não especificada do sistema nervoso periférico devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P15","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto"},{"code":"P150","display":"Lesão do fígado devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P151","display":"Lesão do baço devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P152","display":"Lesão do esternomastóide devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P153","display":"Lesão dos olhos devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P154","display":"Lesão da face ao nascer"},{"code":"P155","display":"Lesão dos órgãos genitais externos, devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P156","display":"Necrose de gordura subcutânea devida a traumatismo de parto"},{"code":"P158","display":"Outros traumatismos de parto especificados"},{"code":"P159","display":"Traumatismo de parto não especificado"},{"code":"P20","display":"Hipoxia intra-uterina"},{"code":"P200","display":"Hipóxia intra-uterina diagnosticada antes do início do trabalho de 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especificada"},{"code":"P25","display":"Enfisema intersticial e afecções correlatas originadas no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P250","display":"Enfisema intersticial originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P251","display":"Pneumotórax originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P252","display":"Pneumomediastino originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P253","display":"Pneumopericárdio originado no período perinatal"},{"code":"P258","display":"Outras afecções relacionadas com o enfisema intersticial originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P26","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar originada no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P260","display":"Hemorragia traqueobrônquica originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P261","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar maciça originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P268","display":"Outras hemorragias pulmonares originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P269","display":"Hemorragia pulmonar não especificada originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P27","display":"Doença respiratória crônica originada no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P270","display":"Síndrome de Wilson-Mikity"},{"code":"P271","display":"Displasia broncopulmonar originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P278","display":"Outras doenças respiratórias crônicas originadas no período perinatal"},{"code":"P279","display":"Doença respiratória crônica não especificada originada no período perinatal"},{"code":"P28","display":"Outras afecções respiratórias originadas no periodo perinatal"},{"code":"P280","display":"Atelectasia primária do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P281","display":"Outras atelectasias do recém-nascido e as não especificadas"},{"code":"P282","display":"Crises cianóticas do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P283","display":"Apnéia primária do sono do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P284","display":"Outras apnéias do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P285","display":"Insuficiência respiratória do recém-nascido"},{"code":"P288","display":"Outras afecções respiratórias 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atresia e estreitamento congênitos do conduto auditivo (externo)"},{"code":"Q162","display":"Ausência da trompa de eustáquio"},{"code":"Q163","display":"Malformação congênita dos ossículos do ouvido"},{"code":"Q164","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do ouvido médio"},{"code":"Q165","display":"Malformação congênita do ouvido interno"},{"code":"Q169","display":"Malformação congênita do ouvido não especificada causando comprometimento da audição"},{"code":"Q17","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da orelha"},{"code":"Q170","display":"Pavilhão supranumerário"},{"code":"Q171","display":"Macrotia"},{"code":"Q172","display":"Microtia"},{"code":"Q173","display":"Outras deformidades da orelha"},{"code":"Q174","display":"Anomalia de posição da orelha"},{"code":"Q175","display":"Orelhas proeminentes"},{"code":"Q178","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas da orelha"},{"code":"Q179","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da 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ventrículo-atrial discordante"},{"code":"Q204","display":"Ventrículo com dupla via de entrada"},{"code":"Q205","display":"Comunicação átrio-ventricular discordante"},{"code":"Q206","display":"Isomerismo dos apêndices atriais"},{"code":"Q208","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das câmaras e das comunicações cardíacas"},{"code":"Q209","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das câmaras e das comunicações cardíacas"},{"code":"Q21","display":"Malformações congênitas dos septos cardiacos"},{"code":"Q210","display":"Comunicação interventricular"},{"code":"Q211","display":"Comunicação interatrial"},{"code":"Q212","display":"Comunicação atrioventricular"},{"code":"Q213","display":"Tetralogia de fallot"},{"code":"Q214","display":"Comunicação aortopulmonar"},{"code":"Q218","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos septos cardíacos"},{"code":"Q219","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada de septo cardíaco"},{"code":"Q22","display":"Malformações congênitas das valvas pulmonar e tricúspide"},{"code":"Q220","display":"Atresia da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q221","display":"Estenose congênita da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q222","display":"Insuficiência congênita da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q223","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da valva pulmonar"},{"code":"Q224","display":"Estenose congênita da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q225","display":"Anomalia de ebstein"},{"code":"Q226","display":"Síndrome do coração direito hipoplásico"},{"code":"Q228","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q229","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da valva tricúspide"},{"code":"Q23","display":"Malformações congênitas das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q230","display":"Estenose congênita da valva aórtica"},{"code":"Q231","display":"Insuficiência congênita da valva aórtica"},{"code":"Q232","display":"Estenose mitral congênita"},{"code":"Q233","display":"Insuficiência mitral congênita"},{"code":"Q234","display":"Síndrome do coração esquerdo hipoplásico"},{"code":"Q238","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q239","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das valvas aórtica e mitral"},{"code":"Q24","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do coração"},{"code":"Q240","display":"Dextrocardia"},{"code":"Q241","display":"Levocardia"},{"code":"Q242","display":"Cor triatriatum"},{"code":"Q243","display":"Estenose do infundíbulo pulmonar"},{"code":"Q244","display":"Estenose subaórtica congênita"},{"code":"Q245","display":"Malformações dos vasos coronários"},{"code":"Q246","display":"Bloqueio congênito do coração"},{"code":"Q248","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do coração"},{"code":"Q249","display":"Malformação não especificada do coração"},{"code":"Q25","display":"Malformações congênitas das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q250","display":"Permeabilidade do canal arterial"},{"code":"Q251","display":"Coartação da aorta"},{"code":"Q252","display":"Atresia da aorta"},{"code":"Q253","display":"Estenose da aorta"},{"code":"Q254","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da aorta"},{"code":"Q255","display":"Atresia da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q256","display":"Estenose da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q257","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da artéria pulmonar"},{"code":"Q258","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q259","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada das grandes artérias"},{"code":"Q26","display":"Malformações congênitas das grandes veias"},{"code":"Q260","display":"Estenose congênita da veia cava"},{"code":"Q261","display":"Persistência da veia cava superior esquerda"},{"code":"Q262","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal total"},{"code":"Q263","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal parcial"},{"code":"Q264","display":"Comunicação venosa pulmonar anormal não especificado"},{"code":"Q265","display":"Comunicação venosa 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circulatório"},{"code":"Q280","display":"Malformação arteriovenosa de vasos pré-cerebrais"},{"code":"Q281","display":"Outras malformações dos vasos pré-cerebrais"},{"code":"Q282","display":"Malformação arteriovenosa dos vasos cerebrais"},{"code":"Q283","display":"Outras malformações dos vasos cerebrais"},{"code":"Q288","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"Q289","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"Q30","display":"Malformação congênita do nariz"},{"code":"Q300","display":"Atresia das coanas"},{"code":"Q301","display":"Agenesia ou hipoplasia do nariz"},{"code":"Q302","display":"Fissura, entalhe ou fenda nasal"},{"code":"Q303","display":"Perfuração congênita do septo nasal"},{"code":"Q308","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do nariz"},{"code":"Q309","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do nariz"},{"code":"Q31","display":"Malformações congênitas da laringe"},{"code":"Q310","display":"Pterígio da laringe"},{"code":"Q311","display":"Estenose subglótica congênita"},{"code":"Q312","display":"Hipoplasia da laringe"},{"code":"Q313","display":"Laringocele"},{"code":"Q315","display":"Laringomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q318","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da laringe"},{"code":"Q319","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada da laringe"},{"code":"Q32","display":"Malformações congênitas da traqueia e dos bronquios"},{"code":"Q320","display":"Traqueomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q321","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da traquéia"},{"code":"Q322","display":"Broncomalácia congênita"},{"code":"Q323","display":"Estenose congênita dos brônquios"},{"code":"Q324","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos brônquios"},{"code":"Q33","display":"Malformações congênitas do pulmão"},{"code":"Q330","display":"Pulmão cístico congênito"},{"code":"Q331","display":"Lobo pulmonar supranumerário"},{"code":"Q332","display":"Seqüestro pulmonar"},{"code":"Q333","display":"Agenesia do pulmão"},{"code":"Q334","display":"Bronquectasia congênita"},{"code":"Q335","display":"Tecido ectópico intrapulmonar"},{"code":"Q336","display":"Hipoplasia e displasia do pulmão"},{"code":"Q338","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do pulmão"},{"code":"Q339","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do pulmão"},{"code":"Q34","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q340","display":"Anomalia da pleura"},{"code":"Q341","display":"Cisto congênito do mediastino"},{"code":"Q348","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q349","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Q35","display":"Fenda palatina"},{"code":"Q351","display":"Fenda do palato duro"},{"code":"Q353","display":"Fenda do palato mole"},{"code":"Q355","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda do palato mole"},{"code":"Q357","display":"Fenda da úvula"},{"code":"Q359","display":"Fenda palatina não especificada"},{"code":"Q36","display":"Fenda labial"},{"code":"Q360","display":"Fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q361","display":"Fenda labial mediana"},{"code":"Q369","display":"Fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q37","display":"Fenda labial com fenda palatina"},{"code":"Q370","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q371","display":"Fenda do palato duro com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q372","display":"Fenda do palato mole com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q373","display":"Fenda do palato mole com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q374","display":"Fenda dos palatos duro e mole com fenda labial bilateral"},{"code":"Q375","display":"Fenda dos palatos duro e mole com fenda labial unilateral"},{"code":"Q378","display":"Fenda do palato com fenda labial bilateral, não especificada"},{"code":"Q379","display":"Fenda do palato com fenda 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atresia"},{"code":"Q393","display":"Estenose congênita e estreitamento congênito do esôfago"},{"code":"Q394","display":"Pterígio do esôfago"},{"code":"Q395","display":"Dilatação congênita do esôfago"},{"code":"Q396","display":"Divertículo do esôfago"},{"code":"Q398","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do esôfago"},{"code":"Q399","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do esôfago"},{"code":"Q40","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q400","display":"Estenose hipertrófica congênita do piloro"},{"code":"Q401","display":"Hérnia congênita de hiato"},{"code":"Q402","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do estômago"},{"code":"Q403","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do estômago"},{"code":"Q408","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q409","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do trato digestivo superior"},{"code":"Q41","display":"Ausência atresia e estenose congênita do intestino delgado"},{"code":"Q410","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do duodeno"},{"code":"Q411","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do jejuno"},{"code":"Q412","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do íleo"},{"code":"Q418","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de outras partes especificadas do intestino delgado"},{"code":"Q419","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do intestino delgado, sem especificação de localização"},{"code":"Q42","display":"Ausência atresia e estenose congênita do colon"},{"code":"Q420","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do reto, com fístula"},{"code":"Q421","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do reto, sem fístula"},{"code":"Q422","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do ânus, com fístula"},{"code":"Q423","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita do ânus, sem fístula"},{"code":"Q428","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de outras partes do cólon (intestino grosso)"},{"code":"Q429","display":"Ausência, atresia e estenose congênita de partes não especificadas do cólon (intestino grosso)"},{"code":"Q43","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do intestino"},{"code":"Q430","display":"Divertículo de meckel"},{"code":"Q431","display":"Doença de hirschsprung"},{"code":"Q432","display":"Outros transtornos funcionais congênitos do cólon"},{"code":"Q433","display":"Malformações congênitas da fixação do intestino"},{"code":"Q434","display":"Duplicação do intestino"},{"code":"Q435","display":"Ânus ectópico"},{"code":"Q436","display":"Fístula congênita do reto e do ânus"},{"code":"Q437","display":"Persistência de cloaca"},{"code":"Q438","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do intestino"},{"code":"Q439","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do intestino"},{"code":"Q44","display":"Malformações congênitas da vesícula biliar das vias biliares e do fígado"},{"code":"Q440","display":"Agenesia, aplasia e hipoplasia da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"Q441","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da vesícula biliar"},{"code":"Q442","display":"Atresia das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q443","display":"Estenose e estreitamento congênitos das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q444","display":"Cisto do colédoco"},{"code":"Q445","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das vias biliares"},{"code":"Q446","display":"Doença cística do fígado"},{"code":"Q447","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do fígado"},{"code":"Q45","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q450","display":"Agenesia, aplasia e hipoplasia do pâncreas"},{"code":"Q451","display":"Pâncreas anular"},{"code":"Q452","display":"Cisto pancreático congênito"},{"code":"Q453","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do pâncreas e do duto pancreático"},{"code":"Q458","display":"Outras malformações congênitas especificadas do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q459","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho digestivo"},{"code":"Q50","display":"Malformações congênitas dos ovários das trompas de falopio e dos ligamentos largos"},{"code":"Q500","display":"Ausência congênita dos ovários"},{"code":"Q501","display":"Cisto ovariano de desenvolvimento"},{"code":"Q502","display":"Torsão congênita do ovário"},{"code":"Q503","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do ovário"},{"code":"Q504","display":"Cisto embrionário da trompa de falópio"},{"code":"Q505","display":"Cisto embrionário do ligamento largo"},{"code":"Q506","display":"Outras malformações congênitas das trompas de falópio e dos ligamentos largos"},{"code":"Q51","display":"Malformações congênitas do útero e do colo do utero"},{"code":"Q510","display":"Agenesia e aplasia do útero"},{"code":"Q511","display":"Útero duplo com duplicação do colo uterino e da vagina"},{"code":"Q512","display":"Outra duplicação do útero"},{"code":"Q513","display":"Útero bicórneo"},{"code":"Q514","display":"Útero unicórneo"},{"code":"Q515","display":"Agenesia e aplasia do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q516","display":"Cisto embrionário do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q517","display":"Fístula congênita útero-digestiva ou útero-urinária"},{"code":"Q518","display":"Outras malformações congênitas do útero e do colo do útero"},{"code":"Q519","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do útero e do colo do útero soe"},{"code":"Q52","display":"Outras malformações congênitas dos orgãos genitais femininos"},{"code":"Q520","display":"Ausência congênita da vagina"},{"code":"Q521","display":"Duplicação da vagina"},{"code":"Q522","display":"Fístula reto-vaginal congênita"},{"code":"Q523","display":"Imperfuração do hímen"},{"code":"Q524","display":"Outras malformações congênitas da vagina"},{"code":"Q525","display":"Fusão dos lábios vulvares"},{"code":"Q526","display":"Malformação congênita do 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aparelho urinário"},{"code":"Q649","display":"Malformação congênita não especificada do aparelho urinário"},{"code":"Q65","display":"Malformações congênitas do quadril"},{"code":"Q650","display":"Luxação congênita unilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q651","display":"Luxação congênita bilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q652","display":"Luxação congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q653","display":"Subluxação congênita unilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q654","display":"Subluxação congênita bilateral do quadril"},{"code":"Q655","display":"Subluxação congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q656","display":"Quadril instável"},{"code":"Q658","display":"Outras deformidades congênitas do quadril"},{"code":"Q659","display":"Deformidade congênita não especificada do quadril"},{"code":"Q66","display":"Deformidades congênitas do pe"},{"code":"Q660","display":"Pé torto eqüinovaro"},{"code":"Q661","display":"Pé torto calcaneovaro"},{"code":"Q662","display":"Metatarso 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perna"},{"code":"S842","display":"Traumatismo do nervo cutâneo sensitivo ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S847","display":"Traumatismo de múltiplos nervos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S848","display":"Traumatismo de outros nervos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S849","display":"Traumatismo de nervo não especificado ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S85","display":"Traumatismo de vasos sanguíneos da perna"},{"code":"S850","display":"Traumatismo da artéria poplítea"},{"code":"S851","display":"Traumatismo da artéria tibial (anterior) (posterior)"},{"code":"S852","display":"Traumatismo da artéria peronial"},{"code":"S853","display":"Traumatismo da veia grande safena ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S854","display":"Traumatismo da veia safena menor ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S855","display":"Traumatismo da veia poplítea"},{"code":"S857","display":"Traumatismo de múltiplos vasos sangüíneos ao nível da perna"},{"code":"S858","display":"Traumatismo de outros vasos sangüíneos ao nível da 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especificado"},{"code":"T205","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T206","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T207","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T21","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do tronco"},{"code":"T210","display":"Queimadura do tronco, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T211","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T212","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do tronco"},{"code":"T213","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T214","display":"Corrosão do tronco, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T215","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T216","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do tronco"},{"code":"T217","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do tronco"},{"code":"T22","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do ombro e membro superior exceto punho e mão"},{"code":"T220","display":"Queimadura do ombro e do membro superior, 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mão"},{"code":"T232","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T233","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T234","display":"Corrosão do punho e da mão, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T235","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T236","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T237","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T24","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do quadril e membro inferior exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T240","display":"Queimadura do quadril e membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T241","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T242","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T243","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T244","display":"Corrosão do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T245","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T246","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T247","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do quadril e do membro inferior, exceto tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T25","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T250","display":"Queimadura do tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T251","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T252","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T253","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T254","display":"Corrosão do tornozelo e do pé, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T255","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T256","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T257","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T26","display":"Queimadura e corrosão limitadas ao olho e seus anexos"},{"code":"T260","display":"Queimadura da pálpebra e da região periocular"},{"code":"T261","display":"Queimadura da córnea e do saco conjuntival"},{"code":"T262","display":"Queimadura com resultante ruptura e destruição do globo ocular"},{"code":"T263","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do olho e anexos"},{"code":"T264","display":"Queimadura do olho e anexos, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T265","display":"Corrosão da pálpebra e da região periocular"},{"code":"T266","display":"Corrosão da córnea e do saco conjuntival"},{"code":"T267","display":"Corrosão com resultante ruptura e destruição do globo ocular"},{"code":"T268","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do olho e anexos"},{"code":"T269","display":"Corrosão do olho e anexos, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T27","display":"Queimadura e corrosão do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T270","display":"Queimadura da laringe e traquéia"},{"code":"T271","display":"Queimadura da laringe, traquéia com pulmão"},{"code":"T272","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T273","display":"Queimadura do trato respiratório, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T274","display":"Corrosão da laringe e traquéia"},{"code":"T275","display":"Corrosão da laringe, traquéia com corrosão de pulmão"},{"code":"T276","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do trato respiratório"},{"code":"T277","display":"Corrosão do trato respiratório, parte não especificada"},{"code":"T28","display":"Queimadura e corrosão de outros orgãos internos"},{"code":"T280","display":"Queimadura da boca e da faringe"},{"code":"T281","display":"Queimadura do esôfago"},{"code":"T282","display":"Queimadura de outras partes do trato alimentar"},{"code":"T283","display":"Queimadura dos órgãos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T284","display":"Queimadura de outros órgãos internos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T285","display":"Corrosão da boca e faringe"},{"code":"T286","display":"Corrosão do esôfago"},{"code":"T287","display":"Corrosão de outras partes do trato alimentar"},{"code":"T288","display":"Corrosão de órgãos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T289","display":"Corrosão de outros órgãos internos e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T29","display":"Queimaduras e corrosões de multiplas regiões do corpo"},{"code":"T290","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T291","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, sem mencionar queimadura(s) ultrapassando o primeiro grau"},{"code":"T292","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, sem mencionar queimadura(s) ultrapassando o segundo grau"},{"code":"T293","display":"Queimaduras múltiplas, mencionando ao menos uma queimadura de terceiro grau"},{"code":"T294","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T295","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, sem mencionar corrosão(ões) ultrapassando o primeiro grau"},{"code":"T296","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, sem mencionar corrosão(ões) ultrapassando o segundo grau"},{"code":"T297","display":"Corrosões múltiplas, mencionado ao menos uma corrosão de terceiro grau"},{"code":"T30","display":"Queimadura e corrosão parte não especificada do corpo"},{"code":"T300","display":"Queimadura, parte do corpo não especificada, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T301","display":"Queimadura de primeiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T302","display":"Queimadura de segundo grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T303","display":"Queimadura de terceiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T304","display":"Corrosão, parte do corpo não especificada, grau não especificado"},{"code":"T305","display":"Corrosão de primeiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T306","display":"Corrosão de segundo grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T307","display":"Corrosão de terceiro grau, parte do corpo não especificada"},{"code":"T31","display":"Queimaduras classificadas segundo a extensão da superficie corporal atingida"},{"code":"T310","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo menos de 10% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T311","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 10 - 19% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T312","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 20 - 29% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T313","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 30 - 39% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T314","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 40 - 49% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T315","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 50 - 59% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T316","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 60 - 69% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T317","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 70 - 79% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T318","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo de 80 - 89% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T319","display":"Queimaduras envolvendo 90% ou mais da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T32","display":"Corrosões classificadas segundo a extensão da superficie corporal atingida"},{"code":"T320","display":"Corrosões envolvendo menos de 10% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T321","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 10 - 19% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T322","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 20 - 29% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T323","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 30 - 39% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T324","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 40 - 49% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T325","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 50 - 59% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T326","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 60 - 69% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T327","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 70 - 79% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T328","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 80 - 89% da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T329","display":"Corrosões envolvendo 90% ou mais da superfície corporal"},{"code":"T33","display":"Geladura superficial"},{"code":"T330","display":"Geladura superficial da cabeça"},{"code":"T331","display":"Geladura superficial do pescoço"},{"code":"T332","display":"Geladura superficial do tórax"},{"code":"T333","display":"Geladura superficial da parede abdominal, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T334","display":"Geladura superficial do braço"},{"code":"T335","display":"Geladura superficial do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T336","display":"Geladura superficial do quadril e da coxa"},{"code":"T337","display":"Geladura superficial do joelho e da perna"},{"code":"T338","display":"Geladura superficial do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T339","display":"Geladura superficial de outros locais e de locais não especificados"},{"code":"T34","display":"Geladura com necrose de tecidos"},{"code":"T340","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, da cabeça"},{"code":"T341","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do pescoço"},{"code":"T342","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do tórax"},{"code":"T343","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, da parede abdominal, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T344","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do braço"},{"code":"T345","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T346","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do quadril e da coxa"},{"code":"T347","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do joelho e da perna"},{"code":"T348","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, do tornozelo e do pé"},{"code":"T349","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, de localização não especificada"},{"code":"T35","display":"Geladura de multiplas partes do corpo e das não especificadas"},{"code":"T350","display":"Geladura superficial envolvendo múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T351","display":"Geladura, com necrose de tecidos, de múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T352","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, da cabeça e do pescoço"},{"code":"T353","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do tórax, abdome, parte inferior do dorso e da pelve"},{"code":"T354","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do membro superior"},{"code":"T355","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, do membro inferior"},{"code":"T356","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, de múltiplas partes do corpo"},{"code":"T357","display":"Geladura, de grau não especificado, de localização não especificada"},{"code":"T36","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos sistemicos"},{"code":"T360","display":"Intoxicação por penicilinas"},{"code":"T361","display":"Intoxicação por cefalosporinas e outras betalactaminas"},{"code":"T362","display":"Intoxicação pelo grupo do cloranfenicol"},{"code":"T363","display":"Intoxicação por macrolídios"},{"code":"T364","display":"Intoxicação por tetraciclinas"},{"code":"T365","display":"Intoxicação por aminoglicosídeos"},{"code":"T366","display":"Intoxicação por rifamicinas"},{"code":"T367","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos antifúngicos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"T368","display":"Intoxicação por outros antibióticos sistêmicos"},{"code":"T369","display":"Intoxicação por antibióticos sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"T37","display":"Intoxicação por outras substancias antiinfecciosas ouantiparasitárias sistemicas"},{"code":"T370","display":"Intoxicação por sulfonamidas"},{"code":"T371","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antimicobacterianas"},{"code":"T372","display":"Intoxicação por antimaláricos e drogas que atuam sobre outros protozoários do sangue"},{"code":"T373","display":"Intoxicação por outros medicamentos antiprotozoários"},{"code":"T374","display":"Intoxicação por anti-helmínticos"},{"code":"T375","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antivirais"},{"code":"T378","display":"Intoxicação por outros agentes antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários especificados"},{"code":"T379","display":"Intoxicação por agentes antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"T38","display":"Intoxicação por hormonios seus substitutos sintéticos e seus antagonistas não cop"},{"code":"T380","display":"Intoxicação por glicocorticóides e análogos sintéticos"},{"code":"T381","display":"Intoxicação por hormônios tireoidianos e seus derivados"},{"code":"T382","display":"Intoxicação por medicamentos antitireoidianos"},{"code":"T383","display":"Intoxicação por insulina e drogas hipoglicemiantes orais [antidiabéticos]"},{"code":"T384","display":"Intoxicação por anticoncepcionais orais"},{"code":"T385","display":"Intoxicação por outros estrógenos e progestágenos"},{"code":"T386","display":"Intoxicação por antigonadotrofinas, antiestrógenos, antiandrógenos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T387","display":"Intoxicação por andrógenos e anabolizantes congêneres"},{"code":"T388","display":"Intoxicação por outros hormônios e substitutos sintéticos, e os não especificados"},{"code":"T389","display":"Intoxicação por outros antagonistas hormonais, e os não especificados"},{"code":"T39","display":"Intoxicação por analgesicos antipiréticos e anti-reumáticos não-opiáceos"},{"code":"T390","display":"Intoxicação por salicilatos"},{"code":"T391","display":"Intoxicação por derivados do 4-aminofenol"},{"code":"T392","display":"Intoxicação por derivados pirazolônicos"},{"code":"T393","display":"Intoxicação por outros antiinflamatórios não esteróides"},{"code":"T394","display":"Intoxicação por anti-reumáticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T398","display":"Intoxicação por outros analgésicos não opiáceos e antipiréticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T399","display":"Intoxicação por analgésico não-opiáceo, antipirético e anti-reumático, não especificados"},{"code":"T40","display":"Intoxicação por narcóticos e psicodislepticos (alucinógenos)"},{"code":"T400","display":"Intoxicação por ópio"},{"code":"T401","display":"Intoxicação por heroína"},{"code":"T402","display":"Intoxicação por outros opiáceos"},{"code":"T403","display":"Intoxicação por metadona"},{"code":"T404","display":"Intoxicação por outros narcóticos sintéticos"},{"code":"T405","display":"Intoxicação por cocaína"},{"code":"T406","display":"Intoxicação por outros narcóticos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T407","display":"Intoxicação por cannabis (derivados)"},{"code":"T408","display":"Intoxicação por lisergida [lsd]"},{"code":"T409","display":"Intoxicação por outros psicodislépticos e os não especificados [alucinógenos]"},{"code":"T41","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos e gases terapêuticos"},{"code":"T410","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos inalatórios"},{"code":"T411","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos intravenosos"},{"code":"T412","display":"Intoxicação por outros anestésicos gerais e os não especificados"},{"code":"T413","display":"Intoxicação por anestésicos locais"},{"code":"T414","display":"Intoxicação por anestésico não especificado"},{"code":"T415","display":"Intoxicação por gases terapêuticos"},{"code":"T42","display":"Intoxicação por antiepilepticos sedativos-hipnóticose antiparkinsonianos"},{"code":"T420","display":"Intoxicação por derivados da hidantoína"},{"code":"T421","display":"Intoxicação por iminostilbenos"},{"code":"T422","display":"Intoxicação por succinimidas e oxazolidinadionas"},{"code":"T423","display":"Intoxicação por barbitúricos"},{"code":"T424","display":"Intoxicação por benzodiazepinas"},{"code":"T425","display":"Intoxicação por antiepiléticos em associação, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T426","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas antiepilépticas e sedativos-hipnóticos"},{"code":"T427","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antiepilépticos, sedativos-hipnóticos, não especificados"},{"code":"T428","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antiparkinsonianos e outros depressores centrais do tônus muscular"},{"code":"T43","display":"Intoxicação por drogas psicotropicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T430","display":"Intoxicação por antidepressivos tricíclicos e tetracíclicos"},{"code":"T431","display":"Intoxicação por antidepressivos inibidores da monoaminooxidase (mao)"},{"code":"T432","display":"Intoxicação por outros antidepressivos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T433","display":"Intoxicação por antipsicóticos e neurolépticos derivados da fenotiazina"},{"code":"T434","display":"Intoxicação por neurolépticos do tipo butirofenona e tioxanteno"},{"code":"T435","display":"Intoxicação por outros antipsicóticos e neurolépticos e os não especificados"},{"code":"T436","display":"Intoxicação por psicoestimulantes que potencialmente podem provocar dependência"},{"code":"T438","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas psicotrópicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T439","display":"Intoxicação por droga psicotrópica não especificada"},{"code":"T44","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que afetam principalmente o sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"T440","display":"Intoxicação por agentes anticolinesterase"},{"code":"T441","display":"Intoxicação por outros agentes parassimpaticomiméticos [colinérgicos]"},{"code":"T442","display":"Intoxicação por bloqueadores ganglionares não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T443","display":"Intoxicação por outros parassimpaticolíticos e espasmolíticos ñ classificados noutra parte"},{"code":"T444","display":"Intoxicação por agonistas principalmente alfa-adrenorreceptores não class. em outra parte"},{"code":"T445","display":"Intoxicação por agonistas principalmente beta-adrenorreceptores não class. em outra parte"},{"code":"T446","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas alfa-adrenorreceptores não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T447","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas beta-adrenorreceptores não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T448","display":"Intoxicação por bloquead. neuronais adrenérgicos e de ação central, não class. noutra parte"},{"code":"T449","display":"Intoxicação por out. drogas que afetam princ. o sist. nervoso autônomo e as ñ especificadas"},{"code":"T45","display":"Intox p/ subst de ação essencialmente sistemica e substancias hematológicas ncop"},{"code":"T450","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antialérgicas e antieméticas"},{"code":"T451","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antineoplásicas e imunomupressoras"},{"code":"T452","display":"Intoxicação por vitaminas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T453","display":"Intoxicação por enzimas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T454","display":"Intoxicação por ferro e seus compostos"},{"code":"T455","display":"Intoxicação por anticoagulantes"},{"code":"T456","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que afetam a fibrinólise"},{"code":"T457","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas de anticoagulantes, vitamina K e outros fatores de coagulação"},{"code":"T458","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias primariamente sistêmicas e hematológicas"},{"code":"T459","display":"Intoxicação por substância essencialmente sistêmica e hematológica não especificada"},{"code":"T46","display":"Intoxicação por substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"T460","display":"Intoxicação por glicosídeos estimulantes do coração e substâncias de ação semelhante"},{"code":"T461","display":"Intoxicação por bloqueadores dos canais de cálcio"},{"code":"T462","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas antidisrítmicas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T463","display":"Intoxicação por vasodilatadores coronarianos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T464","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores da enzima de conversão da angiotensina"},{"code":"T465","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas anti-hipertensivas não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T466","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antihiperlipêmicas e antiarterioscleróticas"},{"code":"T467","display":"Intoxicação por vasodilatadores periféricos"},{"code":"T468","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antivaricosas, incluindo substâncias esclerosantes"},{"code":"T469","display":"Intoxicação por outras subst. e as não especificada que agem essenc. sobre o aparelho circulatório"},{"code":"T47","display":"Intoxicação por substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"T470","display":"Intoxicação por antagonistas dos receptores H2 da histamina"},{"code":"T471","display":"Intoxicação por outros antiácidos e drogas que inibem a secreção gástrica"},{"code":"T472","display":"Intoxicação por laxativos estimulantes"},{"code":"T473","display":"Intoxicação por laxativos salinos e osmóticos"},{"code":"T474","display":"Intoxicação por outros laxativos"},{"code":"T475","display":"Intoxicação por digestivos"},{"code":"T476","display":"Intoxicação por drogas antidiarréicas"},{"code":"T477","display":"Intoxicação por eméticos"},{"code":"T478","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias que atuam primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrintestinal"},{"code":"T479","display":"Intoxicação por substância não especificada que atua primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"T48","display":"Intox p/ subst que atua primáriamente sobre músculo liso e esqueléticos sobre aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"T480","display":"Intoxicação por drogas ocitócicas"},{"code":"T481","display":"Intoxicação por relaxantes musculares esqueléticos [bloqueadores neuromusculares]"},{"code":"T482","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias e as não especificadas que atuam sobre os músculos"},{"code":"T483","display":"Intoxicação por antitussígenos"},{"code":"T484","display":"Intoxicação por expectorantes"},{"code":"T485","display":"Intoxicação por drogas anti-resfriado"},{"code":"T486","display":"Intoxicação por antiasmáticos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T487","display":"Intoxicação por outras substâncias e as não espec. que atuam primar. sobre o aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"T49","display":"Intox p/ subst uso topico atuam pele mucosas medicams utiliz em oftalmo otorrinolaringo e odonto"},{"code":"T490","display":"Intoxicação por antifúngicos, antiinfecciosos e antiinflamat. de uso tópico, não class. noutra parte"},{"code":"T491","display":"Intoxicação por antipruriginosos"},{"code":"T492","display":"Intoxicação por adstringentes e detergentes de uso local"},{"code":"T493","display":"Intoxicação por emolientes, demulcentes e protetores"},{"code":"T494","display":"Intoxicação por ceratolíticos, ceratoplásticos e outras drogas/preparados p/ tratamento dos cabelos"},{"code":"T495","display":"Intoxicação por drogas e preparações de uso oftalmológico"},{"code":"T496","display":"Intoxicação por drogas e preparações de uso otorrinolaringológico"},{"code":"T497","display":"Intoxicação por drogas dentárias de uso tópico"},{"code":"T498","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas de uso tópico"},{"code":"T499","display":"Intoxicação por preparado de uso tópico, não especificado"},{"code":"T50","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas medicamentos e substancias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T500","display":"Intoxicação por mineralocorticóides e seus antagonistas"},{"code":"T501","display":"Intoxicação por diuréticos de alça"},{"code":"T502","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores da anidrase carbônica, benzotiazidas e outros diuréticos"},{"code":"T503","display":"Intoxicação por produtos que agem sobre o equilíbrio eletrolítico, calórico e hídrico"},{"code":"T504","display":"Intoxicação por drogas que agem sobre o metabolismo do ácido úrico"},{"code":"T505","display":"Intoxicação por inibidores do apetite"},{"code":"T506","display":"Intoxicação por antídotos e quelantes não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T507","display":"Intoxicação por analépticos e antagonistas dos receptores de opiáceos"},{"code":"T508","display":"Intoxicação por agentes de diagnóstico"},{"code":"T509","display":"Intoxicação por outras drogas, medicamentos e substâncias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T51","display":"Intoxicação por efeito tóxico do álcool"},{"code":"T510","display":"Efeito tóxico do etanol"},{"code":"T511","display":"Efeito tóxico do metanol"},{"code":"T512","display":"Efeito tóxico do 2-propanol"},{"code":"T513","display":"Efeito tóxico do óleo de fusel"},{"code":"T518","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros álcoois"},{"code":"T519","display":"Efeito tóxico de álcool não especificado"},{"code":"T52","display":"Intoxicação por efeito tóxico de solventes orgânicos"},{"code":"T520","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados do petróleo"},{"code":"T521","display":"Efeito tóxico do benzeno"},{"code":"T522","display":"Efeito tóxico de homólogos do benzeno"},{"code":"T523","display":"Efeito tóxico de glicóis"},{"code":"T524","display":"Efeito tóxico de cetonas"},{"code":"T528","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros solventes orgânicos"},{"code":"T529","display":"Efeito tóxico de solvente orgânico não especificado"},{"code":"T53","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogenicos de hidrocarbonetos alifaticos e aromáticos"},{"code":"T530","display":"Efeito tóxico do tetracloreto de carbono"},{"code":"T531","display":"Efeito tóxico do clorofórmio"},{"code":"T532","display":"Efeito tóxico do tricloroetileno"},{"code":"T533","display":"Efeito tóxico do tetracloroetileno"},{"code":"T534","display":"Efeito tóxico do diclorometano"},{"code":"T535","display":"Efeito tóxico do clorofluorcarbono"},{"code":"T536","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos alifáticos"},{"code":"T537","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos aromáticos"},{"code":"T539","display":"Efeito tóxico de derivados halogênicos de hidrocarbonetos alifáticos e aromáticos não especificados"},{"code":"T54","display":"Efeito tóxico de corrosivos"},{"code":"T540","display":"Efeito tóxico do fenol e homólogos do fenol"},{"code":"T541","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros compostos corrosivos orgânicos"},{"code":"T542","display":"Efeito tóxico de ácidos corrosivos e substâncias semelhantes"},{"code":"T543","display":"Efeito tóxico de bases (álcalis) cáusticas(os) e substâncias semelhantes"},{"code":"T549","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância corrosiva não especificada"},{"code":"T55","display":"Efeito tóxico de sabões e detergentes"},{"code":"T56","display":"Efeito tóxico de metais"},{"code":"T560","display":"Efeito tóxico do chumbo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T561","display":"Efeito tóxico do mercúrio e seus compostos"},{"code":"T562","display":"Efeito tóxico do cromo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T563","display":"Efeito tóxico do cádmio e seus compostos"},{"code":"T564","display":"Efeito tóxico do cobre e seus compostos"},{"code":"T565","display":"Efeito tóxico do zinco e seus compostos"},{"code":"T566","display":"Efeito tóxico do estanho e seus compostos"},{"code":"T567","display":"Efeito tóxico do berilo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T568","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros metais"},{"code":"T569","display":"Efeito tóxico de metal, não especificado"},{"code":"T57","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias inorgânicas"},{"code":"T570","display":"Efeito tóxico do arsênico e seus compostos"},{"code":"T571","display":"Efeito tóxico do fósforo e seus compostos"},{"code":"T572","display":"Efeito tóxico do manganês e seus compostos"},{"code":"T573","display":"Efeito tóxico do cianeto de hidrogênio (ácido cianídrico)"},{"code":"T578","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias inorgânicas especificadas"},{"code":"T579","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância inorgânica não especificada"},{"code":"T58","display":"Efeito tóxico do monóxido de carbono"},{"code":"T59","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros gases fumacas e vapores"},{"code":"T590","display":"Efeito tóxico de óxidos de nitrogênio"},{"code":"T591","display":"Efeito tóxico do dióxido de enxofre"},{"code":"T592","display":"Efeito tóxico de formaldeído"},{"code":"T593","display":"Efeito tóxico do gás lacrimogêneo"},{"code":"T594","display":"Efeito tóxico do cloro gasoso"},{"code":"T595","display":"Efeito tóxico do fluoreto gasoso e ácido fluorídrico"},{"code":"T596","display":"Efeito tóxico do ácido sulfídrico"},{"code":"T597","display":"Efeito tóxico do dióxido de carbono"},{"code":"T598","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros gases, fumaças e vapores especificados"},{"code":"T599","display":"Efeito tóxico de gases, fumaças e vapores não especificados"},{"code":"T60","display":"Efeito tóxico de pesticidas"},{"code":"T600","display":"Efeito tóxico de inseticidas organofosforados e carbamatos"},{"code":"T601","display":"Efeito tóxico de inseticidas halogenados"},{"code":"T602","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros inseticidas"},{"code":"T603","display":"Efeito tóxico de herbicidas e fungicidas"},{"code":"T604","display":"Efeito tóxico de rodenticidas"},{"code":"T608","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros pesticidas"},{"code":"T609","display":"Efeito tóxico de pesticida não especificado"},{"code":"T61","display":"Efeito tóxico de substancias nocivas consumidas como fruto do mar"},{"code":"T610","display":"Intoxicação pelo peixe ciguatera"},{"code":"T611","display":"Intoxicação por peixes escombrídeos"},{"code":"T612","display":"Outras intoxicações por peixes e mariscos"},{"code":"T618","display":"Efeito tóxico de outros frutos do mar"},{"code":"T619","display":"Efeito tóxico de frutos do mar não especificados"},{"code":"T62","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias nocivas ingeridas como alimento"},{"code":"T620","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de cogumelos"},{"code":"T621","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de frutos"},{"code":"T622","display":"Efeito tóxico de ingestão de outras (partes de) plantas"},{"code":"T628","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias nocivas ingeridas como alimento"},{"code":"T629","display":"Efeito tóxico de substâncias nocivas ingeridas como alimento, não especificadas"},{"code":"T63","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com animais venenosos"},{"code":"T630","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de serpente"},{"code":"T631","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de outros répteis"},{"code":"T632","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de escorpião"},{"code":"T633","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de aranha"},{"code":"T634","display":"Efeito tóxico do veneno de outros artrópodes"},{"code":"T635","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com peixe"},{"code":"T636","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com outros animais marinhos"},{"code":"T638","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com outros animais venenosos"},{"code":"T639","display":"Efeito tóxico de contato com animal venenoso não especificado"},{"code":"T64","display":"Efeito tóxico da aflatoxina e de outras micotoxinas contaminantes de alimentos"},{"code":"T65","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substancias e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T650","display":"Efeito tóxico de cianetos"},{"code":"T651","display":"Efeito tóxico da estricnina e seus sais"},{"code":"T652","display":"Efeito tóxico do tabaco e da nicotina"},{"code":"T653","display":"Efeito tóxico de nitroderivados e aminoderivados do benzeno e seus homólogos"},{"code":"T654","display":"Efeito tóxico do dissulfeto de carbono"},{"code":"T655","display":"Efeito tóxico da nitroglicerina e outros ácidos e ésteres nítricos"},{"code":"T656","display":"Efeito tóxico de tinturas e corantes, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T658","display":"Efeito tóxico de outras substâncias especificadas"},{"code":"T659","display":"Efeito tóxico de substância não especificada"},{"code":"T66","display":"Efeitos não especificados de radiação"},{"code":"T67","display":"Efeitos do calor e da luz"},{"code":"T670","display":"Golpe de calor e insolação"},{"code":"T671","display":"Síncope devida ao calor"},{"code":"T672","display":"Cãibras devidas ao calor"},{"code":"T673","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor e à perda hídrica"},{"code":"T674","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor e à perda de sal"},{"code":"T675","display":"Exaustão devida ao calor, sem especificação"},{"code":"T676","display":"Fadiga transitória devida ao calor"},{"code":"T677","display":"Edema devido ao calor"},{"code":"T678","display":"Outros efeitos do calor e da luz"},{"code":"T679","display":"Efeito do calor e da luz não especificado"},{"code":"T68","display":"Hipotermia"},{"code":"T69","display":"Outros efeitos da temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T690","display":"Mão e pé de imersão"},{"code":"T691","display":"Congelamento [chilblains]"},{"code":"T698","display":"Outros efeitos especificados de temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T699","display":"Efeito não especificado de temperatura reduzida"},{"code":"T70","display":"Efeitos da pressão atmosferica e da pressão da água"},{"code":"T700","display":"Otite barotraumática"},{"code":"T701","display":"Sinusite barotraumática"},{"code":"T702","display":"Outros efeitos das grandes altitude e os não especificados"},{"code":"T703","display":"Mal dos caixões [doença de descompressão]"},{"code":"T704","display":"Efeito dos fluidos em alta pressão"},{"code":"T708","display":"Outros efeitos da pressão atmosférica ou da pressão da água"},{"code":"T709","display":"Efeitos não especificados da pressão atmosférica ou da pressão da água"},{"code":"T71","display":"Asfixia"},{"code":"T73","display":"Efeitos de outras privações"},{"code":"T730","display":"Efeitos da fome"},{"code":"T731","display":"Efeitos da sede"},{"code":"T732","display":"Exaustão devida às intempéries"},{"code":"T733","display":"Exaustão devido a um esforço intenso"},{"code":"T738","display":"Outros efeitos de privação"},{"code":"T739","display":"Efeito não especificado de privação"},{"code":"T74","display":"Síndromes de maus tratos"},{"code":"T740","display":"Abandono"},{"code":"T741","display":"Sevícias físicas"},{"code":"T742","display":"Abuso sexual"},{"code":"T743","display":"Abuso psicológico"},{"code":"T748","display":"Outras síndromes especificadas de maus tratos"},{"code":"T749","display":"Síndrome não especificada de maus tratos"},{"code":"T75","display":"Efeito de outras causas externas"},{"code":"T750","display":"Efeitos do raio"},{"code":"T751","display":"Afogamento e submersão não mortal"},{"code":"T752","display":"Efeitos da vibração"},{"code":"T753","display":"Doença causada pelo movimento"},{"code":"T754","display":"Efeitos da corrente elétrica"},{"code":"T758","display":"Outros efeitos especificados de causas externas"},{"code":"T78","display":"Efeitos adversos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T780","display":"Choque anafilático devido à intolerância alimentar"},{"code":"T781","display":"Outras reações de intolerância alimentar não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T782","display":"Choque anafilático não especificado"},{"code":"T783","display":"Edema angioneurótico"},{"code":"T784","display":"Alergia não especificada"},{"code":"T788","display":"Outros efeitos adversos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T789","display":"Efeito adverso não especificado"},{"code":"T79","display":"Algumas complicações precoces dos traumatismos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T790","display":"Embolia gasosa (traumática)"},{"code":"T791","display":"Embolia gordurosa (traumática)"},{"code":"T792","display":"Hemorragia traumática secundária e recidivante"},{"code":"T793","display":"Infecção pós-traumática de ferimento não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T794","display":"Choque traumático"},{"code":"T795","display":"Anúria traumática"},{"code":"T796","display":"Isquemia muscular traumática"},{"code":"T797","display":"Enfisema subcutâneo de origem traumática"},{"code":"T798","display":"Outras complicações precoces de traumatismo"},{"code":"T799","display":"Complicação precoce não especificada de traumatismo"},{"code":"T80","display":"Complicações consequentes a infusão transfusão ou injeção terapeutica"},{"code":"T800","display":"Embolia aérea subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T801","display":"Complicações vasculares subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T802","display":"Infecções subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T803","display":"Reação de incompatibilidade abo"},{"code":"T804","display":"Reação de incompatibilidade rh"},{"code":"T805","display":"Choque anafilático devido a soro"},{"code":"T806","display":"Outras reações ao soro"},{"code":"T808","display":"Outras complicações subseqüentes à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T809","display":"Complicação não especificada subseqüente à infusão, transfusão e injeção terapêutica"},{"code":"T81","display":"Complicações de procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T810","display":"Hemorragia e hematoma complicando procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T811","display":"Choque durante ou resultante de procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T812","display":"Perfuração e laceração acidentais durante um procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T813","display":"Deiscência de ferida cirúrgica não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T814","display":"Infecção subseqüente a procedimento não classificada em outra parte"},{"code":"T815","display":"Corpo estranho deixado acident. em cavidade corporal ou em ferida operatória subseq. a procedimento"},{"code":"T816","display":"Reação aguda à substância estranha deixada acidentalmente durante um procedimento"},{"code":"T817","display":"Complicações vasculares subseqüentes a um procedimento não classificado em outra parte"},{"code":"T818","display":"Outras complicações de procedimentos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T819","display":"Complicação não especificada de procedimento"},{"code":"T82","display":"Complicações de dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos cardiacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T820","display":"Complicação mecânica de prótese valvular cardíaca"},{"code":"T821","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivo eletrônico cardíaco"},{"code":"T822","display":"Complicação mecânica de enxerto de ponte coronária e implantes de valvas"},{"code":"T823","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros enxertos vasculares"},{"code":"T824","display":"Complicação mecânica de cateter vascular de diálise"},{"code":"T825","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros dispositivos e implantes cardiovasculares"},{"code":"T826","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatórias devidas à prótese valvular cardíaca"},{"code":"T827","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a out. disposit., implantes e enxertos cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T828","display":"Outras complicações de dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T829","display":"Complicações não especificada de dispositivo protético, implante e enxerto cardíacos e vasculares"},{"code":"T83","display":"Complicações de dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos geniturinários internos"},{"code":"T830","display":"Complicação mecânica de cateter (de demora) urinário"},{"code":"T831","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos e implantes urinários"},{"code":"T832","display":"Complicação mecânica de enxerto de órgão urinário"},{"code":"T833","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivo intra-uterino (anticoncepcional)"},{"code":"T834","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos do trato genital"},{"code":"T835","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida à disposit. protético, implante e enxerto no aparelho 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reação inflamatória devidas à prótese articular interna"},{"code":"T846","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devidas a dispositivo de fixação interna [qualquer local]"},{"code":"T847","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a out. disposit. protét., implantes e enxertos ortop. internos"},{"code":"T848","display":"Outras complicações de dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos ortopédicos internos"},{"code":"T849","display":"Complicação não especificada de dispositivo protético, implante e enxerto ortopédicos internos"},{"code":"T85","display":"Complicação de outros dispositivos protéticos implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T850","display":"Complicação mecânica de shunt ventricular (comunicação) intracraniano"},{"code":"T851","display":"Complicação mecânica de estimulador eletrônico implantado no sistema nervoso"},{"code":"T852","display":"Complicação mecânica de lente intraocular"},{"code":"T853","display":"Complicações mecânicas de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos oculares"},{"code":"T854","display":"Complicação mecânica de prótese e implante mamários"},{"code":"T855","display":"Complicação mecânica de dispositivos protéticos, implante e enxerto gastrointestinais"},{"code":"T856","display":"Complicação mecânica de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos internos especificados"},{"code":"T857","display":"Infecção e reação inflamatória devida a outros dispositivos protét., implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T858","display":"Outras complicações de disposit. protét., implantes e enxertos internos não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"T859","display":"Complicação não especificada de outros dispositivos protéticos, implantes e enxertos internos"},{"code":"T86","display":"Falha e rejeição de orgãos e tecidos transplantados"},{"code":"T860","display":"Rejeição a transplante de medula óssea"},{"code":"T861","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de rim"},{"code":"T862","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de coração"},{"code":"T863","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante duplo de coração e pulmão"},{"code":"T864","display":"Falência ou rejeição de transplante de fígado"},{"code":"T868","display":"Outra insuficiência ou rejeição de outros órgãos ou tecidos transplantados"},{"code":"T869","display":"Falência e rejeição a transplante de órgão ou tecido não especificado"},{"code":"T87","display":"Complicações proprias de reimplante e amputação"},{"code":"T870","display":"Complicações de reimplante (de parte) de extremidade superior"},{"code":"T871","display":"Complicações de reimplante (de parte) de extremidade inferior"},{"code":"T872","display":"Complicações de outras partes reimplantadas do corpo"},{"code":"T873","display":"Neuroma de coto da amputação"},{"code":"T874","display":"Infecção de coto da amputação"},{"code":"T875","display":"Necrose do coto da amputação"},{"code":"T876","display":"Outras complicações e as não especificadas do coto de amputação"},{"code":"T88","display":"Outras complicações de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T880","display":"Infecção subseqüente à imunização"},{"code":"T881","display":"Outras complicações subseqüentes à imunização não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"T882","display":"Choque devido à anestesia"},{"code":"T883","display":"Hipertermia maligna devida à anestesia"},{"code":"T884","display":"Entubação falha ou difícil"},{"code":"T885","display":"Outras complicações de anestesia"},{"code":"T886","display":"Choque anafilático devido a efeito adverso de droga/medicam. correto e administ. maneira apropriada"},{"code":"T887","display":"Efeito adverso não especificado de droga ou medicamento"},{"code":"T888","display":"Outras complicações de cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos especificados não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"T889","display":"Complicação não especificada de cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos"},{"code":"T90","display":"Sequelas de traumatismo da cabeca"},{"code":"T900","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo superficial da cabeça"},{"code":"T901","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento da cabeça"},{"code":"T902","display":"Seqüelas de fratura de crânio e de ossos da face"},{"code":"T903","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervos cranianos"},{"code":"T904","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo do olho e da órbita"},{"code":"T905","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo intracraniano"},{"code":"T908","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados da cabeça"},{"code":"T909","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado da cabeça"},{"code":"T91","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T910","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo superficial e ferimento do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T911","display":"Seqüelas de fratura de coluna vertebral"},{"code":"T912","display":"Seqüelas de outra fratura do tórax e da pelve"},{"code":"T913","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de medula espinhal"},{"code":"T914","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de órgãos intratorácicos"},{"code":"T915","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de órgãos intra-abdominais e órgãos pélvicos"},{"code":"T918","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T919","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do pescoço e do tronco"},{"code":"T92","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do membro superior"},{"code":"T920","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento do membro superior"},{"code":"T921","display":"Seqüelas de fratura do braço"},{"code":"T922","display":"Seqüelas de fratura ao nível do punho e da mão"},{"code":"T923","display":"Seqüelas de luxação, entorse e distensão do membro superior"},{"code":"T924","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervo de membro superior"},{"code":"T925","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de músculo e tendão do membro superior"},{"code":"T926","display":"Seqüelas de esmagamento e amputação traumática do membro superior"},{"code":"T928","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do membro superior"},{"code":"T929","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do membro superior"},{"code":"T93","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos do membro inferior"},{"code":"T930","display":"Seqüelas de ferimento do membro inferior"},{"code":"T931","display":"Seqüelas de fratura do fêmur"},{"code":"T932","display":"Seqüelas de outras fraturas do membro inferior"},{"code":"T933","display":"Seqüelas de luxação, entorse e distensão do membro inferior"},{"code":"T934","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de nervo do membro inferior"},{"code":"T935","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo de músculo e tendão do membro inferior"},{"code":"T936","display":"Seqüelas de esmagamento e amputação traumática do membro inferior"},{"code":"T938","display":"Seqüelas de outros traumatismos especificados do membro inferior"},{"code":"T939","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismo não especificado do membro inferior"},{"code":"T94","display":"Sequelas de traumatismos envolvendo multiplas regiões do corpo e as não especificadas"},{"code":"T940","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismos envolvendo regiões múltiplas do corpo"},{"code":"T941","display":"Seqüelas de traumatismos não especificados por regiões do corpo"},{"code":"T95","display":"Sequelas de queimaduras corrosões e geladuras"},{"code":"T950","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura da cabeça e pescoço"},{"code":"T951","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do tronco"},{"code":"T952","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do membro superior"},{"code":"T953","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura do membro inferior"},{"code":"T954","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura e corrosão classificável só de acordo c/a extensão da área corporal envolvida"},{"code":"T958","display":"Seqüelas de outra queimadura, corrosões e geladuras especificadas"},{"code":"T959","display":"Seqüelas de queimadura, corrosão e geladura de local não especificado"},{"code":"T96","display":"Seqüelas de intoxicação por drogas, medicamentos e substâncias biológicas"},{"code":"T97","display":"Seqüelas de efeitos tóxicos de substâncias de origem predominantemente não-medicinal"},{"code":"T98","display":"Outros efeitos de causas externas e dos não especificados"},{"code":"T980","display":"Seqüelas dos efeitos da penetração de corpo estranho através de orifício natural"},{"code":"T981","display":"Seqüelas em outros efeitos de causas externas e os não especificados"},{"code":"T982","display":"Seqüelas de algumas complicações precoces de traumatismos"},{"code":"T983","display":"Seqüelas de complicações dos cuidados médicos e cirúrgicos não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"U04","display":"Síndrome respiratória aguda grave [severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS]"},{"code":"U049","display":"Síndrome respiratória aguda grave [Severe acute respiratory syndrome) [SARS], não especificada"},{"code":"U80","display":"Agente resistente à penicilina e antibióticos relacionados"},{"code":"U800","display":"Agente resistente à penicilina"},{"code":"U801","display":"Agente resistente à meticilina"},{"code":"U808","display":"Agente resistente a outro antibiótico relacionado à penicilina"},{"code":"U81","display":"Agente resistente à vancomicina e antibióticos relacionados"},{"code":"U810","display":"Agente resistente à vancomicina"},{"code":"U818","display":"Agente resistente a outros antibióticos relacionado à vancomicina"},{"code":"U88","display":"Agente resistente a múltiplos antibióticos"},{"code":"U89","display":"Agente resistente a outros antibióticos e a antibióticos não especificados"},{"code":"U898","display":"Agente resistente a outro antibiótico especificado único"},{"code":"U899","display":"Agente resistente a antibiótico não especificado"},{"code":"V01","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V010","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V011","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V019","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a pedal - acidente não especificado se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V02","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V020","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V021","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V029","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. a motor de 2/3 rodas - acidente não especif. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V03","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro), pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V030","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V031","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V039","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ carro, pick-up ou caminhonete - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V04","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou com um ônibus"},{"code":"V040","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V041","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V049","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pesado ou ônibus - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V05","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V050","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V051","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V059","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ trem/veículo ferroviário - acidente não especif. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V06","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V060","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V061","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V069","display":"Pedestre traum. em col. c/ outro veículo não-motorizado - acidente não espec. se de trânsito ou não"},{"code":"V09","display":"Pedestre traumatizado em outro acidente de transporte e em acidentes de transporte não especificados"},{"code":"V090","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito, envolvendo outros veículos a motor e os não especificados"},{"code":"V091","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V092","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de trânsito envolvendo outros veículos e os não especificados, a motor"},{"code":"V093","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V099","display":"Pedestre traum. em acid. de transporte não especificado"},{"code":"V10","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V100","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V101","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V102","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - ciclista não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V103","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V104","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V105","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V109","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com um pedestre/animal - ciclista não espec. traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V11","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V110","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - condutor traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V111","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - passageiro traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V112","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V113","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - pessoa traumat. ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V114","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V115","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - passageiro traumat. em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V119","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com outro veículo a pedal - ciclista ñ espec. traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V12","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V120","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V121","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V122","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V123","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V124","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V125","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V129","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo motor de 2/3 rodas - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V13","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel, pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V130","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V131","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V132","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V133","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V134","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V135","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com autom., pick-up ou caminh. - passageiro traumat. em acidente 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trânsito"},{"code":"V149","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. c/ veíc. trans. pes. ou ônibus - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V15","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um trem ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V150","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V151","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V152","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V153","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V154","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V155","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V159","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com trem ou veíc. ferroviário - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V16","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V160","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V161","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V162","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V163","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V164","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V165","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V169","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com veículo não-motorizado - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V17","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V170","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - condutor traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V171","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - passag. traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V172","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - cicl. não espec. traum. em acid. não-trâns."},{"code":"V173","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - pessoa traumat. ao subir/descer do veículo"},{"code":"V174","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - condutor traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V175","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - passageiro traumat. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V179","display":"Ciclista traum. em col. com objeto fixo ou parado - cicl. não espec. traumat. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V18","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V180","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - condutor traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V181","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - passageiro traumat. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V182","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - ciclista ñ espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V183","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V184","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V185","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V189","display":"Ciclista traum. em acid. de transporte s/colisão - ciclista não espec. traumat. em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V19","display":"Ciclista traumatizado em outro acidente de transporte e em acidentes de transporte não especificados"},{"code":"V190","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veículos ñ espec., a motor, em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V191","display":"Passageiro traum. em col. c/outro veíc. e c/veíc. ñ espec., a motor, em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V192","display":"Ciclista não espec. traum. em col. c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor, em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V193","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V194","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especificado., a motor, em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V195","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não especif., a motor, em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V196","display":"Ciclista não espec. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V198","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V199","display":"Ciclista [qualquer] traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V20","display":"Motociclista traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V200","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V201","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V202","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - motocicl. não espec. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V203","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - pessoa traumatizado ao subir ou descer do veículo"},{"code":"V204","display":"Motociclista traum. em col. c/pedestre/animal - condutor traumatizado em um acidente de 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trânsito"},{"code":"V377","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V379","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. d tric. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V38","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V380","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V381","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V382","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V383","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V384","display":"Ocupante tric. motor. traum. acid. transp s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer 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motor em acid ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V393","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V394","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V395","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V396","display":"Ocupante não espec. de tric. motor traum. em col. c/out. veíc. não espec. a motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V398","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado traumatizado em outros acidentes de trânsito especificados"},{"code":"V399","display":"Ocupante de um triciclo motorizado, traumatizado em acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V40","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V400","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V401","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V402","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V403","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V404","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V405","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V406","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V407","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V409","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V41","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V410","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V411","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V412","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V413","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V414","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V415","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V416","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V417","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V419","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V42","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel traumatizado em colisão c/ outro veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V420","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V421","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V422","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V423","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V424","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V425","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V426","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V427","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V429","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V43","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel, pick-up ou caminhonete"},{"code":"V430","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V431","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V432","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V433","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V434","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V435","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V436","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V437","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acident trânsito"},{"code":"V439","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V44","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V440","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V441","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V442","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V443","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V444","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V445","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V446","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V447","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V449","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V45","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V450","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V451","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V452","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V453","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V454","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V455","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V456","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V457","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V459","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V46","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V460","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V461","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V462","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V463","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V464","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V465","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V466","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V467","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V469","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V47","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V470","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V471","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V472","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V473","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V474","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V475","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V476","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V477","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V479","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V48","display":"Ocupante de um automóvel (carro) traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V480","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V481","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V482","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V483","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V484","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V485","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V486","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V487","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V489","display":"Ocupante de carro traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V49","display":"Ocupante de automóvel traumatizado em outro acidentes de transporte e em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V490","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V491","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V492","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de um carro traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. a motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V493","display":"Ocupante qualquer de um carro traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V494","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V495","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V496","display":"Ocupante não espec. de um carro traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V498","display":"Ocupante de carro traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V499","display":"Ocupante de carro traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V50","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V500","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V501","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V502","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V503","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V504","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V505","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V506","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V507","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V509","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/ped./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V51","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V510","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V511","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V512","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V513","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V514","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V515","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V516","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V517","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V519","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V52","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V520","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V521","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V522","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext veíc traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V523","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V524","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V525","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V526","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V527","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V529","display":"Ocupante caminhon. traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V53","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro) ou uma caminhoneta"},{"code":"V530","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V531","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V532","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V533","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V534","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V535","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V536","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V537","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V539","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V54","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V540","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V541","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V542","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V543","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V544","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V545","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V546","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V547","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V549","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/trans. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V55","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V550","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V551","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V552","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V553","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V554","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V555","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V556","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V557","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V559","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V56","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V560","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V561","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V562","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V563","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V564","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V565","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V566","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V567","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V569","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V57","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V570","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V571","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V572","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V573","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V574","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V575","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V576","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V577","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V579","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V58","display":"Ocupante de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V580","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V581","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V582","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V583","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V584","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V585","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V586","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V587","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V589","display":"Ocupante caminhonete traum. acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V59","display":"Ocupante de caminhonete traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V590","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V591","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V592","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de um caminh. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V593","display":"Ocupante qualquer de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V594","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V595","display":"Passageiro caminhonet. traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V596","display":"Ocupante não espec. de caminhonete traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V598","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de uma caminhonete traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V599","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de uma caminhonete traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V60","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V600","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V601","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V602","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V603","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V604","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V605","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V606","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V607","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V609","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V61","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V610","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V611","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V612","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V613","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V614","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V615","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V616","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V617","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V619","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. de pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V62","display":"Ocupanteveículo transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/ veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V620","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V621","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V622","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V623","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V624","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V625","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V626","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V627","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V629","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V63","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/automóvel ou uma caminhonete"},{"code":"V630","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V631","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V632","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V633","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V634","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V635","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V636","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V637","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V639","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V64","display":"Ocupante veículo transporte pesado traumat colisão c/ outro veículotransporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V640","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V641","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V642","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V643","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V644","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V645","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V646","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V647","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V649","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V65","display":"Ocupante veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão c/ trem ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V650","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V651","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V652","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V653","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V654","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V655","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V656","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V657","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V659","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V66","display":"Ocupante de veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V660","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V661","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V662","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V663","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V664","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V665","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V666","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V667","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V669","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V67","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V670","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V671","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V672","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V673","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V674","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V675","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V676","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V677","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V679","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. col. c/obj.fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V68","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V680","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V681","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V682","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V683","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V684","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V685","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V686","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V687","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V689","display":"Ocupante trans. pesado traum. acid. tran. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V69","display":"Ocup de veículo transporte pesado traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V690","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V691","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V692","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de veic. pes. traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V693","display":"Ocupante de veículo de transporte pesado traumatizado em acidente não especificado e ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V694","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V695","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veículo não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V696","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veíc. transp. pesado traum. em col. c/outros veíc. a motor em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V698","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traum. em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V699","display":"Ocupante de um veículo de transporte pesado traum. em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V70","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V700","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V701","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V702","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V703","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V704","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V705","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V706","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V707","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V709","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/pedest./animal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V71","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V710","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V711","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V712","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V713","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V714","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V715","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V716","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V717","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V719","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V72","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um outro veículo a motor de duas ou três rodas"},{"code":"V720","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V721","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V722","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V723","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V724","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V725","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V726","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V727","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V729","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. 2/3 rodas - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V73","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um automóvel (carro) ou uma caminhonete"},{"code":"V730","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V731","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V732","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V733","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V734","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V735","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V736","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V737","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V739","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/carro/pick-up - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V74","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um veículo de transporte pesado ou um ônibus"},{"code":"V740","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V741","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V742","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V743","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V744","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V745","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V746","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V747","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V749","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/transp. pesado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V75","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V750","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V751","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V752","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V753","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V754","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V755","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V756","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V757","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V759","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ferrov. - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V76","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com outro veículo não-motorizado"},{"code":"V760","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V761","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V762","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V763","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V764","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V765","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V766","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V767","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V769","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/veíc. ñ-motor - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V77","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em colisão com um objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V770","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V771","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V772","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V773","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V774","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V775","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V776","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V777","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V779","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em col. c/obj. fixo/parado - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V78","display":"Ocupante de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente de transporte sem colisão"},{"code":"V780","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V781","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passag. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V782","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj ext veíc. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V783","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. tric. traum. acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V784","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer veículo"},{"code":"V785","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - condutor traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V786","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - passageiro traumatizado em acidente trânsito"},{"code":"V787","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - pess. viaj. ext. veíc. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V789","display":"Ocupante de ônibus traum. em acid. transp. s/colisão - ocup. ñ espec. do carro traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V79","display":"Ocupante ônibus traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte e em acidentes de transporte ne"},{"code":"V790","display":"Condutor traum. em col. c/outr. veíc. e c/veíc. não especif. a motor em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V791","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veíc. não espec. a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V792","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de ônibus traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veíc. motor em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V793","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V794","display":"Condutor traum. em colisão c/out. veíc. e c/veículos não especif. a motor em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V795","display":"Passageiro traum. em colisão c/outros veíc. e c/veículo não especif. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V796","display":"Ocupante não espec. de ônibus traumatizado em colisão c/outros veíc. a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V798","display":"Ocupante [ qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V799","display":"Ocupante [qualquer] de um ônibus traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V80","display":"Pessoa montada em animal ou ocup deveículo atração animal traumatizado emacidente de transporte"},{"code":"V800","display":"Queda/Ejeção de pessoa montada em animal ou ocupante de veíc. tração animal em acidente sem colisão"},{"code":"V801","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/pedestre ou um animal"},{"code":"V802","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veículo a pedal"},{"code":"V803","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veículo motor de 2/3 rodas"},{"code":"V804","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/carro, caminhonete, etc."},{"code":"V805","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/veíc. motor especificado"},{"code":"V806","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/trem ou veíc. ferroviário"},{"code":"V807","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/outro veíc. não-motorizado"},{"code":"V808","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em col. c/objeto fixo ou parado"},{"code":"V809","display":"Pessoa montada em animal/ocupante de veíc. tração animal traum. em out. acid. de transp. ñ especif."},{"code":"V81","display":"Ocupante de um trem (comboio) ou um veículo ferroviário traumatizado em um acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V810","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V811","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V812","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com ou atingido por material rodante"},{"code":"V813","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traum. em colisão com outro objeto"},{"code":"V814","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um trem [comboio] ou de um veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V815","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado devido a uma queda no interior dos mesmos"},{"code":"V816","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado devido a queda do trem ou do veículo ferroviário"},{"code":"V817","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em razão de descarrilhamento s/colisão antecedente"},{"code":"V818","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em outro acidente ferroviário especificado"},{"code":"V819","display":"Ocupante de trem/veículo ferroviário traumatizado em um acidente ferroviário não especificado"},{"code":"V82","display":"Ocupante de um bonde (carro eletrico) traumatizado emum acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V820","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V821","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com veículo a motor em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V822","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com ou atingido por material rodante"},{"code":"V823","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traum. em colisão com outro objeto"},{"code":"V824","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um bonde [carro elétrico]"},{"code":"V825","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a uma queda no interior do mesmo"},{"code":"V826","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a uma queda do mesmo"},{"code":"V827","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado devido a um descarrilhamento sem colisão antecedente"},{"code":"V828","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado em outros acidentes de transporte especificados"},{"code":"V829","display":"Ocupante de bonde [carro elétrico] traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito não especificado"},{"code":"V83","display":"Ocupante veículo especial a motor usado em areas industriais traumatizado em acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V830","display":"Condutor de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V831","display":"Passageiro de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acid. de trânsito"},{"code":"V832","display":"Pessoa viaj. exter. veículo especial a motor usado princ. em áreas indust. traum. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V833","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas indust. traum. em acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V834","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir/descer de veículo especial a motor usado princip. em áreas industriais"},{"code":"V835","display":"Condutor de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V836","display":"Passageiro de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. em áreas industriais traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V837","display":"Pessoa viaj. exter. veículo especial a motor usado princ. áreas indust. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V839","display":"Ocupante ñ espec. de veíc. especial a motor usado princ. áreas indust. traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V84","display":"Ocupante veículo especial a motor de uso essencial agricola traumatizado em acidente de transporte"},{"code":"V840","display":"Condutor de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traumatizado em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V841","display":"Passageiro de veículo especial a motor de uso essencialmente agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V842","display":"Pessoa viajando no ext. de veíc. esp. a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V843","display":"Ocupante não especif. de veíc. espec. a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V844","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um veículo especial a motor de uso essencialmente agrícola"},{"code":"V845","display":"Condutor de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V846","display":"Passageiro de veículo especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V847","display":"Pessoa viajando ext. de veíc. especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V849","display":"Ocupante não especif. de veíc. especial a motor de uso essenc. agrícola traum. em acid. ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V85","display":"Ocupante de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de tansporte"},{"code":"V850","display":"Condutor de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V851","display":"Passageiro de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V852","display":"Pessoa viajando no exterior de veíc. a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V853","display":"Ocupante não especificado de veículo a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente de trânsito"},{"code":"V854","display":"Pessoa traumatizada ao subir ou descer de um veículo a motor especial de construções"},{"code":"V855","display":"Condutor de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V856","display":"Passageiro de um veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em um acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V857","display":"Pessoa viajando no exter. de veículo a motor especial de construções traum. em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V859","display":"Ocupante não espec. de veículo a motor especial de construções traumatizado em acidente ñ-trânsito"},{"code":"V86","display":"Ocup veic espec p/ qq terr ouout veic a motor proj essenc p/ uso n em via publ traumat acid transp"},{"code":"V860","display":"Condutor veíc. espec. p/qq. terreno/veíc. motor proj. essenc. p/ñ uso via púb. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V861","display":"Passag. veíc. espec. p/qq. terreno/veíc. motor proj. essenc. p/ñ uso via púb. traum. acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V862","display":"Pessoa viaj ext veíc espec p/qq terreno/veíc motor proj essenc p/ñ uso via púb traum acid. trânsito"},{"code":"V863","display":"Ocupante ñ espec veíc espec p/qq terreno/veíc motor proj essenc p/ñ uso via púb traum acid trânsito"},{"code":"V864","display":"Pessoa traum subir/descer 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escolas, out. inst. e área de adm. públ."},{"code":"Y263","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - área para prát. de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y264","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - rua e estrada"},{"code":"Y265","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y266","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y267","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - fazenda"},{"code":"Y268","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - outros locais especificados"},{"code":"Y269","display":"Exposição a fumaça, fogo e chamas, intenção ñ determinada - local não especificado"},{"code":"Y27","display":"Exposição a vapor de água gases ou objetos quentes intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y270","display":"Exposição a vapor dágua, gases ou 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especificado"},{"code":"Y28","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y280","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - residência"},{"code":"Y281","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - habitação coletiva"},{"code":"Y282","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - escolas, outras instit. e áreas de administração pública"},{"code":"Y283","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - área para a prática de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y284","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - rua e estrada"},{"code":"Y285","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y286","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y287","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - fazenda"},{"code":"Y288","display":"Contato com objeto cortante ou penetrante - outros locais 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áreas de comércio e de serviços"},{"code":"Y316","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - áreas industriais e em construção"},{"code":"Y317","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - fazenda"},{"code":"Y318","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - outros locais especificados"},{"code":"Y319","display":"Queda, perman. ou corrida diante de obj. em mov. - local não especificado"},{"code":"Y32","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor intenção não determinada"},{"code":"Y320","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - residência"},{"code":"Y321","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - habitação coletiva"},{"code":"Y322","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - escolas, outras instit. e áreas de administração pública"},{"code":"Y323","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - área para a prática de esportes e atletismo"},{"code":"Y324","display":"Impacto de um veículo a motor - rua e 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biológicas"},{"code":"Y367","display":"Operações de guerra envolvendo armas químicas e outros meios de combate não-convencionais"},{"code":"Y368","display":"Operações de guerra ocorridas após a cessação das hostilidades"},{"code":"Y369","display":"Operações de guerra não especificadas"},{"code":"Y40","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibióticos sistemicos"},{"code":"Y400","display":"Efeitos adversos de penicilinas"},{"code":"Y401","display":"Efeitos adversos de cefalosporinas e outras betalactaminas"},{"code":"Y402","display":"Efeitos adversos do grupo do cloranfenicol"},{"code":"Y403","display":"Efeitos adversos de macrolídeos"},{"code":"Y404","display":"Efeitos adversos de tetraciclinas"},{"code":"Y405","display":"Efeitos adversos de aminoglicosídeos"},{"code":"Y406","display":"Efeitos adversos de rifamicinas"},{"code":"Y407","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibióticos antifúngicos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"Y408","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antibióticos administrados por via sistêmica"},{"code":"Y409","display":"Efeitos adversos de antibiótico sistêmico, não especificado"},{"code":"Y41","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistemicos"},{"code":"Y410","display":"Efeitos adversos de sulfonamidas"},{"code":"Y411","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antimicobacterianas"},{"code":"Y412","display":"Efeitos adversos de antimaláricos e drogas que atuam sobre outros protozoários parasitas do sangue"},{"code":"Y413","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas antiprotozoárias"},{"code":"Y414","display":"Efeitos adversos de anti-helmínticos"},{"code":"Y415","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antivirais"},{"code":"Y418","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários especificados"},{"code":"Y419","display":"Efeitos adversos de antiinfecciosos e antiparasitários sistêmicos não especificados"},{"code":"Y42","display":"Efeitos adversos de hormonios e seus substitutos sintéticos e antagonistas ncop"},{"code":"Y420","display":"Efeitos adversos de glicocorticóides e análogos sintéticos"},{"code":"Y421","display":"Efeitos adversos de hormônios e substitutos da tireóide"},{"code":"Y422","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antitireoidianas"},{"code":"Y423","display":"Efeitos adversos de insulina e hipoglicêmicos orais (antidiabéticos)"},{"code":"Y424","display":"Efeitos adversos de anticoncepcionais [contraceptivos] orais"},{"code":"Y425","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros estrógenos e progestágenos"},{"code":"Y426","display":"Efeitos adversos de antigonadotrofinas, antiestrógenos e antiandrógenos, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y427","display":"Efeitos adversos de andrógenos e anabolizantes congêneres"},{"code":"Y428","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros hormônios e os não especificados e seus substitutos sintéticos"},{"code":"Y429","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antagonistas hormonais e os não especificados"},{"code":"Y43","display":"Efeitos 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tetracíclicos"},{"code":"Y491","display":"Efeitos adversos de antidepressivos inibidores da mono-amino-oxidase"},{"code":"Y492","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antidepressivos e os não especificados"},{"code":"Y493","display":"Efeitos adversos de antipsicóticos e neurolépticos fenotiazínicos"},{"code":"Y494","display":"Efeitos adversos de neurolépticos a base da butirofenona e do tioxanteno"},{"code":"Y495","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros antipsicóticos e neurolépticos"},{"code":"Y496","display":"Efeitos adversos de psicodislépticos [alucinógenos]"},{"code":"Y497","display":"Efeitos adversos de psicoestimulantes que podem provocar dependência"},{"code":"Y498","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias psicotrópicas, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y499","display":"Efeitos adversos de substância psicotrópica, não especificada"},{"code":"Y50","display":"Efeitos adversos de estimulantes do sistema nervoso central não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y500","display":"Efeitos adversos de analépticos"},{"code":"Y501","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas de receptores dos opiáceos"},{"code":"Y502","display":"Efeitos adversos de metilxantinas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y508","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros estimulantes do sistema nervoso central"},{"code":"Y509","display":"Efeitos adversos de estimulante do sistema nervoso central, não especificado"},{"code":"Y51","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas que atuam primáriamente sobre o sistema nervoso autônomo"},{"code":"Y510","display":"Efeitos adversos de agentes anticolinesterásicos"},{"code":"Y511","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros parasimpaticomiméticos [colinérgicos]"},{"code":"Y512","display":"Efeitos adversos de ganglioplégicos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y513","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros parassimpaticolíticos e espasmolíticos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y514","display":"Efeitos adversos de agonistas predominantemente alfa-adrenorreceptores, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y515","display":"Efeitos adversos de agonistas predominantemente beta-adrenorreceptores, não classif. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y516","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas alfa-adrenorreceptores, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y517","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas beta-adrenorreceptores, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y518","display":"Efeitos adversos de bloqueadores nervosos de ação central e adrenérgicos, não classif. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y519","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam primar. s/ o sist. nerv. autônomo e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y52","display":"Efeitos adversos de substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelho cardiovascular"},{"code":"Y520","display":"Efeitos adversos de glicosídeos estimulantes do coração e substâncias de ação semelhante"},{"code":"Y521","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas do cálcio [inibidores do cálcio]"},{"code":"Y522","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas antidisrrítmicas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y523","display":"Efeitos adversos de vasodilatadores coronarianos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y524","display":"Efeitos adversos de inibidores da enzima de conversão da angiotensina"},{"code":"Y525","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas anti-hipertensivas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y526","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas anti-hiperlipidêmicas e antiarterioscleróticas"},{"code":"Y527","display":"Efeitos adversos de vasodilatadores periféricos"},{"code":"Y528","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antivaricosas, incluindo os agentes esclerosantes"},{"code":"Y529","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam primar. s/o apar. cardiovascular e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y53","display":"Efeitos adversos de substancias que atuam primáriamente sobre o aparelhogastrointestinal"},{"code":"Y530","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas dos receptores h2 da histamina"},{"code":"Y531","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros medicamentos antiácidos e anti-secreção gástrica"},{"code":"Y532","display":"Efeitos adversos de laxativos estimulantes"},{"code":"Y533","display":"Efeitos adversos de laxativos salinos e osmóticos"},{"code":"Y534","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros laxativos"},{"code":"Y535","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos que facilitam a digestão"},{"code":"Y536","display":"Efeitos adversos de antidiarréicos"},{"code":"Y537","display":"Efeitos adversos de eméticos"},{"code":"Y538","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias que atuam primariamente sobre o aparelho gastrointestinal"},{"code":"Y539","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias que atuam primar. s/o aparelho gastrointestinal, não especificadas"},{"code":"Y54","display":"Efeit adverso subst que atuam primáriamente sobre metabolismo da água sais minerais eácido urico"},{"code":"Y540","display":"Efeitos adversos de mineralocorticóides"},{"code":"Y541","display":"Efeitos adversos de antagonistas dos mineralocorticóides [antagonistas da aldosterona]"},{"code":"Y542","display":"Efeitos adversos de inibidores da anidrase carbônica"},{"code":"Y543","display":"Efeitos adversos de derivados da benzotiadiazína"},{"code":"Y544","display":"Efeitos adversos de diuréticos de alça"},{"code":"Y545","display":"Efeitos adversos de outros diuréticos"},{"code":"Y546","display":"Efeitos adversos de agentes que atuam sobre o equilíbrio eletrolítico, calórico e hídrico"},{"code":"Y547","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos que atuam sobre o metabolismo de cálcio"},{"code":"Y548","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas que atuam sobre o metabolismo de ácido úrico"},{"code":"Y549","display":"Efeitos adversos de sais minerais não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y55","display":"Efeito adverso subst que atuam primáriamente músculos lisos e esqueléticos o aparelho respiratório"},{"code":"Y550","display":"Efeitos adversos de ocitócicos"},{"code":"Y551","display":"Efeitos adversos de relaxantes da muscul. esquelética [bloqueadores neuromusculares] [curarizantes]"},{"code":"Y552","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias que atuam primar. sobre os músculos e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y553","display":"Efeitos adversos de antitússicos"},{"code":"Y554","display":"Efeitos adversos de expectorantes"},{"code":"Y555","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas anti-resfriado comum"},{"code":"Y556","display":"Efeitos adversos de antiasmáticos, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y559","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas que atuam sobre o aparelho respiratório e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y56","display":"Ef adv subst uso topicoatuam pele e memb mucosa drogas de uso oftalmol otorrinolaringol e dentário"},{"code":"Y560","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas antifúng., antiinfec. e antiinflam. de uso local, ñ class. em outra parte"},{"code":"Y561","display":"Efeitos adversos de antipruriginosos"},{"code":"Y562","display":"Efeitos adversos de adstringentes e detergentes locais"},{"code":"Y563","display":"Efeitos adversos de emolientes, suavizantes e protetores da pele"},{"code":"Y564","display":"Efeitos adversos de ceratolíticos, ceratoplásticos e outros medicamentos e preparações capilares"},{"code":"Y565","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos e preparações de uso oftalmológico"},{"code":"Y566","display":"Efeitos adversos de medicamentos e preparações usados em otorrinolaringologia"},{"code":"Y567","display":"Efeitos adversos de drogas de uso dentário aplicadas topicamente"},{"code":"Y568","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias de uso tópico"},{"code":"Y569","display":"Efeitos adversos de substância não especificada de uso tópico"},{"code":"Y57","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas e medicamentos e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y570","display":"Efeitos adversos de depressores do apetite [anoréxicos]"},{"code":"Y571","display":"Efeitos adversos de lipotrópicos"},{"code":"Y572","display":"Efeitos adversos de antídotos e agentes quelantes, não classificados em outra parte"},{"code":"Y573","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias para restringir a ingestão de álcool"},{"code":"Y574","display":"Efeitos adversos de excipientes farmacêuticos"},{"code":"Y575","display":"Efeitos adversos de substâncias utilizadas como contraste em radiologia"},{"code":"Y576","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras substâncias para fins diagnósticos"},{"code":"Y577","display":"Efeitos adversos de vitaminas, não classificadas em outra parte"},{"code":"Y578","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras drogas e medicamentos"},{"code":"Y579","display":"Efeitos adversos de droga e medicamento não especificado"},{"code":"Y58","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas bactérianas"},{"code":"Y580","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina bcg"},{"code":"Y581","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antitifoídica e antiparafoídica"},{"code":"Y582","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina anticolérica"},{"code":"Y583","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antipeste"},{"code":"Y584","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antitetânica"},{"code":"Y585","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antidiftérica"},{"code":"Y586","display":"Efeitos adversos da vacina antipertussis, incl. as combin. em que um dos component. é antipertussis"},{"code":"Y588","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas bacter. mistas, exceto as combin. em que um dos compon. é antipertussis"},{"code":"Y589","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas bacterianas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y59","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas e substancias biológicas e as não especificadas"},{"code":"Y590","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antivirais"},{"code":"Y591","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas anti-rickettsias"},{"code":"Y592","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacinas antiprotozoários"},{"code":"Y593","display":"Efeitos adversos da imunoglobulina"},{"code":"Y598","display":"Efeitos adversos de outras vacinas e substâncias biológicas especificadas"},{"code":"Y599","display":"Efeitos adversos de vacina ou substância biológica, não especificada"},{"code":"Y60","display":"Corte punção perfuração ou hemorragia acidental durante prestação de cuidados medicos ou cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y600","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y601","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y602","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y603","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y604","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y605","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y606","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. aspir.,punção ou outro tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y607","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais durante a administração de enema"},{"code":"Y608","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. a prest. outros cuidados cirúrg. e médicos"},{"code":"Y609","display":"Corte, punção, perfuração ou hemorragia acidentais dur. a prest. cuidado cirúrg. e médico, ñ espec."},{"code":"Y61","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante a prestação de cuidados cirurgicos e medicos"},{"code":"Y610","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y611","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y612","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y613","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y614","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y615","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y616","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante aspir., punção ou out. tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y617","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante a extração de um cateter ou de compressas"},{"code":"Y618","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante prest. de outro cuidado cirúrgico e médico"},{"code":"Y619","display":"Objeto estranho deixado acidentalmente no corpo durante prest. cuidado cirúr./médico ñ especificados"},{"code":"Y62","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de cuidadoscirurgicos e medicos"},{"code":"Y620","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y621","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante infusão ou transfusão"},{"code":"Y622","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante hemodiálise ou outras perfusões"},{"code":"Y623","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante injeção ou vacinação (imunização)"},{"code":"Y624","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante exame endoscópico"},{"code":"Y625","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante cateterismo cardíaco"},{"code":"Y626","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante aspiração, punção ou outro tipo de cateterização"},{"code":"Y628","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de outro cuidado cirúrgico e médico"},{"code":"Y629","display":"Assepsia insuficiente durante a prestação de cuidado cirúrgico e médico não especificados"},{"code":"Y63","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y630","display":"Administração de quantidade excessiva de sangue ou de um outro líquido durante transfusão ou infusão"},{"code":"Y631","display":"Diluição incorreta de líquido usado durante a infusão"},{"code":"Y632","display":"Superdosagem de radiação administrada durante a terapia"},{"code":"Y633","display":"Exposição inadvertida de paciente a radiação durante a prestação de cuidado médico"},{"code":"Y634","display":"Erro de dosagem na terapia por eletrochoque ou choque insulínico"},{"code":"Y635","display":"Temperatura inadequada durante aplicação local ou curativo"},{"code":"Y636","display":"Não administração de droga, medicamento ou substância biológica necessária"},{"code":"Y638","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de outro cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y639","display":"Erros de dosagem durante a prestação de cuidados médico e cirúrgico, não especificados"},{"code":"Y64","display":"Acidente por medicamentos ou substancias biológicas contaminados"},{"code":"Y640","display":"Transfusão ou infusão de medicamento ou substância biológica contaminados"},{"code":"Y641","display":"Injeção ou vacinação com medicamento ou substância biológica contaminados"},{"code":"Y648","display":"Administração por outros meios de medicamento ou substância biológicas contaminados"},{"code":"Y649","display":"Medicamento e substância biológica contaminados, administrada por meios não especificados"},{"code":"Y65","display":"Acidente por outros acidentes durante a prestação de cuidados medicos e cirurgicos"},{"code":"Y650","display":"Uso de sangue incompatível em transfusão"},{"code":"Y651","display":"Uso de líquido errado em infusão"},{"code":"Y652","display":"Falha de sutura ou de ligadura durante intervenção cirúrgica"},{"code":"Y653","display":"Cânula endotraqueal mal posicionada durante procedimento anestésico"},{"code":"Y654","display":"Falha na introdução ou na remoção de outras cânulas ou instrumentos"},{"code":"Y655","display":"Realização de uma operação inapropriada"},{"code":"Y658","display":"Outros acidentes especificados durante a prestação de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y66","display":"Não administração de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y69","display":"Acidente não especificado durante a prestação de cuidado médico e cirúrgico"},{"code":"Y70","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) de anestesiologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y700","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y701","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y702","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y703","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y708","display":"Dispos. de anestes., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y71","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) cardiovasculares associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y710","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y711","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y712","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y713","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y718","display":"Dispos. cardiovasc., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y72","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em otorrinolaringologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y720","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y721","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y722","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - prótes. e implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y723","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. sutura)"},{"code":"Y728","display":"Dispos. otorrinolar., assoc. a incid. adversos - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class noutra parte"},{"code":"Y73","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) usados em gastroenterologia e em urologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y730","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y731","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y732","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y733","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y738","display":"Dispos. gastro/urologia, assoc. incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y74","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) gerais de uso hospitalar ou pessoal associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y740","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y741","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y742","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y743","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y748","display":"Dispos. ger. hosp/pessoal,assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y75","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em neurologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y750","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y751","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y752","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y753","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y758","display":"Dispos. util. neurologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y76","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em obstetricia eem ginecologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y760","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y761","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y762","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y763","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y768","display":"Dispos. util. obst/ginec, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y77","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em oftalmologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y770","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y771","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y772","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y773","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y778","display":"Dispos. util. oftalmo, assoc. incid. adverso. - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y78","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em radiologia associados a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y780","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y781","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y782","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y783","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y788","display":"Dispos. util. radiologia, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y79","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) ortopedicos associado a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y790","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y791","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y792","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y793","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y798","display":"Dispos. ortopédicos, assoc. incid. adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y80","display":"Dispositivos (aparelhos) utilizados em medicina fisica (fisiatria) associado a incidentes adversos"},{"code":"Y800","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y801","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y802","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - prót. e out. implantes, incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y803","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - instrum., mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. (incl. suturas)"},{"code":"Y808","display":"Dispos. util. fisiatria, assoc incid adverso - dispos. diver., incl. combin., ñ class. noutra parte"},{"code":"Y81","display":"Dispositivos utilizados em cirurgia geral ou cirurgia plastica associados a incidente adversos"},{"code":"Y810","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - dispos. p/fins diagnóst. ou de monitorização"},{"code":"Y811","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - dispos. p/fins terapêut. e aparelh. de reabilitação"},{"code":"Y812","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - prót. e out. implantes,incl. materiais e acessórios"},{"code":"Y813","display":"Dispos. util. cir. ger/plást, ass inc adverso - instrum.,mater. e aparelhos cirúrg. 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!-- Narrative removed -->
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May also include information held under a legal hold or attorney-client privilege.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14799"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByAccessKind","display":"ConfidentialityByAccessKind","definition":"**Description:** By accessing subject / role and relationship based rights (These concepts are mutually exclusive, one and only one is required for a valid confidentiality coding.)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21049"}],"concept":[{"code":"B","display":"business","definition":"**Description:** Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality. However, no patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:* Replced by ActCode.B","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10235"}]},{"code":"D","display":"clinician","definition":"**Description:** Only clinicians may see this item, billing and administration persons can not access this item without special permission.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10231"}]},{"code":"I","display":"individual","definition":"**Description:** Access only to individual persons who are mentioned explicitly as actors of this service and whose actor type warrants that access (cf. to actor type code).\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10233"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByInfoType","display":"ConfidentialityByInfoType","definition":"**Description:** By information type, only for service catalog entries (multiples allowed). Not to be used with actual patient data!\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21050"}],"concept":[{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse related","definition":"**Description:** Alcohol/drug-abuse related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.ETH","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10243"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV related","definition":"**Description:** HIV and AIDS related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.HIV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10241"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry relate","definition":"**Description:** Psychiatry related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.PSY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10242"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual and domestic violence related","definition":"**Description:** Sexual assault / domestic violence related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.SDV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10244"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityModifiers","display":"ConfidentialityModifiers","definition":"**Description:** Modifiers of role based access rights (multiple allowed)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21051"}],"concept":[{"code":"C","display":"celebrity","definition":"**Description:** Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) including employees, whose information require special protection.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.CEL","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10239"}]},{"code":"S","display":"sensitive","definition":"**Description:** \r\n\r\nInformation for which the patient seeks heightened confidentiality. Sensitive information is not to be shared with family members. Information reported by the patient about family members is sensitive by default. Flag can be set or cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10237"}]},{"code":"T","display":"taboo","definition":"**Description:** Information not to be disclosed or discussed with patient except through physician assigned to patient in this case. This is usually a temporary constraint only, example use is a new fatal diagnosis or finding, such as malignancy or HIV.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Note:*Replced by ActCode.TBOO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10238"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20428"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","title":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an \"employee\" sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. \"Taboo\" would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly.\r\n\r\nSensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable Sensitivity Act.code may be useful in some scenarious if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActCode","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.4"}],"version":"9.0.0","name":"ActCode","title":"ActCode","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2023-05-30","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A code specifying the particular kind of Act that the Act-instance represents within its class.\r\n\r\n*Constraints:* The kind of Act (e.g. physical examination, serum potassium, inpatient encounter, charge financial transaction, etc.) is specified with a code from one of several, typically external, coding systems. The coding system will depend on the class of Act, such as LOINC for observations, etc.\r\n\r\nConceptually, the Act.code must be a specialization of the Act.classCode. This is why the structure of ActClass domain should be reflected in the superstructure of the ActCode domain and then individual codes or externally referenced vocabularies subordinated under these domains that reflect the ActClass structure.\r\n\r\nAct.classCode and Act.code are not modifiers of each other but the Act.code concept should really imply the Act.classCode concept. For a negative example, it is not appropriate to use an Act.code \"potassium\" together with and Act.classCode for \"laboratory observation\" to somehow mean \"potassium laboratory observation\" and then use the same Act.code for \"potassium\" together with Act.classCode for \"medication\" to mean \"substitution of potassium\". This mutually modifying use of Act.code and Act.classCode is not permitted.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"extension":[{"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/StructureDefinition/ext-mif-relationship-relationshipKind","valueCode":"Specializes"}],"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#rim-ClassifiesClassCode","description":"The child code is a classification of the particular class group identified by the 'classCode' in a RIM class as the parent code. Used only in RIM backbone classes to link the code and classCode values.","type":"Coding"},{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"A property that indicates the status of the concept. One of active, experimental, deprecated, or retired.","type":"code"},{"code":"deprecationDate","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#deprecationDate","description":"The date at which a concept was deprecated. Concepts that are deprecated but not inactive can still be used, but their use is discouraged.","type":"dateTime"},{"code":"notSelectable","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#notSelectable","description":"Indicates that the code is abstract - only intended to be used as a selector for other concepts","type":"boolean"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#HL7usageNotes","description":"HL7 Concept Usage Notes","type":"string"},{"code":"synonymCode","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#synonym","description":"An additional concept code that was also attributed to a concept","type":"code"},{"code":"subsumedBy","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#parent","description":"The concept code of a parent concept","type":"code"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ActAccountCode","display":"ActAccountCode","definition":"An account represents a grouping of financial transactions that are tracked and reported together with a single balance. Examples of account codes (types) are Patient billing accounts (collection of charges), Cost centers; Cash.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20849"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20850"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","display":"ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","definition":"Actions to be carried out by the recipient of the Adjudication Result information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20853"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableModifierCode","display":"ActBillableModifierCode","definition":"**Definition:**An identifying modifier code for healthcare interventions or procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21993"}]},{"code":"_ActBillingArrangementCode","display":"ActBillingArrangementCode","definition":"The type of provision(s) made for reimbursing for the deliver of healthcare services and/or goods provided by a Provider, over a specified period.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20857"}]},{"code":"_ActBoundedROICode","display":"ActBoundedROICode","definition":"Type of bounded ROI.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ROIBND"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20858"}]},{"code":"_ActCareProvisionCode","display":"act care provision","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21825"}]},{"code":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","display":"ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","definition":"**Description:** Coded types of attachments included to support a healthcare claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CATEGORY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23004"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentType","display":"ActConsentType","definition":"**Definition:** The type of consent directive, e.g., to consent or dissent to collect, access, or use in specific ways within an EHRS or for health information exchange; or to disclose health information for purposes such as research.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22199"}]},{"code":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode","display":"ActContainerRegistrationCode","definition":"Constrains the ActCode to the domain of Container Registration","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONTREG"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20860"}]},{"code":"_ActControlVariable","display":"ActControlVariable","definition":"An observation form that determines parameters or attributes of an Act. Examples are the settings of a ventilator machine as parameters of a ventilator treatment act; the controls on dillution factors of a chemical analyzer as a parameter of a laboratory observation act; the settings of a physiologic measurement assembly (e.g., time skew) or the position of the body while measuring blood pressure.\r\n\r\nControl variables are forms of observations because just as with clinical observations, the Observation.code determines the parameter and the Observation.value assigns the value. While control variables sometimes can be observed (by noting the control settings or an actually measured feedback loop) they are not primary observations, in the sense that a control variable without a primary act is of no use (e.g., it makes no sense to record a blood pressure position without recording a blood pressure, whereas it does make sense to record a systolic blood pressure without a diastolic blood pressure).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20861"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageConfirmationCode","definition":"Response to an insurance coverage eligibility query or authorization request.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20863"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLimitCode","display":"ActCoverageLimitCode","definition":"Criteria that are applicable to the authorized coverage.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20865"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageTypeCode","display":"ActCoverageTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy or program that pays for the cost of benefits provided to covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22096"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20867"}]},{"code":"_ActExposureCode","display":"ActExposureCode","definition":"Concepts that identify the type or nature of exposure interaction. Examples include \"household\", \"care giver\", \"intimate partner\", \"common space\", \"common substance\", etc. to further describe the nature of interaction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"EXPOS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22353"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode","display":"ActFinancialTransactionCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20872"}]},{"code":"_ActIncidentCode","display":"ActIncidentCode","definition":"Set of codes indicating the type of incident or accident.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20873"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessCode","display":"ActInformationAccessCode","definition":"**Description:** The type of health information to which the subject of the information or the subject's delegate consents or dissents.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22244"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode","display":"ActInformationAccessContextCode","definition":"Concepts conveying the context in which authorization given under jurisdictional law, by organizational policy, or by a patient consent directive permits the collection, access, use or disclosure of specified patient health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22332"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationCategoryCode","display":"ActInformationCategoryCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates the set of information types which may be manipulated or referenced, such as for recommending access restrictions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"DOC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22386"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20888"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","definition":"Identifies the different types of summary information that can be reported by queries dealing with Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The summary information is generally used to help resolve balance discrepancies between providers and payors.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20889"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode","display":"ActInvoiceOverrideCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20892"}]},{"code":"_ActListCode","display":"ActListCode","definition":"Provides codes associated with ActClass value of LIST (working list)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20895"}]},{"code":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode","display":"ActMonitoringProtocolCode","definition":"Identifies types of monitoring programs","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"MPROT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20897"}]},{"code":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode","display":"ActNonObservationIndicationCode","definition":"**Description:**Concepts representing indications (reasons for clinical action) other than diagnosis and symptoms.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22387"}]},{"code":"_ActObservationVerificationType","display":"act observation verification","definition":"Identifies the type of verification investigation being undertaken with respect to the subject of the verification activity.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n1. Verification of eligibility for coverage under a policy or program - aka enrolled/covered by a policy or program\r\n2. Verification of record - e.g., person has record in an immunization registry\r\n3. Verification of enumeration - e.g. NPI\r\n4. Verification of Board Certification - provider specific\r\n5. Verification of Certification - e.g. JAHCO, NCQA, URAC\r\n6. Verification of Conformance - e.g. entity use with HIPAA, conformant to the CCHIT EHR system criteria\r\n7. Verification of Provider Credentials\r\n8. Verification of no adverse findings - e.g. on National Provider Data Bank, Health Integrity Protection Data Base (HIPDB)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"VERIF"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21907"}]},{"code":"_ActPaymentCode","display":"ActPaymentCode","definition":"Code identifying the method or the movement of payment instructions.\r\n\r\nCodes are drawn from X12 data element 591 (PaymentMethodCode)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20900"}]},{"code":"_ActPharmacySupplyType","display":"ActPharmacySupplyType","definition":"Identifies types of dispensing events","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20901"}]},{"code":"_ActPolicyType","display":"ActPolicyType","definition":"A mandate, regulation, obligation, principle, requirement, rule, or expectation of how an entity is to conduct itself or execute an activity, which may be dictated and enforced by an authority of competent jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"POLICY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22182"}]},{"code":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode","display":"ActProductAcquisitionCode","definition":"The method that a product is obtained for use by the subject of the supply act (e.g. patient). Product examples are consumable or durable goods.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20903"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode","display":"ActSpecimenTransportCode","definition":"Transportation of a specimen.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22388"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","display":"ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","definition":"Set of codes related to specimen treatments","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCTRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20905"}]},{"code":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","display":"ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","definition":"**Description:** Describes the type of substance administration being performed. This should not be used to carry codes for identification of products. Use an associated role or entity to carry such information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SBADM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21517"}]},{"code":"_ActTaskCode","display":"ActTaskCode","definition":"**Description:** A task or action that a user may perform in a clinical information system (e.g., medication order entry, laboratory test results review, problem list entry).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22047"}]},{"code":"_ActTransportationModeCode","display":"ActTransportationModeCode","definition":"Characterizes how a transportation act was or will be carried out.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via private transport, via public transit, via courier.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21545"}]},{"code":"_ObservationType","display":"ObservationType","definition":"Identifies the kinds of observations that can be performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20930"}]},{"code":"_ROIOverlayShape","display":"ROIOverlayShape","definition":"Shape of the region on the object being referenced","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20931"}]},{"code":"C","display":"corrected","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that result data has been corrected.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22831"}]},{"code":"DIET","display":"Diet","definition":"Code set to define specialized/allowed diets","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10376"}]},{"code":"DRUGPRG","display":"drug program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for prescription drugs to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22132"}]},{"code":"F","display":"final","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is complete. No further results are to come. This maps to the 'complete' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22830"}]},{"code":"PRLMN","display":"preliminary","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is incomplete. There are further results to come. This maps to the 'active' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22829"}]},{"code":"SECOBS","display":"SecurityObservationType","definition":"An observation identifying security metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security metadata are used to name security labels.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* According to ISO/TS 22600-3:2009(E) A.9.1.7 SECURITY LABEL MATCHING, Security label matching compares the initiator's clearance to the target's security label. All of the following must be true for authorization to be granted:\r\n\r\n * The security policy identifiers shall be identical\r\n * The classification level of the initiator shall be greater than or equal to that of the target (that is, there shall be at least one value in the classification list of the clearance greater than or equal to the classification of the target), and\r\n * For each security category in the target label, there shall be a security category of the same type in the initiator's clearance and the initiator's classification level shall dominate that of the target.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** SecurityObservationType security label fields include:\r\n\r\n * Confidentiality classification\r\n * Compartment category\r\n * Sensitivity category\r\n * Security mechanisms used to ensure data integrity or to perform authorized data transformation\r\n * Indicators of an IT resource completeness, veracity, reliability, trustworthiness, or provenance.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* SecurityObservationType codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23471"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDFFS","display":"subsidized fee for service program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage on a fee for service basis for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized fee for service program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22138"}]},{"code":"WRKCOMP","display":"(workers compensation program","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22146"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationInformationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationInformationCode","definition":"Explanatory codes that provide information derived by an Adjudicator during the course of adjudicating an invoice.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain are purely informational and do not materially affect the adjudicated invoice. That is, these codes do not impact or explain financial adjustments to an invoice. A companion domain (ActAdjudicationReasonCode) includes reasons which have a financial impact on an Invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication information code is 54540 - Patient has reached Plan Maximum for current year.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20852"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","display":"ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20856"}]},{"code":"_ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","display":"ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","definition":"Denotes the specific service that has been performed. This is obtained from the professional service catalog pertaining to the discipline of the health service provider. Professional services are generally cognitive in nature and exclude surgical procedures. E.g. Provided training, Provided drug therapy review, Gave smoking-cessation counseling, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21511"}]},{"code":"_ActIdentityDocumentCode","display":"ActIdentityDocumentCode","definition":"Code identifying the type of identification document (e.g. passport, drivers license)\r\n\r\n**Implementation Note:**The proposal called for a domain, but a code was also provided. When codes are available for the value set the code IDENTDOC (identity document) will be used as the headcode for the specializable value set.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22267"}]},{"code":"_ActOrderCode","display":"ActOrderCode","definition":"The type of order that was fulfilled by the clinical service","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20899"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorization","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorization","definition":"An Act which characterizes a Privilege can have additional observations to provide a finer definition of the requested or conferred privilege. This domain describes the categories under which this additional information is classified.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21535"}]},{"code":"_ActProcedureCode","display":"ActProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying code for healthcare interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20902"}]},{"code":"_ActRegistryCode","display":"ActRegistryCode","definition":"This is the domain of registry types. Examples include Master Patient Registry, Staff Registry, Employee Registry, Tumor Registry.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20904"}]},{"code":"_ActSecurityObjectCode","display":"ActSecurityObjectCode","definition":"**Description:**An access control object used to manage permissions and capabilities of users within information systems. (See HL7 RBAC specification fo examples of thes objects.)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22641"}]},{"code":"_AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","display":"AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","definition":"**Description:**\r\n\r\nRepresents types of consent that patient must sign prior to receipt of service, which is required for billing purposes.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * Advanced beneficiary medically necessity notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary agreement to pay notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary requests payer billed.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22095"}]},{"code":"_CPT4","display":"CPT4","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22176"}]},{"code":"_ExternallyDefinedActCodes","display":"ExternallyDefinedActCodes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20919"}]},{"code":"_HL7DefinedActCodes","display":"HL7DefinedActCodes","definition":"Domain provides the root for HL7-defined detailed or rich codes for the Act classes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20921"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","definition":"**Description:** Includes those concepts that are provided to justify the fact that an adverse event or product problem is required to be reported in an expedited fashion.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22078"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","definition":"**Description:** Includes relevant pieces of information about a product or its process of creation. The vocabulary domain is used to characterize products when they are cited in adverse event or product problem reports.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Weight, color, dimensions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22079"}]},{"code":"_ObservationActAgeGroupType","display":"ObservationActAgeGroupType","definition":"**Description:**To allow queries to specify useful information about the age of the patient without disclosing possible protected health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22046"}]},{"code":"COPAY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17501"}]},{"code":"DEDUCT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17500"}]},{"code":"DOSEIND","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17793"}]},{"code":"PRA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16675"}]},{"code":"STORE","display":"Storage","definition":"The act of putting something away for safe keeping. The \"something\" may be physical object such as a specimen, or information, such as observations regarding a specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21456"}]},{"code":"ACCTRECEIVABLE","display":"account receivable","definition":"An account for collecting charges, reversals, adjustments and payments, including deductibles, copayments, coinsurance (financial transactions) credited or debited to the account receivable account for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21361"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CASH","display":"Cash","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CC","display":"credit card","definition":"**Description:** Types of advance payment to be made on a plastic card usually issued by a financial institution used of purchasing services and/or products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"PBILLACCT","display":"patient billing account","definition":"An account representing charges and credits (financial transactions) for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21301"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_CreditCard","display":"CreditCard","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode","display":"ActAdjudicationGroupCode","definition":"Catagorization of grouping criteria for the associated transactions and/or summary (totals, subtotals).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20851"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AA","display":"adjudicated with adjustments","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges).\r\n\r\nAlso includes the concept 'Adjudicate as zero' and items not covered under a particular Policy.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AR","display":"adjudicated as refused","definition":"The invoice element has passed through the adjudication process but payment is refused due to one or more reasons.\r\n\r\nIncludes items such as patient not covered, or invoice element is not constructed according to payer rules (e.g. 'invoice submitted too late').\r\n\r\nIf one invoice element line item in the invoice element structure is rejected, the remaining line items may not be adjudicated and the complete group is treated as rejected.\r\n\r\nA refused invoice element can be forwarded to the next payer (for Coordination of Benefits) or modified and resubmitted to refusing payer.\r\n\r\nInvoice element cannot be reversed (nullified) as there is nothing to reverse.\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is not saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AS","display":"adjudicated as submitted","definition":"The invoice element was/will be paid exactly as submitted, without financial adjustment(s).\r\n\r\nIf the dollar amount stays the same, but the billing codes have been amended or financial adjustments have been applied through the adjudication process, the invoice element is treated as \"Adjudicated with Adjustment\".\r\n\r\nIf information items are included in the adjudication results that do not affect the monetary amounts paid, then this is still Adjudicated as Submitted (e.g. 'reached Plan Maximum on this Claim').\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"CONT","display":"contract","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Contract Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17974"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DAY","display":"day","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar day within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17969"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"LOC","display":"location","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by service location (e.g clinic).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17976"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"MONTH","display":"month","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar month within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17970"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PERIOD","display":"period","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17971"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PROV","display":"provider","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Provider Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17975"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"WEEK","display":"week","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar week within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17972"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"YEAR","display":"year","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar year within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17973"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DISPLAY","display":"Display","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be displayed to the receiver of the adjudication result.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"FORM","display":"Print on Form","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be printed on the specified form, which is then provided to the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"NAT","display":"Insufficient authorization","definition":"The requesting party has insufficient authorization to invoke the interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"SUPPRESSED","display":"record suppressed","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have been suppressed due to consent or privacy restrictions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23274"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"VALIDAT","display":"validation issue","definition":"**Description:**The specified element did not pass business-rule validation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode","display":"Authorization Issue Management Code","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"KEY204","display":"Unknown key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., was not found. Used for transactions other than additions, e.g. transfer of a non-existent patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY205","display":"Duplicate key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., already exists. Used in response to addition transactions (Admit, New Order, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY206","display":"non-matching identification","definition":"**Description:** Metadata associated with the identification (e.g. name or gender) does not match the identification being verified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23272"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSOLETE","display":"obsolete record returned","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have a status of 'obsolete'.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23275"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"CPTM","display":"CPT modifier codes","definition":"**Description:**CPT modifier codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22151"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"HCPCSA","display":"HCPCS Level II and Carrier-assigned","definition":"**Description:**HCPCS Level II (HCFA-assigned) and Carrier-assigned (Level III) modifiers are reported in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition and in the Medicare Bulletin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable medical services, as opposed to codes for similar services to identify them for clinical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22219"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"_ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services that are not medical procedures, such as social services or governmental program services.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Building a wheelchair ramp, help with groceries, giving someone a ride, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22220"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"BLK","display":"block funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a prescribed group (volume) of services to a single patient which occur over a period of time. Services included in the block may vary.\r\n\r\nThis billing arrangement is also known as Program of Care for some specific Payors and Program Fees for other Payors.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CAP","display":"capitation funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where the payment made to a Provider is determined by analyzing one or more demographic attributes about the persons/patients who are enrolled with the Provider (in their practice).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17484"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CONTF","display":"contract funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a particular volume of one or more interventions/procedures or groups of interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FINBILL","display":"financial","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges for non-clinical items. This includes interest in arrears, mileage, etc. Clinical content is not included in Invoices submitted with this type of billing arrangement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19723"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"ROST","display":"roster funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where funding is based on a list of individuals registered as patients of the Provider.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"SESS","display":"sessional funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a sum to provide a group (volume) of interventions/procedures to one or more patients within a defined period of time, typically on the same date. Interventions/procedures included in the session may vary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17483"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FFS","display":"fee for service","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a separate fee for each intervention/procedure/event or product.\r\n\r\nFee for Service is used when an individual intervention/procedure/event is used for billing purposes. In other words, fees are associated with the intervention/procedure/event. For example, a specific CCI (Canadian Classification of Interventions) code has an associated fee and is used for billing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"ROIFS","display":"fully specified ROI","definition":"A fully specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) delineates a ROI in which only those dimensions participate that are specified by boundary criteria, whereas all other dimensions are excluded. For example a ROI to mark an episode of \"ST elevation\" in a subset of the EKG leads V2, V3, and V4 would include 4 boundaries, one each for time, V2, V3, and V4.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17897"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"ROIPS","display":"partially specified ROI","definition":"A partially specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) specifies a ROI in which at least all values in the dimensions specified by the boundary criteria participate. For example, if an episode of ventricular fibrillations (VFib) is observed, it usually doesn't make sense to exclude any EKG leads from the observation and the partially specified ROI would contain only one boundary for time indicating the time interval where VFib was observed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"_ActCredentialedCareCode","display":"act credentialed care","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by a credentialing agency, i.e. government or non-government agency. Failure in executing this Act may result in loss of credential to the person or organization who participates as performer of the Act. Excludes employment agreements.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Hospital license; physician license; clinic accreditation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21826"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterCode","display":"ActEncounterCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActEncounterClass (ENC)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ENC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalServiceCode","definition":"General category of medical service provided to the patient during their encounter.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"AUTOATTCH","display":"auto attachment","definition":"**Description:** Automobile Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DOCUMENT","display":"document","definition":"**Description:** Document Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"HEALTHREC","display":"health record","definition":"**Description:** Health Record Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMG","display":"image attachment","definition":"**Description:** Image Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABRESULTS","display":"lab results","definition":"**Description:** Lab Results Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MODEL","display":"model","definition":"**Description:** Digital Model Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"WIATTCH","display":"work injury report attachment","definition":"**Description:** Work Injury related additional Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"XRAY","display":"x-ray","definition":"**Description:** Digital X-Ray Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDecision","display":"_ActDecision","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies types of consent directives governing the collection, access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"EMRGONLY","display":"emergency only","definition":"Privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for all purposes except for emergency treatment generally, which may include treatment during a disaster, a threat, in an emergency department and for break the glass purposes of use as specified by applicable domain policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* To specify the scope of an \"EMRGONLY\" consent directive within a policy domain, use one or more of the following Purpose of Use codes in the ActReason code system OID: 2.16.840.1.113883.5.8.\r\n\r\n * ETREAT (Emergency Treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition.\r\n * BTG (break the glass): To perform policy override operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition affecting potential harm, death or patient safety by end users who are not provisioned for this purpose of use. Includes override of organizational provisioning policies and may include override of subject of care consent directive restricting access.\r\n * ERTREAT (emergency room treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition in an emergency room or similar emergent care context by end users provisioned for this purpose, which does not constitute as policy override such as in a \"Break the Glass\" purpose of use.\r\n * THREAT (threat): To perform one or more operations on information used to prevent injury or disease to living subjects who may be the target of violence.\r\n * DISASTER (disaster): To perform one or more operations on information used for provision of immediately needed health care to a population of living subjects located in a disaster zone.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"emergency only\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) 5.13 Exceptional access","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23325"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GRANTORCHOICE","display":"grantor choice","definition":"A grantor's terms of agreement to which a grantee may assent or dissent, and which may include an opportunity for a grantee to request restrictions or extensions.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor typically is able to stipulate preferred terms of agreement when the grantor has control over the topic of the agreement, which a grantee must accept in full or may be offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If the grantor's term of agreement must be accepted in full, then this is considered \"basic consent\". If a grantee is offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms, then the agreement is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A PHR account holder \\[grantor\\] may require any PHR user \\[grantee\\] to accept the terms of agreement in full, or may permit a PHR user to extend or restrict terms selected by the account holder or requested by the PHR user.\r\n * Non-healthcare: The owner of a resource server \\[grantor\\] may require any authorization server \\[grantee\\] to meet authorization requirements stipulated in the grantor's terms of agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIED","display":"implied consent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement is based on the grantor's behavior, which may result from not expressly assenting to the consent directive offered, or from having no right to assent or dissent offered by the grantee.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent occurs when the behavior of the grantor is understood by a reasonable person to signal agreement to the grantee's terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied consent with no opportunity to assent or dissent to certain terms is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient schedules an appointment with a provider, and either does not take the opportunity to expressly assent or dissent to the provider's consent directive, does not have an opportunity to do so, as in the case where emergency care is required, or simply behaves as though the patient \\[grantor\\] agrees to the rights granted to the provider \\[grantee\\] in an implicit consent directive.\r\n * An injured and unconscious patient is deemed to have assented to emergency treatment by those permitted to do so under jurisdictional laws, e.g., Good Samaritan laws.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Upon receiving a driver's license, the driver is deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to undergoing field sobriety tests.\r\n * A corporation that does business in a foreign nation is deemed to have deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to abide by that nation's laws.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23755"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIEDD","display":"implied consent with opportunity to dissent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement, which is based on the grantor's behavior, and includes a right to dissent to certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor assenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to dissent to grantor selected terms or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent with an \"opportunity to dissent\" occurs when the grantor's behavior is understood by a reasonable person to signal assent to the grantee's terms of agreement whether the grantor requests or the grantee approves further restrictions, is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Examples: A healthcare provider deems a patient's assent to disclosure of health information to family members and friends, but offers an opportunity or permits the patient to dissent to such disclosures.\r\n * A health information exchanges deems a patient to have assented to disclosure of health information for treatment purposes, but offers the patient an opportunity to dissents to disclosure to particular provider organizations.\r\n * Non-healthcare Examples: A bank deems a banking customer's assent to specified collection, access, use, or disclosure of financial information as a requirement of holding a bank account, but provides the user an opportunity to limit third-party collection, access, use or disclosure of that information for marketing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23756"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOCONSENT","display":"no consent","definition":"No notification or opportunity is provided for a grantor to assent or dissent to a grantee's terms of agreement.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A \"No Consent\" policy scheme provides no opportunity for accommodation of an individual's preferences, and may not comply with Fair Information Practice Principles \\[FIPP\\] by enabling the data subject to object, access collected information, correct errors, or have accounting of disclosures.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The grantee's terms of agreement, may be available to the grantor by reviewing the grantee's privacy policies, but there is no notice by which a grantor is apprised of the policy directly or able to acknowledge.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is automatically included in and available (often according to certain rules) through a health information exchange. Note that this differs from implied consent, where the patient is assumed to have consented.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is collected, accessed, used, or disclosed for research, public health, security, fraud prevention, court order, or law enforcement.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's healthcare or non-healthcare internet searches are aggregated for secondary uses such as behavioral tracking and profiling.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's location and activities in a shopping mall are tracked by RFID tags on purchased items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23757"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOPP","display":"notice of privacy practices","definition":"An implied privacy consent directive or notification, which the data subject may or may not acknowledge. The notification specifies permitted actions, which may include access, use, or disclosure of any and all personal information. The notification specifies the scope of personal information, which may include de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, that may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository. The notification specifies the purposes for which personal information may be used such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, disaster, quality and safety reporting; as required by law including court order, law enforcement, national security, military authorities; and for data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\"."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23370"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OPTIN","display":"opt-in","definition":"A grantor's assent to the terms of an agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to dissent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Acceptance of a grantee's terms pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with no opportunity for a grantor to restrict certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] signs a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, and revocation policies.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] signs an employer's \\[grantee's\\] non-disclosure and non-compete agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTINR","display":"opt-in with restrictions","definition":"A grantor's assent to the grantee's terms of an agreement with an opportunity for to dissent to certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor dissenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to assent to grantor's pre-approved restrictions or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with restrictions is considered \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to narrow the permissions sought by the grantee.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient assent to grantee's consent directive terms for collection, access, use, or disclosure of health information, and dissents to disclosure to certain recipients as allowed by the provider's pre-approved restriction list.\r\n * Non-Healthcare: A cell phone user assents to the cell phone's privacy practices and terms of use, but dissents from location tracking by turning off the cell phone's tracking capability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23758"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUT","display":"op-out","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the terms of agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to assent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with no opportunity for a grantor to permit certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] declines to sign a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, revocation policies, and consequences of not assenting.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] refuses to sign an employer's \\[grantee's\\] agreement not to join unions or participate in a strike where state law protects employee's collective bargaining rights.\r\n * A citizen \\[grantor\\] refuses to enroll in mandatory government \\[grantee\\] health insurance based on religious beliefs, which is an exemption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUTE","display":"opt-out with exceptions","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the grantee's terms of agreement except for certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement while assenting to certain permissions sought by the grantee or requesting approval of additional grantor terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with exceptions is considered a \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to accept certain permissions sought by the grantee or request additional grantor terms, while rejecting other grantee terms.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] dissents to a health information exchange consent directive with the exception of disclosure based on a limited \"time to live\" shared secret \\[e.g., a token or password\\], which the patient can give to a provider when seeking care.\r\n * Non-healthcare: A social media user \\[grantor\\] dissents from public access to their account, but assents to access to a circle of friends.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23759"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"ICOL","display":"information collection","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information collected in an electronic health record. This entails that the information may be used in analysis, modified, updated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22203"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IDSCL","display":"information disclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have collected healthcare information disclosed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22204"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"INFA","display":"information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access healthcare information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22200"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IRDSCL","display":"information redisclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Information re-disclosed without the patient's consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22205"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"RESEARCH","display":"research information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information in an electronic health record accessed for research purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22206"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"ID","display":"Identified","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that it has received a container.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"IP","display":"In Position","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is in position for specimen transfer (e.g., container removal from track, pipetting, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Left Equipment","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container has been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Missing","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container did not arrive at its next expected location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"O","display":"In Process","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the specific container is being processed by the equipment. It is useful as a response to a query about Container Status, when the specific step of the process is not relevant.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"R","display":"Process Completed","definition":"Status is used by one system to inform another that the processing has been completed, but the container has not been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"X","display":"Container Unavailable","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is no longer available within the scope of the system (e.g., tube broken or discarded).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"AUTO","display":"auto-repeat permission","definition":"Specifies whether or not automatic repeat testing is to be initiated on specimens.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16860"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"ENDC","display":"endogenous content","definition":"A baseline value for the measured test that is inherently contained in the diluent. In the calculation of the actual result for the measured test, this baseline value is normally considered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16858"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"REFLEX","display":"reflex permission","definition":"Specifies whether or not further testing may be automatically or manually initiated on specimens.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16859"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"_ECGControlVariable","display":"ECGControlVariable","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20916"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"AUTH","display":"Authorized","definition":"Authorization approved and funds have been set aside to pay for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) within defined criteria for the authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17492"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"NAUTH","display":"Not Authorized","definition":"Authorization for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) denied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17493"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode","definition":"Indication of authorization for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). If authorization is approved, funds are set aside.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20862"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode","definition":"Indication of eligibility coverage for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20864"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"ELG","display":"Eligible","definition":"Insurance coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17489"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"NELG","display":"Not Eligible","definition":"Insurance coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). 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An insurance policy contains pertinent facts about the policy holder, the insurance coverage, the covered parties, and the insurer. A policy may include exemptions and provisions specifying the extent to which the indemnification clause cannot be enforced for intentional tortious conduct of a covered party, e.g., whether the covered parties are jointly or severably insured.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* In contrast to programs, an insurance policy has one or more policy holders, who own the policy. The policy holder may be the covered party, a relative of the covered party, a partnership, or a corporation, e.g., an employer. A subscriber of a self-insured health insurance policy is a policy holder. A subscriber of an employer sponsored health insurance policy is holds a certificate of coverage, but is not a policy holder; the policy holder is the employer. 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agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CONC","display":"certified oncology care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21892"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"COPD","display":"certified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CORT","display":"certified organ transplant care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPAD","display":"certified parkinsons disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21895"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPND","display":"certified pneumonia disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPST","display":"certified primary stroke center care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21897"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSDM","display":"certified stroke disease management care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21901"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSIC","display":"certified sickle cell care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSLD","display":"certified sleep disorders care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21899"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSPT","display":"certified spine treatment care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21900"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CTBU","display":"certified trauma/burn center care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21902"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CVDC","display":"certified vascular diseases care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21903"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CWMA","display":"certified wound management care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21905"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CWOH","display":"certified women's health care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21904"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20855"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"1","display":"Therapy Appropriate","definition":"Confirmed drug therapy appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16696"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"14","display":"Supply Appropriate","definition":"Confirmed supply action appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16709"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"8","display":"Other Action Taken","definition":"Order is performed as issued, but other action taken to mitigate potential adverse effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16703"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActFinancialDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the financial acts domain.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20871"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"_HL7AccommodationCode","display":"HL7AccommodationCode","definition":"**Description:**Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22153"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCSAccommodationCode","display":"HCPCSAccommodationCode","definition":"**Description:**External value set for accommodation types used in the U.S. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) including modifiers.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22152"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"AMB","display":"ambulatory","definition":"A comprehensive term for health care provided in a healthcare facility (e.g. a practitioneraTMs office, clinic setting, or hospital) on a nonresident basis. The term ambulatory usually implies that the patient has come to the location and is not assigned to a bed. Sometimes referred to as an outpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16239"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"EMER","display":"emergency","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place at a dedicated healthcare service delivery location where the patient receives immediate evaluation and treatment, provided until the patient can be discharged or responsibility for the patient's care is transferred elsewhere (for example, the patient could be admitted as an inpatient or transferred to another facility.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16240"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"FLD","display":"field","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place both outside a dedicated service delivery location and outside a patient's residence. Example locations might include an accident site and at a supermarket.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16235"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"HH","display":"home health","definition":"Healthcare encounter that takes place in the residence of the patient or a designee","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16237"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"IMP","display":"inpatient encounter","definition":"A patient encounter where a patient is admitted by a hospital or equivalent facility, assigned to a location where patients generally stay at least overnight and provided with room, board, and continuous nursing service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16847"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"OBSENC","display":"observation encounter","definition":"An encounter where the patient usually will start in different encounter, such as one in the emergency department (EMER) but then transition to this type of encounter because they require a significant period of treatment and monitoring to determine whether or not their condition warrants an inpatient admission or discharge. In the majority of cases the decision about admission or discharge will occur within a time period determined by local, regional or national regulation, often between 24 and 48 hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"PRENC","display":"pre-admission","definition":"A patient encounter where patient is scheduled or planned to receive service delivery in the future, and the patient is given a pre-admission account number. When the patient comes back for subsequent service, the pre-admission encounter is selected and is encapsulated into the service registration, and a new account number is generated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* This is intended to be used in advance of encounter types such as ambulatory, inpatient encounter, virtual, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23573"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"SS","display":"short stay","definition":"An encounter where the patient is admitted to a health care facility for a predetermined length of time, usually less than 24 hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21444"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"VR","display":"virtual","definition":"A patient encounter where the patient and the practitioner(s) are not in the same physical location. Examples include telephone conference, email exchange, robotic surgery, and televideo conference.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16236"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"CHLDCARE","display":"Day care - Child care Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in a child care setting","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22357"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"CONVEYNC","display":"Common Conveyance Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants traveled in/on the same vehicle (not necessarily concurrently, e.g. both are passengers of the same plane, but on different flights of that plane).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22358"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HLTHCARE","display":"Health Care Interaction - Not Patient Care","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery or in a health care delivery setting, but did not involve the direct provision of care (e.g. a janitor cleaning a patient's hospital room).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22355"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOMECARE","display":"Care Giver Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in context of one providing care for the other, i.e. a babysitter providing care for a child, a home-care aide providing assistance to a paraplegic.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22354"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPPTNT","display":"Hospital Patient Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred when both were patients being treated in the same (acute) health care delivery facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22362"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPVSTR","display":"Hospital Visitor Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred when one visited the other who was a patient being treated in a health care delivery facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22363"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOUSEHLD","display":"Household Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in context of domestic interaction, i.e. both participants reside in the same household.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22364"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"INMATE","display":"Inmate Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being incarcerated at a correctional facility","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22365"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"INTIMATE","display":"Intimate Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction was intimate, i.e. participants are intimate companions (e.g. spouses, domestic partners).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22366"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"LTRMCARE","display":"Long Term Care Facility Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being resident at a long term care facility (second participant may be a visitor, worker, resident or a physical place or object within the facility).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22367"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"PLACE","display":"Common Space Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants were both present in the same location/place/space.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22361"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"PTNTCARE","display":"Health Care Interaction - Patient Care","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery by a provider (e.g. a physician treating a patient in her office).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22356"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SCHOOL2","display":"School Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in an academic setting (e.g., participants are fellow students, or student and teacher).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22368"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SOCIAL2","display":"Social/Extended Family Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants are social associates or members of the same extended family","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22369"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SUBSTNCE","display":"Common Substance Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants shared or co-used a common substance (e.g. drugs, needles, or common food item).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22359"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"TRAVINT","display":"Common Travel Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants traveled together in/on the same vehicle/trip (e.g. concurrent co-passengers).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22360"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"WORK2","display":"Work Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in a work setting, i.e. participants are co-workers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22370"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"CHRG","display":"Standard Charge","definition":"A type of transaction that represents a charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14805"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"REV","display":"Standard Charge Reversal","definition":"A type of transaction that represents a reversal of a previous charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms. It has the opposite effect of a standard charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14806"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"GDPRCD","display":"GDPR Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nWhere processing is based on consent, the controller shall be able to demonstrate that the data subject has consented to processing of his or her personal data. If the data subject's consent is given in the context of a written declaration which also concerns other matters, the request for consent shall be presented in a manner which is clearly distinguishable from the other matters, in an intelligible and easily accessible form, using clear and plain language. Any part of such a declaration which constitutes an infringement of this Regulation shall not be binding. The data subject shall have the right to withdraw his or her consent at any time. The withdrawal of consent shall not affect the lawfulness of processing based on consent before its withdrawal. Prior to giving consent, the data subject shall be informed thereof. It shall be as easy to withdraw as to give consent. When assessing whether consent is freely given, utmost account shall be taken of whether, inter alia, the performance of a contract, including the provision of a service, is conditional on consent to the processing of personal data that is not necessary for the performance of that contract. Consent should be given by a clear affirmative act establishing a freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her, such as by a written statement, including by electronic means, or an oral statement. This could include ticking a box when visiting an internet website, choosing technical settings for information society services or another statement or conduct which clearly indicates in this context the data subject's acceptance of the proposed processing of his or her personal data. Silence, pre-ticked boxes or inactivity should not therefore constitute consent. Consent should cover all processing activities carried out for the same purpose or purposes. When the processing has multiple purposes, consent should be given for all of them. If the data subject's consent is to be given following a request by electronic means, the request must be clear, concise and not unnecessarily disruptive to the use of the service for which it is provided.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Article 4.11 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ 11) 'Consent' of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her. Article 7 GDPR Conditions for consent https://gdpr-info.eu/art-7-gdpr Recital 32 Conditions for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-32 Recital 42 Burden of proof and requirements for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-42/> Recital 43 Freely given consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-43 GDPR Consent Brief https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/consent/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions Art. 6 GDPR Lawfulness of processing Art. 7 GDPR Conditions for consent Art. 8 GDPR Conditions applicable to child's consent in relation to information society services Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data Art. 22 GDPR Automated individual decision-making, including profiling Art. 49 GDPR Derogations for specific situations\r\n\r\nRelevant GDPR Recitals: (32) Conditions for consent (33) Consent to certain areas of scientific research (38) Special protection of children's personal data (40) Lawfulness of data processing (42) Burden of proof and requirements for consent (43) Freely given consent (50) Further processing of personal data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data (54) Processing of sensitive data in public health sector (71) Profiling (111) Exceptions for certain cases of international transfers (155) Processing in the employment context (161) Consenting to the participation in clinical trials (171) Repeal of Directive 95/46/EC and transitional provisions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRResearchCD","display":"GDPR Research Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive that complies with regulatory requirements for a consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nGDPR research consent directive has the additional caveat that it is often not possible to fully identify the purpose of personal data processing for scientific research purposes at the time of data collection. Therefore, data subjects should be allowed to give their consent to certain areas of scientific research when in keeping with recognized ethical standards for scientific research. Data subjects should have the opportunity to give their consent only to certain areas of research or parts of research projects to the extent allowed by the intended purpose.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* HL7 Purpose of Use codes include specialize research purposes of use, which could be used to convey a data subject's purpose of use restrictions related to areas of research or parts of research projects. See citations for GDPRResearchCD and below: Recital 33 Consent to certain areas of scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-33/> Recital 157 Information from registries and scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-157 Recital 159 Processing for scientific research purposes\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-159/","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRCONSENT","display":"GDPR Consent","definition":"Processing of personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, is lawful only if the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of his or her personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, for one or more specific purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition to use the data may not be lifted by the data subject; and for personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The description is based on the following GDPR provisions: Article 6.1.a https://gdpr-info.eu/art-6-gdpr/ 1Processing shall be lawful only if and to the extent that at least one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given consent to the processing of his or her personal data for one or more specific purposes. Article 9.1, 9.2a., 9.2.e https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ 1. Processing of personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation shall be prohibited. 2. Paragraph 1 shall not apply if one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of those personal data for one or more specified purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition referred to in paragraph 1 may not be lifted by the data subject; and (e) processing relates to personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"OIC","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting the collection of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to collection of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OIS","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting access, use, or disclosure of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOC","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting collection of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to collection consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOS","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to sharing consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"DENTAL","display":"dental care policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that that covers benefits for dental services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DISEASE","display":"disease specific policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for healthcare services provided for named conditions under the policy, e.g., cancer, diabetes, or HIV-AIDS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGPOL","display":"drug policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for prescription drugs, pharmaceuticals, and supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EHCPOL","display":"extended healthcare","definition":"Private insurance policy that provides coverage in addition to other policies (e.g. in addition to a Public Healthcare insurance policy).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19722"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"HIP","display":"health insurance plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers healthcare benefits by protecting covered parties from medical expenses arising from health conditions, sickness, or accidental injury as well as preventive care. Health insurance policies explicitly exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Health insurance policies are offered by health insurance plans that typically reimburse providers for covered services on a fee-for-service basis, that is, a fee that is the allowable amount that a provider may charge. This is in contrast to managed care plans, which typically prepay providers a per-member/per-month amount or capitation as reimbursement for all covered services rendered. Health insurance plans include indemnity and healthcare services plans.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HSAPOL","display":"health spending account","definition":"Insurance policy that provides for an allotment of funds replenished on a periodic (e.g. annual) basis. The use of the funds under this policy is at the discretion of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19720"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"LTC","display":"long term care policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers benefits for long-term care services people need when they no longer can care for themselves. This may be due to an accident, disability, prolonged illness or the simple process of aging. Long-term care services assist with activities of daily living including:\r\n\r\n * Help at home with day-to-day activities, such as cooking, cleaning, bathing and dressing\r\n * Care in the community, such as in an adult day care facility\r\n * Supervised care provided in an assisted living facility\r\n * Skilled care provided in a nursing home","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22109"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MCPOL","display":"managed care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.\r\n\r\nManaged care policies specifically exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Managed care policies are offered by managed care plans that contract with selected providers or health care organizations to provide comprehensive health care at a discount to covered parties and coordinate the financing and delivery of health care. Managed care uses medical protocols and procedures agreed on by the medical profession to be cost effective, also known as medical practice guidelines. Providers are typically reimbursed for covered services by a capitated amount on a per member per month basis that may reflect difference in the health status and level of services anticipated to be needed by the member.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22147"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MENTPOL","display":"mental health policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for mental health services and prescriptions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"POS","display":"point of service policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that has features of both an HMO and a FFS plan. Like an HMO, a POS plan encourages the use its HMO network to maintain discounted fees with participating providers, but recognizes that sometimes covered parties want to choose their own provider. The POS plan allows a covered party to use providers who are not part of the HMO network (non-participating providers). However, there is a greater cost associated with choosing these non-network providers. A covered party will usually pay deductibles and coinsurances that are substantially higher than the payments when he or she uses a plan provider. Use of non-participating providers often requires the covered party to pay the provider directly and then to file a claim for reimbursement, like in an FFS plan.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPOL","display":"substance use policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for substance use services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VISPOL","display":"vision care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes for a policy that provides coverage for health care expenses arising from vision services.\r\n\r\nA health insurance policy that covers benefits for vision care services, prescriptions, and products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MVA","display":"Motor vehicle accident","definition":"Incident or accident as the result of a motor vehicle accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16509"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SCHOOL","display":"School Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a school place accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17468"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SPT","display":"Sporting Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a sporting accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17469"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"WPA","display":"Workplace accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a work place accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","display":"ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","definition":"**Definition:** A code specifying the particular kind of Patient Safety Incident that the Incident class instance represents.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Medication incident\", \"slips, trips and falls incident\".The actual value set for the domain will be determined by each (realm) implementation, whose Patient Safety terminology will be specific, although probably linked to the WHO Patient Safety Taxonomy that is currently under development","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"ACADR","display":"adverse drug reaction access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access adverse drug reaction information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALL","display":"all access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access all information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALLG","display":"allergy access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access allergy information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACCONS","display":"informational consent access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access informational consent information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDEMO","display":"demographics access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access demographics information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22254"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDI","display":"diagnostic imaging access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access diagnostic imaging information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACIMMUN","display":"immunization access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access immunization information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22255"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACLAB","display":"lab test result access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access lab test result information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMED","display":"medication access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEDC","display":"medical condition access","definition":"**Definition:** Provide consent to view or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEN","display":"mental health access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access mental health information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22904"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACOBS","display":"common observations access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access common observation information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22253"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPOLPRG","display":"policy or program information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access coverage policy or program for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22252"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPROV","display":"provider information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access provider information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22251"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPSERV","display":"professional service access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access professional service information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22250"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACSUBSTAB","display":"substance abuse access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access substance abuse information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22905"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"INFAUT","display":"authorized information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or a patient's consent directive, which may be implied, deemed, opt-in, opt-out, or explicit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22643"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFCRT","display":"only on court order","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with judicial system protocol, such as in the case of a subpoena or court order.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFDNG","display":"only if danger to others","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information where deemed necessary to avert potential danger to other persons in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, disclosure about a person threatening violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFEMER","display":"only in an emergency","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with emergency information transfer protocol dictated by jurisdictional law, organization policy, or standards of practice. For example, sharing of health information during disaster response.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFPWR","display":"only if public welfare risk","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information necessary to avert potential public welfare risk in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, reporting that a person is a victim of abuse or demonstrating suicidal tendencies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFREG","display":"regulatory information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information for public health, welfare, and safety purposes in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, public health reporting of notifiable conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFOACCESS","display":"access information","definition":"Authorization to obtain information with no further permission to collect and store it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24088"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOCOLLECT","display":"collect information","definition":"Authorization to gather and store information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24089"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODEIDENTIFIY","display":"deidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or remove identifying characteristics of an entity or individual that is a subject of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODISCLOSE","display":"disclose information","definition":"Authorization to make information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOMASK","display":"mask information","definition":"Authorization to alter information in order to conceal it from unauthorized recipients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24092"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREADONLY","display":"read only information","definition":"Authorization to access information within a specific context for communication purposes only. Storing, manipulating, and further disclosure are prohibited and may be technically disabled.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24093"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDACT","display":"redact information","definition":"Authorization to remove information that a recipient is not authorized to access.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24094"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDISCLOSE","display":"redisclose information","definition":"Authorization to make disclosed information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24095"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREIDENTIFY","display":"reidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or relink deidentified information so that an entity or individual that is the subject of that information identifiable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24096"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOUSE","display":"use information","definition":"Authorization to employ or alter information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24097"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLCAT","display":"all categories","definition":"**Description:** All patient information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ALLGCAT","display":"allergy category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's allergy and intolerance records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21614"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ARCAT","display":"adverse drug reaction category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's adverse drug reactions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22811"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"COBSCAT","display":"common observation category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's common observation records (height, weight, blood pressure, temperature, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DEMOCAT","display":"demographics category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's demographics (such as name, date of birth, gender, address, etc).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21618"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DICAT","display":"diagnostic image category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's diagnostic image records (orders & results).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21613"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUCAT","display":"immunization category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's vaccination records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABCAT","display":"lab test category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's lab test records (orders & results)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21611"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MEDCCAT","display":"medical condition category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medical condition records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21616"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MENCAT","display":"mental health category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's mental health records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22871"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"PSVCCAT","display":"professional service category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's professional service records (such as smoking cessation, counseling, medication review, mental health).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21615"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"RXCAT","display":"medication category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medication records (orders, dispenses and other active medications).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21612"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"JurisIP","display":"jurisdictional information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24074"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"OrgIP","display":"organizational information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information, which does not conflict with jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PersIP","display":"personal information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24082"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling alcohol or drug-abuse information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to alcohol or drug-abuse information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23338"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"GDIS","display":"genetic disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling genetic disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to genetic disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23339"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV/AIDS information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling HIV or AIDS information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to HIV or AIDS information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23340"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"MST","display":"military sexual trauma information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to sexual assault or repeated, threatening sexual harassment that occurred while the patient was in the military, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for military sexual trauma is based on the patient being subject to control by a higher ranking military perpetrator and/or censure by others within the military unit. Due to the relatively unfettered access to healthcare information by higher ranking military personnel and those who have command over the patient, there is a need to sequester this information outside of the typical controls on access to military health records.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23888"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PREGNANT","display":"pregnancy information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about an individual's current or past pregnancy status, deemed sensitive by the individual or by policy, which may be afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nInformation about a patient's current or past pregnancy status may be considered sensitive in circumstances in which that status could result in discrimination or stigmatization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SCA","display":"sickle cell anemia information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sickle cell disease information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols are based on organizational policies related to sickle cell disease information, which is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then the Act valued with this ActCode should be associated with an Act valued with any applicable laws from the ActPrivacyLaw code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\nSDV code covers violence perpetrated by related and non-related persons. This code should be specific to physical and mental trauma caused by a related person only. The access control concerns are keeping the patient safe from the perpetrator who may have an abusive psychological control over the patient, may be stalking the patient, or may try to manipulate care givers into allowing the perpetrator to make contact with the patient. The definition needs to be clarified.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23342"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SEX","display":"sexuality and reproductive health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexuality and reproductive health information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexuality and reproductive health information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23343"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SPI","display":"specially protected information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information deemed specially protected by law or policy including substance abuse, substance use, psychiatric, mental health, behavioral health, and cognitive disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23889"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"STD","display":"sexually transmitted disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexually transmitted disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexually transmitted disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23344"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"TBOO","display":"taboo","definition":"Policy for handling information not to be initially disclosed or discussed with patient except by a physician assigned to patient in this case. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sensitive patient information that must be initially discussed with the patient by an attending physician before being disclosed to the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* This definition conflates a rule and a characteristic, and there may be a similar issue with ts sibling codes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23345"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIO","display":"violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to harm by violence, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Harm by violence is perpetrated by an unrelated person.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for information about mental or physical harm resulting from violence caused by an unrelated person may include manipulation of care givers or access to records that enable the perpetrator contact or locate the patient, but the perpetrator will likely not have established abusive psychological control over the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"IDS","display":"Identifier Sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an identifier of an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Usage Note: Such policies may govern the sensitivity of information related to an identifier of an act, such as the identifier of a contract; a role, such as a citizen, a patient, a practitioner, or an organization; or an entity such as a medical device due to potential impact on the privacy, well-being, safety or integrity of an information subject. For example, protection against identity fraud or counterfeit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24800"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SICKLE","display":"sickle cell","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23459"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUTOPOL","display":"automobile","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in an automobile accident. Will also typically covered non-named parties to the policy, such as pedestrians and passengers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PUBLICPOL","display":"public healthcare","definition":"Insurance policy funded by a public health system such as a provincial or national health plan. Examples include BC MSP (British Columbia Medical Services Plan) OHIP (Ontario Health Insurance Plan), NHS (National Health Service).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19718"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"WCBPOL","display":"worker's compensation","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19719"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","display":"ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of health insurance policy that covers health services provided to covered parties. A health insurance policy is a written contract for insurance between the insurance company and the policyholder, and contains pertinent facts about the policy owner (the policy holder), the health insurance coverage, the insured subscribers and dependents, and the insurer. Health insurance is typically administered in accordance with a plan, which specifies (1) the type of health services and health conditions that will be covered under what circumstances (e.g., exclusion of a pre-existing condition, service must be deemed medically necessary; service must not be experimental; service must provided in accordance with a protocol; drug must be on a formulary; service must be prior authorized; or be a referral from a primary care provider); (2) the type and affiliation of providers (e.g., only allopathic physicians, only in network, only providers employed by an HMO); (3) financial participations required of covered parties (e.g., co-pays, coinsurance, deductibles, out-of-pocket); and (4) the manner in which services will be paid (e.g., under indemnity or fee-for-service health plans, the covered party typically pays out-of-pocket and then file a claim for reimbursement, while health plans that have contractual relationships with providers, i.e., network providers, typically do not allow the providers to bill the covered party for the cost of the service until after filing a claim with the payer and receiving reimbursement).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that provides a regular payment to compensate for income lost due to the covered party's inability to work because of illness or injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EWB","display":"employee welfare benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy under a benefit plan run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits other than pension-related to employees and their families. Typically provides health-related benefits, benefits for disability, disease or unemployment, or day care and scholarship benefits, among others. An employer sponsored health policy includes coverage of health care expenses arising from sickness or accidental injury, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for dental or vision benefits, which are typically provided under a separate policy. Coverage excludes health care expenses covered by accident or disability, workers' compensation, liability or automobile insurance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"FLEXP","display":"flexible benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers qualified benefits under a Flexible Benefit plan such as group medical insurance, long and short term disability income insurance, group term life insurance for employees only up to $50,000 face amount, specified disease coverage such as a cancer policy, dental and/or vision insurance, hospital indemnity insurance, accidental death and dismemberment insurance, a medical expense reimbursement plan and a dependent care reimbursement plan.\r\n\r\n *Discussion:* See UnderwriterRoleTypeCode flexible benefit plan which is defined as a benefit plan that allows employees to choose from several life, health, disability, dental, and other insurance plans according to their individual needs. Also known as cafeteria plans. Authorized under Section 125 of the Revenue Act of 1978.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"LIFE","display":"life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy under which the insurer agrees to pay a sum of money upon the occurrence of the covered partys death. In return, the policyholder agrees to pay a stipulated amount called a premium at regular intervals. Life insurance indemnifies the beneficiary for the loss of the insurable interest that a beneficiary has in the life of a covered party. For persons related by blood, a substantial interest established through love and affection, and for all other persons, a lawful and substantial economic interest in having the life of the insured continue. An insurable interest is required when purchasing life insurance on another person. Specific exclusions are often written into the contract to limit the liability of the insurer; for example claims resulting from suicide or relating to war, riot and civil commotion.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:*A life insurance policy may be used by the covered party as a source of health care coverage in the case of a viatical settlement, which is the sale of a life insurance policy by the policy owner, before the policy matures. Such a sale, at a price discounted from the face amount of the policy but usually in excess of the premiums paid or current cash surrender value, provides the seller an immediate cash settlement. Generally, viatical settlements involve insured individuals with a life expectancy of less than two years. In countries without state-subsidized healthcare and high healthcare costs (e.g. United States), this is a practical way to pay extremely high health insurance premiums that severely ill people face. Some people are also familiar with life settlements, which are similar transactions but involve insureds with longer life expectancies (two to fifteen years).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22148"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PNC","display":"property and casualty insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A type of insurance that covers damage to or loss of the policyholderaTMs property by providing payments for damages to property damage or the injury or death of living subjects. The terms \"casualty\" and \"liability\" insurance are often used interchangeably. Both cover the policyholder's legal liability for damages caused to other persons and/or their property.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"REI","display":"reinsurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An agreement between two or more insurance companies by which the risk of loss is proportioned. Thus the risk of loss is spread and a disproportionately large loss under a single policy does not fall on one insurance company. Acceptance by an insurer, called a reinsurer, of all or part of the risk of loss of another insurance company.\r\n\r\n**Discussion:** Reinsurance is a means by which an insurance company can protect itself against the risk of losses with other insurance companies. Individuals and corporations obtain insurance policies to provide protection for various risks (hurricanes, earthquakes, lawsuits, collisions, sickness and death, etc.). Reinsurers, in turn, provide insurance to insurance companies.\r\n\r\nFor example, an HMO may purchase a reinsurance policy to protect itself from losing too much money from one insured's particularly expensive health care costs. An insurance company issuing an automobile liability policy, with a limit of $100,000 per accident may reinsure its liability in excess of $10,000. A fire insurance company which issues a large policy generally reinsures a portion of the risk with one or several other companies. Also called *risk control insurance or stop-loss insurance.*","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SURPL","display":"surplus line insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** \r\n\r\n1. A risk or part of a risk for which there is no normal insurance market available.\r\n2. Insurance written by unauthorized insurance companies. Surplus lines insurance is insurance placed with unauthorized insurance companies through licensed surplus lines agents or brokers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"UMBRL","display":"umbrella liability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A form of insurance protection that provides additional liability coverage after the limits of your underlying policy are reached. An umbrella liability policy also protects you (the insured) in many situations not covered by the usual liability policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22122"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20876"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"ALEC","display":"alternate electronic","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a submitted invoice that arrived to the payor from an electronic source that did not provide a conformant set of HL7 messages (e.g. web claim submission).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20077"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"BONUS","display":"bonus","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"CFWD","display":"carry forward adjusment","definition":"An amount still owing to the payor but the payment is 0$ and this cannot be settled until a future payment is made.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EDU","display":"education fees","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for tuition and continuing education.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EPYMT","display":"early payment fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a shorter payment frequency (i.e. next day versus biweekly payments.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"GARN","display":"garnishee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","display":"submitted invoice","definition":"Payment is based on a payment intent for a previously submitted Invoice, based on formal adjudication results..","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PINV","display":"paper invoice","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a paper (original, may have been faxed) invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PPRD","display":"prior period adjustment","definition":"An amount that was owed to the payor as indicated, by a carry forward adjusment, in a previous payment advice","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PROA","display":"professional association deduction","definition":"Professional association fee that is collected by the payor from the practitioner/provider on behalf of the association","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RECOV","display":"recovery","definition":"Retroactive adjustment such as fee rate adjustment due to contract negotiations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RETRO","display":"retro adjustment","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"TRAN","display":"transaction fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVTYPE","display":"invoice type","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by invoice type (e.g. RXDINV - Pharmacy Dispense)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYEE","display":"payee","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYOR","display":"payor","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"SENDAPP","display":"sending application","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of a messaging application on a single processor. It is a registered identifier known to the receivers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"UNSPSC","display":"United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification","definition":"**Description:**United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification, managed by Uniform Code Council (UCC): www.unspsc.org","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22179"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode"}]},{"code":"_CPT5","display":"CPT5","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22177"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCS","display":"HCPCS","definition":"**Description:**Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) Codes are procedure identifying codes. HCPCS is Health Care Finance AdministrationaTMs (HFCA) coding scheme to group procedures performed for payment to providers. contains codes for medical equipment, injectable drugs, transportation services, and other services not found in CPT4.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22175"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD10PCS","display":"ICD10PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-10-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22173"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD9PCS","display":"ICD9PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-9-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-9-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22174"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare products.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for A substance used as a medication or in the preparation of medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","definition":"The detail item codes to identify charges or changes to the total billing of a claim due to insurance rules and payments.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","definition":"An identifying data string for medical facility accommodations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20886"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying data string for oral health procedure codes, e.g. extract tooth.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20885"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"GTIN","display":"Global Trade Item Number","definition":"**Description:**Global Trade Item Number is an identifier for trade items developed by GS1 (comprising the former EAN International and Uniform Code Council).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22181"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"UPC","display":"Universal Product Code","definition":"**Description:**Universal Product Code is one of a wide variety of bar code languages widely used in the United States and Canada for items in stores.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22180"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"COIN","display":"coinsurance","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a percentage of the eligible amount for the service/product that is typically charged after the covered party has met the policy deductible. This amount represents the covered party's coinsurance that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21946"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COPAYMENT","display":"patient co-pay","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a defined amount per service/product of the eligible amount for the service/product. This amount represents the covered party's copayment that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"DEDUCTIBLE","display":"deductible","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay in a particular period (e.g. annual) before the benefits are payable by the adjudicator. This amount represents the covered party's deductible that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"PAY","display":"payment","definition":"The guarantor, who may be the patient, pays the entire charge for a service. Reasons for such action may include: there is no insurance coverage for the service (e.g. cosmetic surgery); the patient wishes to self-pay for the service; or the insurer denies payment for the service due to contractual provisions such as the need for prior authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21362"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"SPEND","display":"spend down","definition":"That total amount of the eligible charges which a covered party must periodically pay for services and/or products prior to the Medicaid program providing any coverage. This amount represents the covered party's spend down that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21947"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COINS","display":"co-insurance","definition":"The covered party pays a percentage of the cost of covered services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify adjudicator specified components to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge. As for example after hours increase in the office visit fee.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20883"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify provider supplied charges or changes to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20884"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge by a tax factor applied to the amount. As for example 7% provincial sales tax.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"AFTHRS","display":"non-normal hours","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing outside of normal working hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"ISOL","display":"isolation allowance","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing in a remote location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"OOO","display":"out of office","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing at a location other than normal working location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"CANCAPT","display":"cancelled appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient cancels an appointment with insufficient time for the provider to make another appointment with another patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"DSC","display":"discount","definition":"A reduction in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example a 5% discount for volume purchase.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"ESA","display":"extraordinary service assessment","definition":"A premium on a service fee is requested because, due to extenuating circumstances, the service took an extraordinary amount of time or supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FFSTOP","display":"fee for service top off","definition":"Under agreement between the parties (payor and provider), a guaranteed level of income is established for the provider over a specific, pre-determined period of time. The normal course of business for the provider is submission of fee-for-service claims. Should the fee-for-service income during the specified period of time be less than the agreed to amount, a top-up amount is paid to the provider equal to the difference between the fee-for-service total and the guaranteed income amount for that period of time. The details of the agreement may specify (or not) a requirement for repayment to the payor in the event that the fee-for-service income exceeds the guaranteed amount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21311"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FNLFEE","display":"final fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual final fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21314"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FRSTFEE","display":"first fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual initial fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21313"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MARKUP","display":"markup or up-charge","definition":"An increase in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example, 12% markup on product cost.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20038"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MISSAPT","display":"missed appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient does not show for an appointment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20039"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERFEE","display":"periodic fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual periodic fee associated with treating a patient. For example, expected billing cycle such as monthly, quarterly. The actual period (e.g. monthly, quarterly) is specified in the unit quantity of the Invoice Element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21312"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERMBNS","display":"performance bonus","definition":"The amount for a performance bonus that is being requested from a payor for the performance of certain services (childhood immunizations, influenza immunizations, mammograms, pap smears) on a sliding scale. That is, for 90% of childhood immunizations to a maximum of $2200/yr. An invoice is created at the end of the service period (one year) and a code is submitted indicating the percentage achieved and the dollar amount claimed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21310"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"RESTOCK","display":"restocking fee","definition":"A charge is requested because the patient failed to pick up the item and it took an amount of time to return it to stock for future use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"TRAVEL","display":"travel","definition":"A charge to cover the cost of travel time and/or cost in conjuction with providing a service or product. It may be charged per kilometer or per hour based on the effective agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"URGENT","display":"urgent","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for providing an expedited response to an urgent situation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21315"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode","display":"ActEncounterAccommodationCode","definition":"Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"FST","display":"federal sales tax","definition":"Federal tax on transactions such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"HST","display":"harmonized sales Tax","definition":"Joint Federal/Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"PST","display":"provincial/state sales tax","definition":"Tax levied by the provincial or state jurisdiction such as Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee and other cost elements such as bonus, retroactive adjustment and transaction fees.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20875"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailCode","definition":"Codes representing a service or product that is being invoiced (billed). The code can represent such concepts as \"office visit\", \"drug X\", \"wheelchair\" and other billable items such as taxes, service charges and discounts.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated","display":"InvoiceElementAdjudicated","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts adjudicated for all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated within a time period based on the adjudication date of the Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementPaid","display":"InvoiceElementPaid","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts paid for all Invoice Groupings that were paid within a time period based on the payment date.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted","display":"InvoiceElementSubmitted","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts billed for all Invoice Groupings that were submitted within a time period. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nThe domain is only specified for an intermediate invoice element group (non-root or non-top level) for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain reflect the type of Invoice such as Pharmacy Dispense, Clinical Service and Clinical Product. The domain is only specified for the root (top level) invoice element group for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDDRGING","display":"compound drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound ingredients being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20033"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDINDING","display":"compound ingredient invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying an ingredient drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20034"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDSUPING","display":"compound supply invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound supplies being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20035"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGING","display":"drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20032"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"FRAMEING","display":"frame invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the frame fee and the frame dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"LENSING","display":"lens invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the lens fee and the lens dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PRDING","display":"product invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the product (good or supply) being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or discount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"COVGE","display":"coverage problem","definition":"Insurance coverage problems have been encountered. Additional explanation information to be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17594"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"EFORM","display":"electronic form to follow","definition":"Electronic form with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"FAX","display":"fax to follow","definition":"Fax with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"GFTH","display":"good faith indicator","definition":"The medical service was provided to a patient in good faith that they had medical coverage, although no evidence of coverage was available before service was rendered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17592"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"LATE","display":"late invoice","definition":"Knowingly over the payor's published time limit for this invoice possibly due to a previous payor's delays in processing. Additional reason information will be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17593"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"MANUAL","display":"manual review","definition":"Manual review of the invoice is requested. Additional information to be supplied. This may be used in the case of an appeal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19713"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"OOJ","display":"out of jurisdiction","definition":"The medical service and/or product was provided to a patient that has coverage in another jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"ORTHO","display":"orthodontic service","definition":"The service provided is required for orthodontic purposes. If the covered party has orthodontic coverage, then the service may be paid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21317"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PAPER","display":"paper documentation to follow","definition":"Paper documentation (or other physical format) with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PIE","display":"public insurance exhausted","definition":"Public Insurance has been exhausted. Invoice has not been sent to Public Insuror and therefore no Explanation Of Benefits (EOB) is provided with this Invoice submission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PYRDELAY","display":"delayed by a previous payor","definition":"Allows provider to explain lateness of invoice to a subsequent payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17591"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REFNR","display":"referral not required","definition":"Rules of practice do not require a physician's referral for the provider to perform a billable service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REPSERV","display":"repeated service","definition":"The same service was delivered within a time period that would usually indicate a duplicate billing. However, the repeated service is a medical necessity and therefore not a duplicate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"UNRELAT","display":"unrelated service","definition":"The service provided is not related to another billed service. For example, 2 unrelated services provided on the same day to the same patient which may normally result in a refused payment for one of the items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21316"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"VERBAUTH","display":"verbal authorization","definition":"The provider has received a verbal permission from an authoritative source to perform the service or supply the item being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"CPINV","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CP","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CPINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSINV","display":"clinical service invoice","definition":"Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.\r\n\r\n\\[1\\] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.\r\n\r\nFor example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).\r\n\r\n\\[2\\] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.\r\n\r\nFor example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.\r\n\r\n\\[3\\] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.\r\n\r\nFor example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CS"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CS","display":"clinical service invoice","definition":"Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.\r\n\r\n\\[1\\] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.\r\n\r\nFor example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).\r\n\r\n\\[2\\] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.\r\n\r\nFor example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.\r\n\r\n\\[3\\] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.\r\n\r\nFor example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CSINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSPINV","display":"clinical service and product","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more services and one or more product. Billing for these service(s) and product(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).\r\n\r\nAll items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.\r\n\r\nFor example , a brace (product) invoiced together with the fitting (service).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20076"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"FININV","display":"financial invoice","definition":"Invoice Grouping without clinical justification. These will not require identification of participants and associations from a clinical context such as patient and provider.\r\n\r\nExamples are interest charges and mileage.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19716"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"OHSINV","display":"oral health service","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more oral health services. Billing for these service(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).\r\n\r\nAll items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21309"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PAINV","display":"preferred accommodation invoice","definition":"HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PA"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PA","display":"preferred accommodation invoice","definition":"HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PAINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXCINV","display":"Rx compound invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXC"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXC","display":"Rx compound invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXCINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXDINV","display":"Rx dispense invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXD","display":"Rx dispense invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXDINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"SBFINV","display":"sessional or block fee invoice","definition":"Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Group contains one billable item for multiple clinical services in one or more sessions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19717"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"VRXINV","display":"vision dispense invoice","definition":"Vision dispense invoice for up to 2 lens (left and right), frame and optional discount. 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Such registries are used for a variety of purposes by federated health information exchanges, health information systems, personal record systems, and research organizations to locate and retrieve personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information stored externally to their systems.\r\n\r\nRepositories governed by registry consent directives are data stores used to collect, access, use, and disclose personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects and metadata used to manage the repository contents. Such repositories are used for a variety of purposes by centralized health information exchanges, health information systems used by providers and payers, personal record systems, and research organizations. A repository typically includes a registry component that provides the data store with content management capabilities for internal purposes. A repository may also interface with one or more external registries, which provide federated content management.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specific US privacy consent directives in accordance with US federal, state, regional, organizational, or personal privacy policies.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw","display":"General Data Protection Regulation","definition":"GDPR is a regulation on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (Data Protection Directive). Promulgated by the European Parliament and Council of the European Union. Regulation available at L119, 4 May 2016, p. 1-88.\r\n\r\nGDPR privacy policies specifying types of lawful personal data processing based on a controller meeting one or more processing condition such as specified by law, compliance with data controller legal obligations, protection of data subject's vital interests, perform tasks in the public interest, related to legal claims, research and statistics, management of health or social care systems, legitimate interests of controller or third party. Processing sensitive personal data, including genetic, biometric and health data, as well as personal data from which racial and ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or ideological convictions or membership in a union can be attributed to a person, requires meeting at least one sensitive personal processing condition.\r\n\r\nGDPR 'processing' means any operation or set of operations which is performed on personal data or on sets of personal data, whether or not by automated means, such as collection, recording, organisation, structuring, storage, adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making available, alignment or combination, restriction, erasure or destruction. Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\n * Confidentiality: e.g., U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; L (low) for pseudonymized U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; M (moderate) for indirectly identifiable information such as test scores and work times; N (normal) for personal information; and R (restricted) for sensitive personal information\r\n * DPR sensitivity \\[personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation, some of which are defined at Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n * GDPR processing policies and GDPR ConsentDirectiveTypes, such as data subject consent and research consent.\r\n * Other security category codes, such as compartment codes for legitimate relationship,\r\n * Handling instructions including\r\n * Purpose of use stipulated in a GDPR consent or contract restricting processing or related to the scope of the processing policy such as public health, research, and legal obligations\r\n * Obligation policies such as GDPR Information Obligations https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/information-obligations, data minimization and deleting when processing is complete\r\n * Refrain policies such as no relinking\r\n\r\nSee Intersoft GDPR at https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/personal-data/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ Relevant Recitals (26) Not applicable to anonymous data (30) Online identifiers for profiling and identification (34) Genetic data (35) Health data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data at Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/\r\n\r\nAuthorities\r\n\r\n * European Data Protection Supervisor - Security Measures for Personal Data Processing (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority Isle of Man - Know your data - Mapping the 5 W's (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority UK - Key definitions (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What is personal data? (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What personal data is considered sensitive? (Link)\r\n * EU publications - Handbook on European data protection law - Personal data, page 83 (Link)\r\n\r\nExpert contribution A&L Goodbody - The GDPR: A Guide for Businesses - Definition of Personal & Sensitive Data, Page 8 (Link) Bird & Bird - Sensitive data and lawful processing (Link) https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/justice-and-fundamental-rights/data-protection/2018-reform-eu-data-protection-rules\\_en General Data Protection Regulation https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1528874672298&uri=CELEX%3A32016R0679 Communication on data protection - guidance on direct application of the GDPR http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1517578296944&uri=CELEX%3A52018DC0043 Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","display":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","definition":"*Definition:* A jurisdictional mandate in the U.S. relating to privacy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActPrivacyLaw codes may be associated with an Act or a Role to indicate the legal provision to which the assignment of an Act.confidentialityCode or Role.confidentialtyCode complies. May be used to further specify rationale for assignment of other ActPrivacyPolicy codes in the US realm, e.g., ETH and 42CFRPart2 can be differentiated from ETH and Title38Part1.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23760"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentDirective","display":"ActConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyLaw","display":"ActPrivacyLaw","definition":"A jurisdictional mandate, regulation, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization, which is imposed on:\r\n\r\n * The activity of a governed party\r\n * The behavior of a governed party\r\n * The manner in which an act is executed by a governed party","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23328"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation characterizing the value or importance of a resource and may include its vulnerability. (Based on ISO7498-2:1989. Note: The vulnerability of personally identifiable sensitive information may be based on concerns that the unauthorized disclosure may result in social stigmatization or discrimination.) Description: Types of Sensitivity policy that apply to Acts or Roles. A sensitivity policy is adopted by an enterprise or group of enterprises (a 'policy domain') through a formal data use agreement that stipulates the value, importance, and vulnerability of information. A sensitivity code representing a sensitivity policy may be associated with criteria such as categories of information or sets of information identifiers (e.g., a value set of clinical codes or branch in a code system hierarchy). These criteria may in turn be used for the Policy Decision Point in a Security Engine. A sensitivity code may be used to set the confidentiality code used on information about Acts and Roles to trigger the security mechanisms required to control how security principals (i.e., a person, a machine, a software application) may act on the information (e.g., collection, access, use, or disclosure). Sensitivity codes are never assigned to the transport or business envelope containing patient specific information being exchanged outside of a policy domain as this would disclose the information intended to be protected by the policy. When sensitive information is exchanged with others outside of a policy domain, the confidentiality code on the transport or business envelope conveys the receiver's responsibilities and indicates the how the information is to be safeguarded without unauthorized disclosure of the sensitive information. This ensures that sensitive information is treated by receivers as the sender intends, accomplishing interoperability without point to point negotiations.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an employee's sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. 'Taboo' would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly. Sensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable InformationSensitivityPolicy Act.code may be useful in some scenarios if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23329"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"COMPT","display":"compartment","definition":"This is the healthcare analog to the US Intelligence Community's concept of a Special Access Program. Compartment codes may be used in as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in security category label field.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 2382-8 definition of Compartment - \"A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceCode","display":"ActBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services, as opposed to codes for similar services used to identify them for functional purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"**Description:**An identifying code for oral health interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22178"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"LOAN","display":"Loan","definition":"Temporary supply of a product without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"TRANSFER","display":"Transfer","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"CHAR","display":"charity program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided directly to a beneficiary who typically has no other source of coverage without charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided to crime victims for injuries or losses related to the occurrence of a crime.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22124"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EAP","display":"employee assistance program","definition":"**Definition:** An employee assistance program is run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits and covering all or part of the cost for employees to receive counseling, referrals, and advice in dealing with stressful issues in their lives. These may include substance abuse, bereavement, marital problems, weight issues, or general wellness issues. The services are usually provided by a third-party, rather than the company itself, and the company receives only summary statistical data from the service provider. Employee's names and services received are kept confidential.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22125"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"GOVEMP","display":"government employee health program","definition":"**Definition:** A set of codes used to indicate a government program that is an organized structure for administering and funding coverage of a benefit package for covered parties meeting eligibility criteria, typically related to employment, health and financial status. Government programs are established or permitted by legislation with provisions for ongoing government oversight. Regulation mandates the structure of the program, the manner in which it is funded and administered, covered benefits, provider types, eligibility criteria and financial participation. A government agency is charged with implementing the program in accordance to the regulation\r\n\r\n**Example:** Federal employee health benefit program in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22126"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HIRISK","display":"high risk pool program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides health coverage to individuals who are considered medically uninsurable or high risk, and who have been denied health insurance due to a serious health condition. In certain cases, it also applies to those who have been quoted very high premiums a\" again, due to a serious health condition. The pool charges premiums for coverage. Because the pool covers high-risk people, it incurs a higher level of claims than premiums can cover. The insurance industry pays into the pool to make up the difference and help it remain viable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22127"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"indigenous peoples health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated indigenous peoples health programs.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Indian Health Service in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22128"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MILITARY","display":"military health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides coverage for health services to military personnel, retirees, and dependents. A covered party who is a subscriber can choose from among Fee-for-Service (FFS) plans, and their Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO), or Plans offering a Point of Service (POS) Product, or Health Maintenance Organizations.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., TRICARE, CHAMPUS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"RETIRE","display":"retiree health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government mandated program with specific eligibility requirements based on premium contributions made during employment, length of employment, age, and employment status, e.g., being retired, disabled, or a dependent of a covered party under this program. Benefits typically include ambulatory, inpatient, and long-term care, such as hospice care, home health care and respite care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SOCIAL","display":"social service program","definition":"**Definition:** A social service program funded by a public or governmental entity.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Programs providing habilitation, food, lodging, medicine, transportation, equipment, devices, products, education, training, counseling, alteration of living or work space, and other resources to persons meeting eligibility criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22144"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VET","display":"veteran health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated veteran health programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22145"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SREC","display":"specimen received","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been received by the participating organization/department.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21675"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"SSTOR","display":"specimen in storage","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been placed into storage at a participating location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"STRAN","display":"specimen in transit","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been put in transit to a participating receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"ACID","display":"Acidification","definition":"The lowering of specimen pH through the addition of an acid","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ALK","display":"Alkalization","definition":"The act rendering alkaline by impregnating with an alkali; a conferring of alkaline qualities.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"DEFB","display":"Defibrination","definition":"The removal of fibrin from whole blood or plasma through physical or chemical means","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"FILT","display":"Filtration","definition":"The passage of a liquid through a filter, accomplished by gravity, pressure or vacuum (suction).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"LDLP","display":"LDL Precipitation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"NEUT","display":"Neutralization","definition":"The act or process by which an acid and a base are combined in such proportions that the resulting compound is neutral.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"RECA","display":"Recalcification","definition":"The addition of calcium back to a specimen after it was removed by chelating agents","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"UFIL","display":"Ultrafiltration","definition":"The filtration of a colloidal substance through a semipermeable medium that allows only the passage of small molecules.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ARTBLD","display":"ActSpecObsArtBldCode","definition":"Describes the artificial blood identifier that is associated with the specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DILUTION","display":"ActSpecObsDilutionCode","definition":"An observation that reports the dilution of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"EVNFCTS","display":"ActSpecObsEvntfctsCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActLabObsEnvfctsCode domain. (Environmental Factors)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"INTFR","display":"ActSpecObsInterferenceCode","definition":"An observation that relates to factors that may potentially cause interference with the observation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"VOLUME","display":"ActSpecObsVolumeCode","definition":"An observation that reports the volume of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14369"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DRUG","display":"Drug therapy","definition":"The introduction of a drug into a subject with the intention of altering its biologic state with the intent of improving its health status.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21518"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"FD","display":"food","definition":"**Description:** The introduction of material into a subject with the intent of providing nutrition or other dietary supplements (e.g. minerals or vitamins).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUNIZ","display":"Immunization","definition":"The introduction of an immunogen with the intent of stimulating an immune response, aimed at preventing subsequent infections by more viable agents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21519"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","display":"AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Administration of the proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated as proposed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode","display":"SupplyDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Supplying the product at this time may be inappropriate or indicate compliance issues with the associated therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HISTORIC","display":"record recorded as historical","definition":"**Description:** While the record was accepted in the repository, there is a more recent version of a record of this type.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23273"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"PATPREF","display":"violates stated preferences","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OE","display":"order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a service to be performed for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATDOC","display":"patient documentation task","definition":"A person enters documentation about a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATINFO","display":"patient information review task","definition":"A person (e.g., clinician, the patient herself) reviews patient information in the electronic medical record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode","display":"act medication therapy duration working list","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies different types of 'duration-based' mediation working lists.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Continuous/Chronic\" \"Short-Term\" and \"As Needed\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientTransportationModeCode","display":"ActPatientTransportationModeCode","definition":"Definition: Characterizes how a patient was or will be transported to the site of a patient encounter.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via ambulance, via public transit, on foot.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTransportationModeCode"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2CD","display":"42 CFR Part 2 consent directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's privacy consent directive that complies with 42 CFR Part 2.31 Consent requirements https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-31.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a written consent to a disclosure under the regulations in Part 2.\r\n\r\n(1) The name of the patient. (2) The specific name(s) or general designation(s) of the part 2 program(s), entity(ies), or individual(s) permitted to make the disclosure. (3) How much and what kind of information is to be disclosed, including an explicit description of the substance use disorder information that may be disclosed. (4) (i) The name(s) of the individual(s) to whom a disclosure is to be made; or (ii)Entities with a treating provider relationship with the patient. If the recipient entity has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed, such as a hospital, a health care clinic, or a private practice, the name of that entity; or (iii)Entities without a treating provider relationship with the patient. (A) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is a third-party payer, the name of the entity; or (B) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is not covered by paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, such as an entity that facilitates the exchange of health information or a research institution, the name(s) of the entity(-ies); and (1) The name(s) of an individual participant(s); or (2) The name(s) of an entity participant(s) that has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed; or (3) A general designation of an individual or entity participant(s) or class of participants that must be limited to a participant(s) who has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed. (i) When using a general designation, a statement must be included on the consent form that the patient (or other individual authorized to sign in lieu of the patient), confirms their understanding that, upon their request and consistent with this part, they must be provided a list of entities to which their information has been disclosed pursuant to the general designation (see Section 2.13(d)). (ii) \\[Reserved\\] (5) The purpose of the disclosure. In accordance with Section 2.13(a), the disclosure must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the stated purpose. (6) A statement that the consent is subject to revocation at any time except to the extent that the part 2 program or other lawful holder of patient identifying information that is permitted to make the disclosure has already acted in reliance on it. Acting in reliance includes the provision of treatment services in reliance on a valid consent to disclose information to a third-party payer (7) The date, event, or condition upon which the consent will expire if not revoked before. This date, event, or condition must ensure that the consent will last no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is provided. (8) The signature of the patient and, when required for a patient who is a minor, the signature of an individual authorized to give consent under Section 2.14; or, when required for a patient who is incompetent or deceased, the signature of an individual authorized to sign under Section 2.15. Electronic signatures are permitted to the extent that they are not prohibited by any applicable law. (9) The date on which the consent is signed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive, \"42CFRPart2CD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR § 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"CompoundResearchCD","display":"Compound HIPAA Research Authorization and Informed Consent for Research","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research when combined with a Common Rule or Federal Drug Administration consent to participate in research also known as a compound authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) has developed the Informed Consent and Authorization Toolkit for Minimal Risk Research to facilitate the process of obtaining informed consent and Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) authorization from potential research subjects. This toolkit contains information for people responsible for ensuring that potential research subjects are informed in a manner that is consistent with medical ethics and regulatory guidelines. From https://www.ahrq.gov/sites/default/files/publications/files/ictoolkit.pdf.\r\n\r\nUsed to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"CompoundResearchCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section.\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\nA HIPAA Authorization must comply with 45 CFR Section164.508(c) Implementation specifications: Core elements and requirements - (1) Core elements. A valid authorization under this Section must contain at least the following elements: (i) A description of the information to be used or disclosed that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful fashion. (ii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, authorized to make the requested use or disclosure. (iii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, to whom the covered entity may make the requested use or disclosure. (iv) A description of each purpose of the requested use or disclosure. The statement \"at the request of the individual\" is a sufficient description of the purpose when an individual initiates the authorization and does not, or elects not to, provide a statement of the purpose. (v) An expiration date or an expiration event that relates to the individual or the purpose of the use or disclosure. The statement \"end of the research study,\" \"none,\" or similar language is sufficient if the authorization is for a use or disclosure of protected health information for research, including for the creation and maintenance of a research database or research repository. (vi) Signature of the individual and date. If the authorization is signed by a personal representative of the individual, a description of such representative's authority to act for the individual must also be provided. (2)Required statements. In addition to the core elements, the authorization must contain statements adequate to place the individual on notice of all of the following: (i) The individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and either: (A) The exceptions to the right to revoke and a description of how the individual may revoke the authorization; or (B) To the extent that the information in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is included in the notice required by Section 164.520, a reference to the covered entity's notice. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsentCD","display":"HIPAA Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's consent directive under 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsentCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAResearchAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"HIPAAResearchAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROAD","display":"HIPAA Right of Access Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf, stipulating the policy elements of an individual's written and signed right of access directive requesting that a covered entity send the individual's protected health information (PHI) to a third party.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.524(c)(3)(ii) If an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf\r\n\r\nThis right applies to PHI in a designated record set, which is defined as \"Designated record set means: (1) A group of records maintained by or for a covered entity that is: (i) The medical records and billing records about individuals maintained by or for a covered health care provider; (ii) The enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medical management record systems maintained by or for a health plan; or (iii) Used, in whole or in part, by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals. \\[https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/45/164.501\\]. Also see HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 \\[https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html\\#maximumflatfee\\].\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.524 use \"HIPAAROAD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health and substance use treatment in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014. In Michigan, while providers are not required to use this new standard form (MDHHS-5515), they are required to accept it.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2","display":"42 CFR Part2","definition":"A code representing 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records. 42 CFR Part 2 stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who has applied for or been given diagnosis or treatment for alcohol or drug abuse at a federally assisted program, which includes non-disclosure of health information relating to health care paid for by a federally assisted substance use disorder program without patient consent. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, and disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf use \"42CFRPart2\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 42 CFR Part 2 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23761"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"CommonRule","display":"Common Rule","definition":"A code representing U.S. Federal laws governing research-related privacy policies known as the \"Common Rule\". The Common Rule is the U.S. Federal regulations governing the protection of human subjects in research (codified at Subpart A of 45 CFR part 46), which has been adopted by 15 U.S. Federal departments and agencies in an effort to promote uniformity, understanding, and compliance with human subject protections. Existing regulations governing the protection of human subjects in Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-regulated research (21 CFR parts 50, 56, 312, and 812) are separate from the Common Rule but include similar requirements.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information or biospecimen is governed by the Common Rule use \"COMMONRULE\" as the security label policy code. Information or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23762"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuth","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508) Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual to use or disclose protected health information for other purposes, or to authorize another covered entity to disclose protected health information to the requesting covered entity, are termed \"authorizations\".\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where use or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuth\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent\".\r\n\r\nThe Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use 'HIPAAConsent' as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code 'R' (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAANOPP","display":"HIPAA notice of privacy practices","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.520), which stipulates an individual's right to adequate notice of the uses and disclosures of protected health information that may be made by the covered entity, and of the individual's rights and the covered entity's legal duties with respect to protected health information. Relevant HIPAA Privacy Rule provisions are at Section 164.520 (a) Standard: Notice of privacy practices. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-520.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, if collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices, use \"HIPAANOPP\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23763"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAPsyNotes","display":"HIPAA psychotherapy notes","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508), which stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who is the subject of psychotherapy notes, and requires authorization for certain uses and disclosure of that information.\r\n\r\nDefinition of Psychotherapy notes 45 CFR Section 164.501 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-501.pdf: Psychotherapy notes means notes recorded (in any medium) by a health care provider who is a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversation during a private counseling session or a group, joint, or family counseling session and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record. Psychotherapy notes excludes medication prescription and monitoring, counseling session start and stop times, the modalities and frequencies of treatment furnished, results of clinical tests, and any summary of the following items: Diagnosis, functional status, the treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.\r\n\r\nSee Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required. (2)Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf: Notwithstanding any provision of this subpart, other than the transition provisions in Section 164.532, a covered entity must obtain an authorization for any use or disclosure of psychotherapy notes, except: (i) To carry out the following treatment, payment, or health care operations: (A) Use by the originator of the psychotherapy notes for treatment; (B) Use or disclosure by the covered entity for its own training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in mental health learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills in group, joint, family, or individual counseling; or (C) Use or disclosure by the covered entity to defend itself in a legal action or other proceeding brought by the individual; and (ii) A use or disclosure that is required by Section 164.502(a)(2)(ii) or permitted by Section 164.512(a); Section 164.512(d) with respect to the oversight of the originator of the psychotherapy notes; Section 164.512(g)(1); Section 164.512(j)(1)(i).\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , use \"HIPAAPsyNotes\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23764"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROA","display":"HIPAA Right of Access","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.govinfo.gov/app/details/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524, which stipulates that an individual has a right of access to inspect and obtain a copy of protected health information about the individual in a designated record set, for as long as the protected health information is maintained in the designated record set with exceptions stipulated in HIPAA Privacy Rule Section 164.524. Exceptions include psychotherapy notes and information compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or for use in, a civil, criminal, or administrative action or proceeding.\r\n\r\nIf an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information.\r\n\r\nFor discussion on extent of right, grounds for denial, and documentation requirements see: HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html and HHS FAQ on Right of Access vs. HIPAA Authorization https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/2041/why-depend-on-the-individuals-right/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed under 45 CFR Section 164.5224 use \"HIPAAROA\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAASelfPay","display":"HIPAA self-pay","definition":"A code representing 45 CFR 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of an individual to restrict disclosure of information related to health care items or services for which the individual pays out of pocket in full to a health plan or payer.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf. (vi) A covered entity must agree to the request of an individual to restrict disclosure of protected health information about the individual to a health plan if: (A) The disclosure is for the purpose of carrying out payment or health care operations and is not otherwise required by law; and (B) The protected health information pertains solely to a health care item or service for which the individual, or person other than the health plan on behalf of the individual, has paid the covered entity in full.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf use \"HIPAASelfPay\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23765"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"Title38Section7332","display":"Title 38 Section 7332","definition":"A code representing Title 38 Section 7332, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of veterans diagnosed and treated for substance use disorders, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia.\r\n\r\nhttps://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html . (1) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any patient or subject which are maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity (including education, training, treatment, rehabilitation, or research) relating to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia which is carried out by or for the Department under this title shall, except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), be confidential, and (section 5701 of this title to the contrary notwithstanding) such records may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized under subsection (b). (2) Paragraph (1) prohibits the disclosure to any person or entity other than the patient or subject concerned of the fact that a special written consent is required in order for such records to be disclosed. (b) (1) The content of any record referred to in subsection (a) may be disclosed by the Secretary in accordance with the prior written consent of the patient or subject with respect to whom such record is maintained, but only to such extent, under such circumstances, and for such purposes as may be allowed in regulations prescribed by the Secretary. (2) Whether or not any patient or subject, with respect to whom any given record referred to in subsection (a) is maintained, gives written consent, the content of such record may be disclosed by the Secretary as follows: (A) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a bona fide medical emergency. (B) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or program evaluation, but such personnel may not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient or subject in any report of such research, audit, or evaluation, or otherwise disclose patient or subject identities in any manner. (C) (i) In the case of any record which is maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, to a Federal, State, or local public-health authority charged under Federal or State law with the protection of the public health, and to which Federal or State law requires disclosure of such record, if a qualified representative of such authority has made a written request that such record be provided as required pursuant to such law for a purpose authorized by such law. (ii) A person to whom a record is disclosed under this paragraph may not redisclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made. (D) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of competent jurisdiction granted after application showing good cause therefor. In assessing good cause the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient or subject, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized disclosure. (E) To an entity described in paragraph (1)(B) of section 5701(k) of this title, but only to the extent authorized by such section. (F) (i) To a representative of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity, when a practitioner deems the content of the given record necessary for that representative to make an informed decision regarding the patient's treatment. (ii) In this subparagraph, the term \"representative\" means an individual, organization, or other body authorized under section 7331 of this title and its implementing regulations to give informed consent on behalf of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity. (G) To a State controlled substance monitoring program, including a program approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 280g-3), to the extent necessary to prevent misuse and diversion of prescription medicines. (H) (i) To a non-Department entity (including private entities and other Federal agencies) for purposes of providing health care, including hospital care, medical services, and extended care services, to Veterans or performing other health care-related activities or functions. (ii) An entity to which a record is disclosed under this subparagraph may not disclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made or as permitted by law. (I) To a third party in order to recover or collect reasonable charges for care furnished to, or paid on behalf of, a Veteran in connection with a non-service connected disability as permitted by section 1729 of this title or for a condition for which recovery is authorized or with respect to which the United States is deemed to be a third party beneficiary under the Act entitled 'An Act to provide for the recovery from tortiously liable third persons of the cost of hospital and medical care and treatment furnished by the United States' (Public Law 87-693; 42 U.S.C. 2651 et seq.; commonly known as the 'Federal Medical Care Recovery Act').\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 38 U.S. Code Section 7332 - Confidentiality of certain medical records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html use \"Title38Section7332\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a Title 38 Section 7332 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23766"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"a) HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"Code retired in December 2019 and replaced by code HIPAAConsent. Originally entered with copy/paste error in code value.\r\n\r\nA code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\" The Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsent\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedAssent","display":"Informed Assent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in research. Assent means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in a clinical investigation. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent. The minor's assent must be accompanied by parental or guardian consent that the minor participate in a specified research. The assent is not legally binding, however, the accompanying consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 21 CFR Part 50, Subpart D - Additional Safeguards for Children in Clinical Investigations. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/21/part-50/subpart-D","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedConsent","display":"Informed Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in a specified research study. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USBroadResearchConsent","display":"Broad Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in unspecified research studies, including storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable biospecimens and data. If broad consent is obtained, any subsequent storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of the individual’s identifiable biospecimens and data consistent with the broad consent would not require additional consent, so long as additional conditions are met, including limited review by an IRB. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","display":"AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"COMPLY","display":"Compliance Alert","definition":"There may be an issue with the patient complying with the intentions of the proposed therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DACT","display":"drug action detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"DOSE","display":"Dosage problem","definition":"Proposed dosage instructions for therapy differ from standard practice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16680"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DUPTHPY","display":"Duplicate Therapy Alert","definition":"The proposed therapy appears to duplicate an existing therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"TIME","display":"timing detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode","display":"TimingDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientAnnotationType","display":"ActPatientAnnotationType","definition":"**Description:**Provides a categorization for annotations recorded directly against the patient .","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_ECGAnnotationType","display":"ECGAnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode","display":"InteractionDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSA","display":"Observation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to conditions or characteristics of the patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"PREVINEF","display":"previously ineffective","definition":"**Definition:**The same or similar treatment has previously been attempted with the patient without achieving a positive effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22834"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"EMAUTH","display":"emergency authorization override","definition":"Used to temporarily override normal authorization rules to gain access to data in a case of emergency. Use of this override code will typically be monitored, and a procedure to verify its proper use may be triggered when used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"AIRTRNS","display":"airborne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through indirect contact via oral or nasal inhalation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANANTRNS","display":"animal to animal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one animal to another proximate animal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANHUMTRNS","display":"animal to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an animal to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BDYFLDTRNS","display":"body fluid contact transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with any body fluid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21911"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BLDTRNS","display":"blood borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products whether the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure or not.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"DERMTRNS","display":"transdermal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject via agent migration through intact skin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ENVTRNS","display":"environmental exposure transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an environmental surface or source to a living subject by direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FECTRNS","display":"fecal-oral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through oral contact with material contaminated by person or animal fecal material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21916"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOMTRNS","display":"fomite transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an non-living material to a living subject through direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOODTRNS","display":"food-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a food source to a living subject via oral consumption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"HUMHUMTRNS","display":"human to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a person to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21919"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"INDTRNS","display":"indeterminate disease transmission mode","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject via an undetermined route.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"LACTTRNS","display":"lactation transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with mammalian milk or colostrum.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"NOSTRNS","display":"nosocomial transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from any entity to a living subject while the living subject is in the patient role in a healthcare facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21921"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PARTRNS","display":"parenteral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject where the acquisition of the agent is not via the alimentary canal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PLACTRNS","display":"transplacental transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject to the progeny of that living subject via agent migration across the maternal-fetal placental membranes while in utero.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"SEXTRNS","display":"sexual transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with genital or oral tissues as part of a sexual act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"TRNSFTRNS","display":"transfusion transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products where the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"VECTRNS","display":"vector-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject acting as a required intermediary in the agent transmission process to a recipient living subject via direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"WATTRNS","display":"water-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a contaminated water source to a living subject whether the water is ingested as a food or not. The route of entry of the water may be through any bodily orifice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"REPRESENTATIVE_BEAT","display":"ECG representative beat waveforms","definition":"This Observation Series type contains waveforms of a \"representative beat\" (a.k.a. \"median beat\" or \"average beat\"). The waveform samples are measured in relative time, relative to the beginning of the beat as defined by the Observation Series effective time. The waveforms are not directly acquired from the subject, but rather algorithmically derived from the \"rhythm\" waveforms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"RHYTHM","display":"ECG rhythm waveforms","definition":"This Observation type contains ECG \"rhythm\" waveforms. The waveform samples are measured in absolute time (a.k.a. \"subject time\" or \"effective time\"). These waveforms are usually \"raw\" with some minimal amount of noise reduction and baseline filtering applied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19323"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"DEMO","display":"all demographic information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling all demographic information about an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to all demographic about an information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"DOB","display":"date of birth information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's date of birth, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality.Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's date of birth, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23353"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"GENDER","display":"gender and sexual orientation information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23354"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"LIVARG","display":"living arrangement information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's living arrangement, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's living arrangement, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23355"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"MARST","display":"marital status information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's marital status, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's marital status, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23356"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"PATLOC","display":"patient location","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an individual's location, which is deemed sensitive when the disclosure could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject, and requires additional protection.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional, organizational, or individual mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw or ActConsentDirective code from the ActCode system to and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"RACE","display":"race information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's race, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's race, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23357"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"REL","display":"religion information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's religious affiliation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's religion, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23358"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"FDACOATING","display":"coating","definition":"FDA label coating","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19260"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDACOLOR","display":"color","definition":"FDA label color","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19259"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDAIMPRINTCD","display":"imprint code","definition":"FDA label imprint code","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19256"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDALOGO","display":"logo","definition":"FDA label logo","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19262"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"FDA label scoring","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19261"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"FDA label shape","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19258"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASIZE","display":"size","definition":"FDA label size","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19257"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"GENE","display":"gene","definition":"**Description:** A DNA segment that contributes to phenotype/function. In the absence of demonstrated function a gene may be characterized by sequence, transcription or homology","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_GeneticObservationType"}]},{"code":"I","display":"Isolation","definition":"Accommodations used in the care of diseases that are transmitted through casual contact or respiratory transmission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"P","display":"Private","definition":"Accommodations in which there is only 1 bed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"S","display":"Suite","definition":"Uniquely designed and elegantly decorated accommodations with many amenities available for an additional charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"SP","display":"Semi-private","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 2 beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"W","display":"Ward","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 3 or more beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20866"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_HL7TriggerEventCode","display":"HL7TriggerEventCode","definition":"The trigger event referenced by the Control Act instance. Values are drawn from the available trigger events used in the release of HL7 identified by the versionCode.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationActCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationActCode","definition":"The specific chemical or radiological substance administered or to be administered into the body for therapeutic effect.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"OBSANTC","display":"antigen count","definition":"**Description:** Indicates the valid antigen count.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"OBSANTV","display":"antigen validity","definition":"**Description:** Indicates whether an antigen is valid or invalid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23242"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"PAT_ADV_EVNT","display":"patient adverse event","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing problems that a patient experienced after receiving a vaccine product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"VAC_PROBLEM","display":"vaccine product problem","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing a problem with the actual vaccine product such as physical defects (cloudy, particulate matter) or inability to confer immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType","display":"EntityInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that may apply to a sensitive attribute on an Entity.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* EntitySensitivity codes are used to convey a policy that is applicable to sensitive information conveyed by an entity attribute. May be used to bind a Role.confidentialityCode associated with an Entity per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23351"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Roles.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\""},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23346"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ADOL","display":"adolescent information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an adolescent, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality per applicable organizational or jurisdictional policy. An enterprise may have a policy that requires that adolescent patient information be provided heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which an adolescent is the information subject. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23330"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"CEL","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"VIP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIP","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CEL"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DIA","display":"diagnosis information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a diagnosis, health condition or health problem, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23332"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRGIS","display":"drug information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a drug, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Drug information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to drug information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"employee information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PDS","display":"patient default information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which is deemed sensitive within the enterprise (i.e., by default regardless of whether the patient requested that the information be deemed sensitive for another reason.) For example information reported by the patient about another person, e.g., a family member, may be deemed sensitive by default. Organizational policy may allow the sensitivity tag to be cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nFor example, VA deems employee information sensitive by default. Information about a patient who is being stalked or a victim of abuse or violence may be deemed sensitive by default per a provider organization's policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PHY","display":"physician requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about a patient, which a physician or other licensed healthcare provider deems sensitive. Once tagged by the provider, this may trigger alerts for follow up actions according to organizational policy or jurisdictional law.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to certain types of information designated by a physician as sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nUse cases in which this code could be used are, e.g., in systems that lack the ability to automatically detect sensitive information and must rely on manual tagging; a system that lacks an applicable sensitivity tag, or for ad hoc situations where criticality of the situation requires that the tagging be done immediately by the provider before coding or transcription of consult notes can be completed, e.g., upon detection of a patient with suicidal tendencies or potential for violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23931"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRS","display":"patient requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which the patient deems sensitive, and the patient requests that collection, access, use, or disclosure of that information be restricted. For example, a minor patient may request that information about reproductive health not be disclosed to the patient's family or to particular providers and payers.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"FOOD","display":"Food Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with certain foods","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TPROD","display":"Therapeutic Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent therapeutic product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17807"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPELAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17544"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPELCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17543"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPMNAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17542"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17536"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17535"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual amout","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17538"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17537"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17532"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17531"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17534"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17533"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17560"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17559"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17562"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17561"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17557"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17573"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17569"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17568"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17571"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17570"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17564"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17567"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17566"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"SBBLELAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLELCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"21611-9","display":"age patient qn est","definition":"**Definition:**Estimated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"21612-7","display":"age patient qn reported","definition":"**Definition:**Reported age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21631"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"29553-5","display":"age patient qn calc","definition":"**Definition:**Calculated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21632"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30525-0","display":"age patient qn definition","definition":"**Definition:**General specification of age with no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30972-4","display":"age at onset of adverse event","definition":"**Definition:**Age at onset of associated adverse event; no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21633"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"REP_HALF_LIFE","display":"representative half-life","definition":"**Description:**This observation represents an 'average' or 'expected' half-life typical of the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOATING","display":"coating","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, indicating whether it has one or more coatings such as sugar coating, film coating, or enteric coating. Only coatings to the external surface or the dosage form should be considered (for example, coatings to individual pellets or granules inside a capsule or tablet are excluded from consideration).\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true for the presence or false for the absence of one or more coatings on a solid dosage form.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21604"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOLOR","display":"color","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the color or colors that most predominantly define the appearance of the dose form. SPLCOLOR is not an FDA specification for the actual color of solid dosage forms or the names of colors that can appear in labeling.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a single coded value or a list of multiple coded values, specifying one or more distinct colors that approximate of the color(s) of distinct areas of the solid dosage form, such as the different sides of a tablet or one-part capsule, or the different halves of a two-part capsule. Bands on banded capsules, regardless of the color, are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. Imprints on the dosage form, regardless of their color are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. If more than one color exists on a particular side or half, then the most predominant color on that side or half is recorded. If the gelatin capsule shell is colorless and transparent, use the predominant color of the contents that appears through the colorless and transparent capsule shell. Colors can include: Black;Gray;White;Red;Pink;Purple;Green;Yellow;Orange;Brown;Blue;Turquoise.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21608"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMAGE","display":"image","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic representing a single file reference that contains two or more views of the same dosage form of the product; in most cases this should represent front and back views of the dosage form, but occasionally additional views might be needed in order to capture all of the important physical characteristics of the dosage form. Any imprint and/or symbol should be clearly identifiable, and the viewer should not normally need to rotate the image in order to read it. Images that are submitted with SPL should be included in the same directory as the SPL file.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21610"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMPRINT","display":"imprint","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the alphanumeric text that appears on the solid dosage form, including text that is embossed, debossed, engraved or printed with ink. The presence of other non-textual distinguishing marks or symbols is recorded by SPLSYMBOL.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Included in SPLIMPRINT are alphanumeric text that appears on the bands of banded capsules and logos and other symbols that can be interpreted as letters or numbers.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be of type Character String (ST). Excluded from SPLIMPRINT are internal and external cut-outs in the form of alphanumeric text and the letter 'R' with a circle around it (when referring to a registered trademark) and the letters 'TM' (when referring to a 'trade mark'). To record text, begin on either side or part of the dosage form. Start at the top left and progress as one would normally read a book. Enter a semicolon to show separation between words or line divisions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21607"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the number of equal pieces that the solid dosage form can be divided into using score line(s).\r\n\r\n**Example:** One score line creating two equal pieces is given a value of 2, two parallel score lines creating three equal pieces is given a value of 3.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** Whether three parallel score lines create four equal pieces or two intersecting score lines create two equal pieces using one score line and four equal pieces using both score lines, both have the scoring value of 4. Solid dosage forms that are not scored are given a value of 1. Solid dosage forms that can only be divided into unequal pieces are given a null-value with nullFlavor other (OTH).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21606"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the two dimensional representation of the solid dose form, in terms of the outside perimeter of a solid dosage form when the dosage form, resting on a flat surface, is viewed from directly above, including slight rounding of corners. SPLSHAPE does not include embossing, scoring, debossing, or internal cut-outs. SPLSHAPE is independent of the orientation of the imprint and logo. Shapes can include: Triangle (3 sided); Square; Round; Semicircle; Pentagon (5 sided); Diamond; Double circle; Bullet; Hexagon (6 sided); Rectangle; Gear; Capsule; Heptagon (7 sided); Trapezoid; Oval; Clover; Octagon (8 sided); Tear; Freeform.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21609"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSIZE","display":"size","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the longest single dimension of the solid dosage form as a physical quantity in the dimension of length (e.g., 3 mm). The length is should be specified in millimeters and should be rounded to the nearest whole millimeter.\r\n\r\n**Example:** SPLSIZE for a rectangular shaped tablet is the length and SPLSIZE for a round shaped tablet is the diameter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21605"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSYMBOL","display":"symbol","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, to describe whether or not the medicinal product has a mark or symbol appearing on it for easy and definite recognition. Score lines, letters, numbers, and internal and external cut-outs are not considered marks or symbols. See SPLSCORING and SPLIMPRINT for these characteristics.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true indicating the presence and false for the absence of marks or symbols.\r\n\r\n**Example:**","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21603"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADMDX","display":"admitting diagnosis","definition":"Admitting diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the basis for a hospital admission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"DISDX","display":"discharge diagnosis","definition":"Discharge diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the time of hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"INTDX","display":"intermediate diagnosis","definition":"Intermediate diagnoses are those diagnoses documented for administrative purposes during the course of a hospital stay.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"NOI","display":"nature of injury","definition":"The type of injury that the injury coding specifies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"_CaseTransmissionMode","display":"case transmission mode","definition":"Code for the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case. Includes sexually transmitted, airborne, bloodborne, vectorborne, foodborne, zoonotic, nosocomial, mechanical, dermal, congenital, environmental exposure, indeterminate.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType"}]},{"code":"AGGREGATE","display":"aggregate measure observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is carrying out an aggregation calculation, contained in the value element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRMTH","display":"composite measure method","definition":"Indicates what method is used in a quality measure to combine the component measure results included in an composite measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRSCRWGHT","display":"component measure scoring weight","definition":"An attribute of a quality measure describing the weight this component measure score is to carry in determining the overall composite measure final score. The value is real value greater than 0 and less than 1.0. Each component measure score will be multiplied by its CMPMSRSCRWGHT and then summed with the other component measures to determine the final overall composite measure score. The sum across all CMPMSRSCRWGHT values within a single composite measure SHALL be 1.0. The value assigned is scoped to the composite measure referencing this component measure only.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23791"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"COPY","display":"copyright","definition":"Identifies the organization(s) who own the intellectual property represented by the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CRS","display":"clinical recommendation statement","definition":"Summary of relevant clinical guidelines or other clinical recommendations supporting this eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DEF","display":"definition","definition":"Description of individual terms, provided as needed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23433"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DISC","display":"disclaimer","definition":"Disclaimer information for the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"FINALDT","display":"finalized date/time","definition":"The timestamp when the eMeasure was last packaged in the Measure Authoring Tool.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23440"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"GUIDE","display":"guidance","definition":"Used to allow measure developers to provide additional guidance for implementers to understand greater specificity than could be provided in the logic for data criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23434"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"IDUR","display":"improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result (e.g., a higher score indicates better quality OR a lower score indicates better quality OR quality is within a range).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23431"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"ITMCNT","display":"items counted","definition":"Describes the items counted by the measure (e.g., patients, encounters, procedures, etc.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23441"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"KEY","display":"keyword","definition":"A significant word that aids in discoverability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MEDT","display":"measurement end date","definition":"The end date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23439"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSD","display":"measurement start date","definition":"The start date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23438"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRADJ","display":"risk adjustment","definition":"The method of adjusting for clinical severity and conditions present at the start of care that can influence patient outcomes for making valid comparisons of outcome measures across providers. Indicates whether an eMeasure is subject to the statistical process for reducing, removing, or clarifying the influences of confounding factors to allow more useful comparisons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRAGG","display":"rate aggregation","definition":"Describes how to combine information calculated based on logic in each of several populations into one summarized result. It can also be used to describe how to risk adjust the data based on supplemental data elements described in the eMeasure. (e.g., pneumonia hospital measures antibiotic selection in the ICU versus non-ICU and then the roll-up of the two).\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The description does NOT align well with the definition used in the HQMF specfication; correct the MSGAGG definition, and the possible distinction of MSRAGG as a child of AGGREGATE.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRIMPROV","display":"health quality measure improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result. This should reflect information on which way is better, an increase or decrease in score.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRJUR","display":"jurisdiction","definition":"The list of jurisdiction(s) for which the measure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTR","display":"reporter type","definition":"Type of person or organization that is expected to report the issue.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTTIME","display":"timeframe for reporting","definition":"The maximum time that may elapse following completion of the measure until the measure report must be sent to the receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSCORE","display":"measure scoring","definition":"Indicates how the calculation is performed for the eMeasure (e.g., proportion, continuous variable, ratio)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSET","display":"health quality measure care setting","definition":"Location(s) in which care being measured is rendered\r\n\r\nUsage Note: MSRSET is used rather than RoleCode because the setting applies to what is being measured, as opposed to participating directly in the health quality measure documantion itself).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTOPIC","display":"health quality measure topic type","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTP","display":"measurement period","definition":"The time period for which the eMeasure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23432"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTYPE","display":"measure type","definition":"Indicates whether the eMeasure is used to examine a process or an outcome over time (e.g., Structure, Process, Outcome).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23030"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"RAT","display":"rationale","definition":"Succinct statement of the need for the measure. Usually includes statements pertaining to Importance criterion: impact, gap in care and evidence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"REF","display":"reference","definition":"Identifies bibliographic citations or references to clinical practice guidelines, sources of evidence, or other relevant materials supporting the intent and rationale of the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"SDE","display":"supplemental data elements","definition":"Comparison of results across strata can be used to show where disparities exist or where there is a need to expose differences in results. For example, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) in the U.S. defines four required Supplemental Data Elements (payer, ethnicity, race, and gender), which are variables used to aggregate data into various subgroups. Additional supplemental data elements required for risk adjustment or other purposes of data aggregation can be included in the Supplemental Data Element section.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23437"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"STRAT","display":"stratification","definition":"Describes the strata for which the measure is to be evaluated. There are three examples of reasons for stratification based on existing work. These include: (1) evaluate the measure based on different age groupings within the population described in the measure (e.g., evaluate the whole \\[age 14-25\\] and each sub-stratum \\[14-19\\] and \\[20-25\\]); (2) evaluate the eMeasure based on either a specific condition, a specific discharge location, or both; (3) evaluate the eMeasure based on different locations within a facility (e.g., evaluate the overall rate for all intensive care units and also some strata include additional findings \\[specific birth weights for neonatal intensive care units\\]).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23435"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TRANF","display":"transmission format","definition":"Can be a URL or hyperlinks that link to the transmission formats that are specified for a particular reporting program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23436"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"USE","display":"notice of use","definition":"Usage notes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23025"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TIME_ABSOLUTE","display":"absolute time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in the \"absolute\" time domain. This is the same time domain that all HL7 timestamps use. It is time as measured by the Gregorian calendar","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"TIME_RELATIVE","display":"relative time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in a \"relative\" time domain. The time is measured relative to the earliest effective time in the Observation Series containing this sequence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSequenceType","display":"ECGObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSeriesType","display":"ECGObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBSSER"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecObsCode","display":"ActSpecObsCode","definition":"Identifies the type of observation that is made about a specimen that may affect its processing, analysis or further result interpretation","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCOBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20906"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AnnotationType","display":"AnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationType","display":"GeneticObservationType","definition":"**Description:** None provided","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22650"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ImmunizationObservationType","display":"ImmunizationObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Observation codes which describe characteristics of the immunization material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23241"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Type","definition":"A code that is used to indicate the type of case safety report received from sender. The current code example reference is from the International Conference on Harmonisation (ICH) Expert Workgroup guideline on Clinical Safety Data Management: Data Elements for Transmission of Individual Case Safety Reports. The unknown/unavailable option allows the transmission of information from a secondary sender where the initial sender did not specify the type of report.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: Spontaneous, Report from study, Other.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","display":"LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","definition":"**Definition:**The set of LOINC codes for the act of determining the period of time that has elapsed since an entity was born or created.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_MedicationObservationType","display":"MedicationObservationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes the kinds of coded observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. These are observations that are not measurable, but instead can be defined with codes. Coded observation types include: Allergy, Intolerance, Medical Condition, Pregnancy status, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21524"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","display":"ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","definition":"Codes used to define various metadata aspects of a health quality measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSequenceType","display":"ObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSeriesType","display":"ObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","display":"PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Reporting codes that are related to an immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23244"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType","display":"PopulationInclusionObservationType","definition":"Observation types for specifying criteria used to assert that a subject is included in a particular population.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23543"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PreferenceObservationType","display":"_PreferenceObservationType","definition":"Types of observations that can be made about Preferences.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADVERSE_REACTION","display":"Adverse Reaction","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of an unexpected negative occurrence in the subject suspected to result from the subject's exposure to one or more agents. Observation values would be the symptom resulting from the reaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ASSERTION","display":"Assertion","definition":"**Description:**Refines classCode OBS to indicate an observation in which observation.value contains a finding or other nominalized statement, where the encoded information in Observation.value is not altered by Observation.code. For instance, observation.code=\"ASSERTION\" and observation.value=\"fracture of femur present\" is an assertion of a clinical finding of femur fracture.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CASESER","display":"case seriousness criteria","definition":"**Definition:**An observation that provides a characterization of the level of harm to an investigation subject as a result of a reaction or event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22833"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CDIO","display":"case disease imported observation","definition":"An observation that states whether the disease was likely acquired outside the jurisdiction of observation, and if so, the nature of the inter-jurisdictional relationship.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23467"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CRIT","display":"criticality","definition":"A clinical judgment as to the worst case result of a future exposure (including substance administration). When the worst case result is assessed to have a life-threatening or organ system threatening potential, it is considered to be of high criticality.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CTMO","display":"case transmission mode observation","definition":"An observation that states the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23466"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"DX","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"DX"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"GISTIER","display":"GIS tier","definition":"**Description:** Accuracy determined as per the GIS tier code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"HHOBS","display":"household situation observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of a person’s living situation in a household including the household composition and circumstances.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ISSUE","display":"detected issue","definition":"There is a clinical issue for the therapy that makes continuation of the therapy inappropriate.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The definition of this code does not correctly represent the concept space of its specializations (children)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBJ","display":"knowledge subject","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture the main clinical knowledge subject which may be a medication, a laboratory test, a disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBT","display":"knowledge subtopic","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture a knowledge subtopic which might be treatment, etiology, or prognosis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"OINT","display":"intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to an agent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21498"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"SEV","display":"Severity Observation","definition":"A subjective evaluation of the seriousness or intensity associated with another observation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","definition":"This domain includes observations used to characterize a privilege, under which this additional information is classified.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*A privilege to prescribe drugs has a RESTRICTION that excludes prescribing narcotics; a surgical procedure privilege has a PRE-CONDITION that it requires prior Board approval.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21585"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","display":"AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","definition":"**Definition:** Indicates the class of actions taken with regard to a substance administration related adverse event. This characterization offers a judgment of the practitioner's response to the patient's problem.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Example values include dose withdrawn, dose reduced, dose not changed.\r\n\r\n**NOTE:** The concept domain is currently supported by a value set created by the International Conference on Harmonization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationType","display":"CommonClinicalObservationType","definition":"Used in a patient care message to report and query simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21527"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_FDALabelData","display":"FDALabelData","definition":"FDA label data","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestCode","display":"observation allergy test","definition":"**Description:**Dianostic procedures ordered or performed to evaluate whether a sensitivity to a substance is present. This test may be associated with specimen collection and/or substance administration challenge actiivities.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Skin tests and eosinophilia evaluations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21942"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestType","display":"ObservationAllergyTestType","definition":"Indicates the type of allergy test performed or to be performed. E.g. the specific antibody or skin test performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21494"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationCausalityAssessmentType","display":"observation causality assessment","definition":"**Description:**A kind of observation that allows a Secondary Observation (source act) to assert (at various levels of probability) that the target act of the association (which may be of any type of act) is implicated in the etiology of another observation that is named as the subject of the Secondary Observation\r\n\r\n**Example:**Causality assertions where an accident is the cause of a symptom; predisposition assertions where the genetic state plus environmental factors are implicated in the development of a disease; reaction assertions where a substance exposure is associated with a finding of wheezing.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21941"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDosageDefinitionPreconditionType","display":"observation dosage definition precondition type","definition":"**Definition:**\r\n\r\nThe set of observation type concepts that can be used to express pre-conditions to a particular dosage definition.\r\n\r\nRationale: Used to constrain the set of observations to those related to the applicability of a dosage, such as height, weight, age, pregnancy, liver function, kidney function, etc. For example, in drug master-file type records indicating when a specified dose is applicable.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","display":"ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIndicationType","display":"ObservationIndicationType","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes between the kinds of measurable observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. Measurable observation types include: Lab Results, Height, Weight.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21525"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQueryMatchType","display":"ObservationQueryMatchType","definition":"**Definition:** An observation related to a query response.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The degree of match or match weight returned by a matching algorithm in a response to a query.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","display":"ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the type of Vision Prescription Observation that is being described.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientCharacteristicObservationType","display":"PatientCharacteristicObservationType","definition":"Indicates the type of characteristics a patient should have for a given therapy to be appropriate. E.g. Weight, Age, certain lab values, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21526"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","display":"SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","definition":"Types of measurement observations typically performed in a clinical (non-lab) setting. E.g. Height, Weight, Blood-pressure","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21523"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CLSSRM","display":"classroom","definition":"**Description:** The class room associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"GRADE","display":"grade","definition":"**Description:** The school grade or level the patient was in when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHL","display":"school","definition":"**Description:** The school the patient attended when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHLDIV","display":"school division","definition":"**Description:** The school division or district associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"TEACHER","display":"teacher","definition":"**Description:** The patient's teacher when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Criteria which specify subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23544"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Criteria which specify the removal of a subject, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator, only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient (or subject) reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). The denominator can be the same as the initial population, or it may be a subset of the initial population to further constrain it for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different denominators. Continuous Variable eMeasures do not have a denominator, but instead define a measure population.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"IPOP","display":"initial population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23547"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSROBS","display":"measure observation","definition":"Defines the observation to be performed for each patient or event in the measure population. Measure observations for each case in the population are aggregated to determine the overall measure score for the population.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * the median time from arrival in the Emergency Room to departure\r\n * the median time from decision to admit to a hospital to the actual admission for Emergency Room patients","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23895"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the measure population as a narrative description (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period). This is used only in continuous variable eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23549"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPLEX","display":"measure population exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure's Initial Population and Measure Population. Measure Population Exclusions are used in Continuous Variable measures to help narrow the Measure Population before determining the value(s) of the continuous variable(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23550"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator for proportion measures, or related to (but not directly derived from) the denominator for ratio measures (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23551"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion). Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"PREFSTRENGTH","display":"preference strength","definition":"An observation about how important a preference is to the target of the preference.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PreferenceObservationType"}]},{"code":"CIRCLE","display":"circle","definition":"A circle defined by two (column,row) pairs. The first point is the center of the circle and the second point is a point on the perimeter of the circle.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"ELLIPSE","display":"ellipse","definition":"An ellipse defined by four (column,row) pairs, the first two points specifying the endpoints of the major axis and the second two points specifying the endpoints of the minor axis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POINT","display":"point","definition":"A single point denoted by a single (column,row) pair, or multiple points each denoted by a (column,row) pair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POLY","display":"polyline","definition":"A series of connected line segments with ordered vertices denoted by (column,row) pairs; if the first and last vertices are the same, it is a closed polygon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"B","display":"business information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling trade secrets such as financial information or intellectual property, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMPL","display":"employer information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employer which is deemed classified to protect an employee who is the information subject, and which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an employer, such as law enforcement or national security, the identity of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of an information subject who is an employee.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23348"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"LOCIS","display":"location information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to the location of the information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to the location of the information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23349"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SSP","display":"sensitive service provider information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a provider of sensitive services, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to providers who deliver sensitive healthcare services in order to protect the privacy, well-being, and safety of the provider and of patients receiving sensitive services.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23350"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLDONE","display":"already performed","definition":"**Definition:**The requested action has already been performed and so this request has no effect","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22847"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"FULFIL","display":"fulfillment alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is in some way out of alignment with the requested therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HELD","display":"held/suspended alert","definition":"**Definition:**There should be no actions taken in fulfillment of a request that has been held or suspended.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22848"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOLATE","display":"Refill Too Late Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly later than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOSOON","display":"Refill Too Soon Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly earlier than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ENDLATE","display":"End Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"STRTLATE","display":"Start Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"19","display":"Consulted Supplier","definition":"Consulted other supplier/pharmacy, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"2","display":"Assessed Patient","definition":"Assessed patient, therapy is appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"22","display":"appropriate indication or diagnosis","definition":"**Description:** The patient has the appropriate indication or diagnosis for the action to be taken.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"23","display":"prior therapy documented","definition":"**Description:** It has been confirmed that the appropriate pre-requisite therapy has been tried.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"3","display":"Patient Explanation","definition":"Patient gave adequate explanation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16698"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"4","display":"Consulted Other Source","definition":"Consulted other supply source, therapy still appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"5","display":"Consulted Prescriber","definition":"Consulted prescriber, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"7","display":"Interacting Therapy No Longer Active/Planned","definition":"Concurrent therapy triggering alert is no longer on-going or planned","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16702"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"15","display":"Replacement","definition":"Patient's existing supply was lost/wasted","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"16","display":"Vacation Supply","definition":"Supply date is due to patient vacation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"17","display":"Weekend Supply","definition":"Supply date is intended to carry patient over weekend","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"18","display":"Leave of Absence","definition":"Supply is intended for use during a leave of absence from an institution.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"20","display":"additional quantity on separate dispense","definition":"**Description:** Supply is different than expected as an additional quantity has been supplied in a separate dispense.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"6","display":"Prescriber Declined Change","definition":"Consulted prescriber and recommended change, prescriber declined","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16701"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"5"}]},{"code":"10","display":"Provided Patient Education","definition":"Provided education or training to the patient on appropriate therapy use","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16705"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"11","display":"Added Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Instituted an additional therapy to mitigate potential negative effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16706"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"12","display":"Temporarily Suspended Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Suspended existing therapy that triggered interaction for the duration of this therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16707"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"13","display":"Stopped Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Aborted existing therapy that triggered interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"9","display":"Instituted Ongoing Monitoring Program","definition":"Arranged to monitor patient for adverse effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16704"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"ANF","display":"adjudicated with adjustments and no financial impact","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges) without changing the amount.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AA"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRD","display":"trust accreditation","definition":"Type of security metadata about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGRE","display":"trust agreement","definition":"Type of security metadata about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTASSUR","display":"trust assurance","definition":"Type of security metadata about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERT","display":"trust certificate","definition":"Type of security metadata about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWK","display":"trust framework","definition":"Type of security metadata about a complete set of contracts, regulations, or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTMEC","display":"trust mechanism","definition":"Type of security metadata about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"ADALRT","display":"adult alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for an adult patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DOSEHINDA","display":"High Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage exceeds standard practice for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEH"}]},{"code":"DOSELINDA","display":"Low Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage is below suggested therapeutic levels for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17792"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEL"}]},{"code":"GEALRT","display":"geriatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of standard practice for a geriatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"PEALRT","display":"pediatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for a pediatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DALG","display":"Drug Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a pharmaceutical product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21504"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"}]},{"code":"EALG","display":"Environmental Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance other than a drug or a food. E.g. Latex, pollen, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21506"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"EINT"}]},{"code":"FALG","display":"Food Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance generally consumed for nutritional purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21505"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"}]},{"code":"AMBAIR","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"Fixed-wingAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"Fixed-wingAmbulance","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBAIR"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBGRND","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"GroundAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"GroundAmbulance","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBGRND"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBHELO","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"HelicopterAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"HelicopterAmbulance","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBHELO"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"ACCESSCONSCHEME","display":"access control scheme","definition":"An access control policy specific to the type of access control scheme, which is used to enforce one or more authorization policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Access control schemes are the type of access control policy, which is comprised of access control policy rules concerning the provision of the access control service.\r\n\r\nThere are two categories of access control policies, rule-based and identity-based, which are identified in CCITT Rec. X.800 aka ISO 7498-2. Rule-based access control policies are intended to apply to all access requests by any initiator on any target in a security domain. Identity-based access control policies are based on rules specific to an individual initiator, a group of initiators, entities acting on behalf of initiators, or originators acting in a specific role. Context can modify rule-based or identity-based access control policies. Context rules may define the entire policy in effect. Real systems will usually employ a combination of these policy types; if a rule-based policy is used, then an identity-based policy is usually in effect also.\r\n\r\nAn access control scheme may be based on access control lists, capabilities, labels, and context or a combination of these. An access control scheme is a component of an access control mechanism or \"service\") along with the supporting mechanisms required by that scheme to provide access control decision information (ADI) supplied by the scheme to the access decision facility (ADF also known as a PDP). (Based on ISO/IEC 10181-3:1996)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)\r\n * Discretionary Access Control (DAC)\r\n * History Based Access Control (HBAC)\r\n * Identity Based Access Control (IBAC)\r\n * Mandatory Access Control (MAC)\r\n * Organization Based Access Control (OrBAC)\r\n * Relationship Based Access Control (RelBac)\r\n * Responsibility Based Access Control (RespBAC)\r\n * Risk Adaptable Access Control (RAdAC)\r\n\r\n>","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23935"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTHPOL"}]},{"code":"COL","display":"collision coverage policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will cover the cost of damages to an automobile owned by the named insured that are caused by accident or intentionally by another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"UNINSMOT","display":"uninsured motorist policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will indemnify a loss for which another motorist is liable if that motorist is unable to pay because he or she is uninsured. Coverage under the policy applies to bodily injury damages only. Injuries to the covered party caused by a hit-and-run driver are also covered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"COGN","display":"cognitive disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to cognitive disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which are afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nExamples may include dementia, traumatic brain injury, attention deficit, hearing and visual disability such as dyslexia and other disorders and related conditions which impair learning and self-sufficiency. However, the cognitive disabilities to which this term may apply versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"DVD","display":"developmental disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to developmental disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nA diverse group of chronic conditions that are due to mental or physical impairments impacting activities of daily living, self-care, language acuity, learning, mobility, independent living and economic self-sufficiency. Examples may include Down syndrome and Autism spectrum. However, the developmental disabilities to which this term applies versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"EMOTDIS","display":"emotional disturbance information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to emotional disturbance disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nTypical used to characterize behavioral and mental health issues of adolescents where the disorder may be temporarily diagnosed in order to avoid the potential and unnecessary stigmatizing diagnoses of disorder long term.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23930"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"AE","display":"American Express","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DN","display":"Diner's Club","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DV","display":"Discover Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"MC","display":"Master Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"V","display":"Visa","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14812"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTE","display":"diagnosis list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a diagnosis for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHINSTE","display":"discharge instruction entry","definition":"A person provides a discharge instruction to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUME","display":"discharge summary entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a discharge summary for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATEDUE","display":"patient education entry","definition":"A person provides a patient-specific education handout to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATREPE","display":"pathology report entry task","definition":"A pathologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTE","display":"problem list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a problem for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"RADREPE","display":"radiology report entry task","definition":"A radiologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUMREV","display":"discharge summary review task","definition":"A person reviews a discharge summary of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEREV"}]},{"code":"CODE_DEPREC","display":"code has been deprecated","definition":"**Description:**The specified code has been deprecated and should no longer be used. Select another code from the code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CODE_INVAL"}]},{"code":"ABUSE","display":"commonly abused/misused alert","definition":"**Description:**The proposed therapy is frequently misused or abused and therefore should be used with caution and/or monitoring.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"FRAUD","display":"potential fraud","definition":"**Description:**The request is suspected to have a fraudulent basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYDOC","display":"Poly-orderer Alert","definition":"A similar or identical therapy was recently ordered by a different practitioner.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYPHRM","display":"Poly-supplier Alert","definition":"This patient was recently supplied a similar or identical therapy from a different pharmacy or supplier.","designation":[{"language":"en","use":{"system":"http://snomed.info/sct","code":"900000000000013009"},"value":"Poly-pharmacy Alert"}],"property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"ACOCOMPT","display":"accountable care organization compartment","definition":"A group of health care entities, which may include health care providers, care givers, hospitals, facilities, health plans, and other health care constituents who coordinate care for reimbursement based on quality metrics for improving outcomes and lowering costs, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of membership in that group.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in accountable care workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a an accountable care workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CDSSCOMPT","display":"CDS system compartment","definition":"This compartment code may be used as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission for its Clinical Decision Support system (CDSS) to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in the security category label field.\r\n\r\nThis code permits a CDS system to algorithmically process information with this compartment tag for the purpose of alerting an unauthorized end user that masked information is needed to address an emergency or a patient safety issue, such as a contraindicated medication. The alert would advise the end user to \"break the glass\", to access the masked information in an accountable manner, or to ask the patient about possibly masked information.\r\n\r\nFor example, releasing a list of sensitive medications with this compartment tag means that while the CDS system is permitted to use this list in its contraindication analysis, this sensitive information should not be shared directly with unauthorized end-users or end-user-facing Apps. Based on the results of the CDS system analysis (e.g., warnings about prescriptions) the end-user (e.g., a clinician) may still have the ability to access to the sensitive information by invoking \"break-the-glass protocol\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security label with the CDS system compartment may be used in conjunction with other security labels, e.g., a label authorizing an end user with adequate clearance to access the same CDS system compartment tagged information. For example, a patient may restrict sharing sensitive information with most care team members except in an emergency or to prevent an adverse event, and may consent to sharing with their sensitive service care team providers, e.g., for mental health or substance abuse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CTCOMPT","display":"care team compartment","definition":"Care coordination across participants in a care plan requires sharing of a healthcare consumer's information specific to that workflow. A care team member should only have access to that information while participating in that workflow or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in care coordination workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a care team member workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"FMCOMPT","display":"financial management compartment","definition":"Financial management department members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient account, billing and claims workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a financial management workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HRCOMPT","display":"human resource compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of human resources department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23580"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"LRCOMPT","display":"legitimate relationship compartment","definition":"Providers and care givers who have an established relationship per criteria determined by policy are considered to have an established care provision relations with a healthcare consumer, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of that relationship. Providers and care givers should only have access to that information while participating in legitimate relationship workflows or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in legitimate relationship workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a legitimate relationship workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"PACOMPT","display":"patient administration compartment","definition":"Patient administration members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient administration workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a patient administration workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RESCOMPT","display":"research project compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of a research project.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RMGTCOMPT","display":"records management compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of records management department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17795"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"LACT","display":"Lactation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated when breast-feeding","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"Pregnancy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated during pregnancy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"WGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17794"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"INTOLIST","display":"intolerance list","definition":"List of intolerance observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19982"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"PROBLIST","display":"problem list","definition":"List of problem observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19980"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"RISKLIST","display":"risk factors","definition":"List of risk factor observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19983"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"CONTROLLED","display":"CONTROLLED","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CONTROLLED\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUI","display":"CUI","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTH","display":"CUI//HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTHP","display":"(CUI//HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIP","display":"(CUI)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCY","display":"CUI//PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy controlled unclassified basic privacy information is private and must be protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCYP","display":"(CUI//PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTH","display":"CUI//SP-HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use that differ from those for CUI Basic. The CUI Registry indicates which laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies include such specific requirements. CUI Specified controls may be more stringent than, or may simply differ from, those required by CUI Basic; the distinction is that the underlying authority spells out the controls for CUI Specified information and does not for CUI Basic information. CUI Basic controls apply to those aspects of CUI Specified where the authorizing laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies do not provide specific guidance. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTHP","display":"(CUI//SP-HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCY","display":"CUI//SP-PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCYP","display":"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"UUI","display":"(U)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(U)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is neither Executive Order 13556 nor classified information authorities cover as protected. Although this information is not controlled or classified, agencies must still handle it in accordance with Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Regulatory Source: 32 CFR § 2002.20 Marking. Federal Register Page 63344 63344 (ii) Authorized holders permitted to designate CUI must portion mark both CUI and uncontrolled unclassified portions.\r\n\r\nCUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Marking: Portion marking of CUI is optional in a fully unclassified document, but is permitted and encouraged to facilitate information sharing and proper handling of the information. Agency heads may approve the required use of CUI Portion marking on all CUI generated within their agency. As such, users should consult their agency CUI policy when creating CUI documents. When CUI Portion Markings are used and a portion does not contain CUI a \"U\" is placed in parentheses to indicate that the portion contains Uncontrolled Unclassified Information. (Page 14)\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Markings are placed at the beginning of the portion to which they apply and must be used throughout the entire document. They are presented in all capital letters and separated as indicated in this handbook and the CUI Registry. The presence of EVEN ONE item of CUI in a document requires CUI marking of that document. Because of this, CUI Portion Markings can be of great assistance in determining if a document contains CUI and therefore must be marked as such. Remember: When portion markings are used and any portion does not contain CUI, a \"(U)\" is placed in front of that portion to indicate that it contains Uncontrolled - or non-CUI - Unclassified Information. (Page 15)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CPLYCC","display":"comply with confidentiality code","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the information handling directions of the Confidentiality Code associated with an information target.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCC may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with a Confidentiality Code to comply with applicable level of protection required by the assigned confidentiality code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCD","display":"comply with consent directive","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable information subject consent directives.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCD may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActConsent code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActConsentDirective code to comply with applicable consent directives.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCUI","display":"comply with controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In the US, CPLYCUI may be used as a security label code to inform recipients of information designated by a US Federal Agency as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, executive orders, and other guidances, such as included in DURSAs, to persist, mark, and enforce required CUI controls\r\n\r\nBackground:\r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls.\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * • Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJPP","display":"comply with jurisdictional privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActPrivacyLaw code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.JurisIP code to comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJSP","display":"comply with jurisdictional security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable jurisdictional security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOPP","display":"comply with organizational privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable organizational privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.OrgIP code to comply with applicable organizational privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOSP","display":"comply with organizational security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the organizational security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable organizational security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"_DEADrugSchedule","display":"DEADrugSchedule","definition":"DEA schedule for a drug.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CTLSUB"}]},{"code":"BR","display":"breikost (GE)","definition":"A diet exclusively composed of oatmeal, semolina, or rice, to be extremely easy to eat and digest.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"DM","display":"diabetes mellitus diet","definition":"A diet that uses carbohydrates sparingly. Typically with a restriction in daily energy content (e.g. 1600-2000 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FAST","display":"fasting","definition":"No enteral intake of foot or liquids whatsoever, no smoking. Typically 6 to 8 hours before anesthesia.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FORMULA","display":"formula diet","definition":"A diet consisting of a formula feeding, either for an infant or an adult, to provide nutrition either orally or through the gastrointestinal tract via tube, catheter or stoma.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23529"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"GF","display":"gluten free","definition":"Gluten free diet for celiac disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LF","display":"low fat","definition":"A diet low in fat, particularly to patients with hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LP","display":"low protein","definition":"A low protein diet for patients with renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LQ","display":"liquid","definition":"A strictly liquid diet, that can be fully absorbed in the intestine, and therefore may not contain fiber. Used before enteral surgeries.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LS","display":"low sodium","definition":"A diet low in sodium for patients with congestive heart failure and/or renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"N","display":"normal diet","definition":"A normal diet, i.e. no special preparations or restrictions for medical reasons. This is notwithstanding any preferences the patient might have regarding special foods, such as vegetarian, kosher, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"NF","display":"no fat","definition":"A no fat diet for acute hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAF","display":"phenylalanine free","definition":"Phenylketonuria diet.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAR","display":"parenteral","definition":"Patient is supplied with parenteral nutrition, typically described in terms of i.v. medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"RD","display":"reduction diet","definition":"A diet that seeks to reduce body fat, typically low energy content (800-1600 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"schonkost (GE)","definition":"A diet that avoids ingredients that might cause digestion problems, e.g., avoid excessive fat, avoid too much fiber (cabbage, peas, beans).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SUPPLEMENT","display":"nutritional supplement","definition":"A diet that is not intended to be complete but is added to other diets.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23530"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"T","display":"tea only","definition":"This is not really a diet, since it contains little nutritional value, but is essentially just water. Used before coloscopy examinations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"VLI","display":"low valin, leucin, isoleucin","definition":"Diet with low content of the amino-acids valin, leucin, and isoleucin, for \"maple syrup disease.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"AUTO-HIGH","display":"Auto-High Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13958"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"AUTO-LOW","display":"Auto-Low Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"PRE","display":"Pre-Dilution","definition":"The dilution of the specimen made prior to being loaded onto analytical equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"RERUN","display":"Rerun Dilution","definition":"The value of the dilution of a sample after it had been analyzed at a prior dilution value","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"DNAINT","display":"Drug Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21507"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"CANPRG","display":"women's cancer detection program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that provides low-income, uninsured, and underserved women access to timely, high-quality screening and diagnostic services, to detect breast and cervical cancer at the earliest stages.\r\n\r\n**Example:** To improve women's access to screening for breast and cervical cancers, Congress passed the Breast and Cervical Cancer Mortality Prevention Act of 1990, which guided CDC in creating the National Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection Program (NBCCEDP), which provides access to critical breast and cervical cancer screening services for underserved women in the United States. An estimated 7 to 10% of U.S. women of screening age are eligible to receive NBCCEDP services. Federal guidelines establish an eligibility baseline to direct services to uninsured and underinsured women at or below 250% of federal poverty level; ages 18 to 64 for cervical screening; ages 40 to 64 for breast screening.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"ENDRENAL","display":"end renal program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government program that administers publicly funded coverage of kidney dialysis and kidney transplant services.\r\n\r\nExample: In the U.S., the Medicare End-stage Renal Disease program (ESRD), the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) American Kidney Fund (AKF) The Organ Transplant Fund.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"HIVAIDS","display":"HIV-AIDS program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded HIV-AIDS program for beneficiaries meeting financial and health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. 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while \"in transit\" or being transported by any means.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPTU","display":"encrypt in use","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext while in use such that operations permitted on the target information are limited by the license granted to the end user.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"FFC","display":"First Fill - Complete","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFP","display":"First Fill - Part Fill","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16211"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFPS","display":"first fill, part fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"FFSS","display":"first fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength. (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"TF","display":"Trial Fill","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16212"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFCS","display":"first fill complete, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFC"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"TFS","display":"trial fill partial strength","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TF"}]},{"code":"FNAINT","display":"Food Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21508"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"NOTACTN","display":"no longer actionable","definition":"**Definition:**The status of the request being fulfilled has changed such that it is no longer actionable. This may be because the request has expired, has already been completely fulfilled or has been otherwise stopped or disabled. (Not used for 'suspended' orders.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIV","display":"not equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not sufficiently equivalent to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"TIMING","display":"event timing incorrect alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy is being performed at a time which diverges from the time the therapy was requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22844"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"BOOSTER","display":"Booster Immunization","definition":"An additional immunization administration within a series intended to bolster or enhance immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21521"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"INITIMMUNIZ","display":"Initial Immunization","definition":"The first immunization administration in a series intended to produce immunity","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21520"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"ACUTE","display":"inpatient acute","definition":"An acute inpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13956"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"NONAC","display":"inpatient non-acute","definition":"Any category of inpatient encounter except 'acute'","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16238"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"INFAO","display":"access only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access or \"read\" only, which entails that the information is not to be copied, screen printed, saved, emailed, stored, re-disclosed or altered in any way. This level ensures that data which is masked or to which access is restricted will not be.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Opened and then emailed or screen printed for use outside of the consent directive purpose.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22201"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFASO","display":"access and save only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access and save only, which entails that access to the saved copy will remain locked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22202"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFCON","display":"after explicit consent","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information as explicitly consented to by the subject of the information or the subject's representative.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFAUT"}]},{"code":"FIBRIN","display":"Fibrin","definition":"The Fibrin Index of the specimen. In the case of only differentiating between Absent and Present, recommend using 0 and 1","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"HEMOLYSIS","display":"Hemolysis","definition":"An observation of the hemolysis index of the specimen in g/L","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"ICTERUS","display":"Icterus","definition":"An observation that describes the icterus index of the specimen. It is recommended to use mMol/L of bilirubin","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"LIPEMIA","display":"Lipemia","definition":"An observation used to describe the Lipemia Index of the specimen. It is recommended to use the optical turbidity at 600 nm (in absorbance units).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"IPPOP","display":"initial patient population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the patients to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23548"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IPOP"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detectyed issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20854"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues regarding the administration or supply of an item to a patient.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20907"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the financial acts domain.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of issues detected regarding the performance of a clinical action on a 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jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24075"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisDEID","display":"jurisdictional de-identified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24076"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisLDS","display":"jurisdictional limited data set","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24077"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisNSI","display":"jurisdictional non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by applicable jurisdiction law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24078"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisPI","display":"jurisdictional public information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by applicable jurisdiction law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24079"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisSP-CUI","display":"jurisdictional specified controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24080"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisUUI","display":"jurisdictional uncontrolled unclassified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24081"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"LEN_LONG","display":"length is too long","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified is greater than the maximum length defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21658"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LEN_RANGE"}]},{"code":"LEN_SHORT","display":"length is too short","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified is less than the minimum length defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LEN_RANGE"}]},{"code":"ANNU","display":"annuity policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy that, after an initial premium or premiums, pays out a sum at pre-determined intervals.\r\n\r\nFor example, a policy holder may pay $10,000, and in return receive $150 each month until he dies; or $1,000 for each of 14 years or death benefits if he dies before the full term of the annuity has elapsed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"TLIFE","display":"term life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable only if the insured dies during a specified period. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"ULIFE","display":"universal life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable upon the insuredaTMs death or diagnosis of a terminal illness. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"RENT","display":"Rent","definition":"Temporary supply of a product with financial compensation, without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17962"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LOAN"}]},{"code":"HMO","display":"health maintenance organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that provides coverage for health care only through contracted or employed physicians and hospitals located in particular geographic or service areas. HMOs emphasize prevention and early detection of illness. Eligibility to enroll in an HMO is determined by where a covered party lives or works.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"PPO","display":"preferred provider organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A network-based, managed care plan that allows a covered party to choose any health care provider. However, if care is received from a \"preferred\" (participating in-network) provider, there are generally higher benefit coverage and lower deductibles.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515MMHC","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-Michigan Mental Health Code","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health governed by the Michigan Mental Health Code Act 258 of 1974, which require patient authorization for purposes other than treatment, payment, and coordination of care, in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515Part2","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-US 42 CFR Part 2","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to substance use information governed under US 42 CFR Part 2 in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"CURMEDLIST","display":"current medication list","definition":"List of current medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19977"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"DISCMEDLIST","display":"discharge medication list","definition":"List of discharge medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19979"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"HISTMEDLIST","display":"medication history","definition":"Historical list of medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19978"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"MICROORGRREV","display":"microbiology organisms results review task","definition":"A person reviews organisms of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MICROSENSRREV","display":"microbiology sensitivity test results review task","definition":"A person reviews the sensitivity test of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MARWLREV","display":"medication administration record work list review task","definition":"A clinician reviews a work list of medications to be administered to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MLREV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVGEN","display":"not generically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not generically equivalent (having the identical biological action) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22843"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVTHER","display":"not therapeutically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not therapeutically equivalent (having the same overall patient effect) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22842"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"ANONY","display":"anonymize","definition":"Custodian system must remove any information that could result in identifying the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23374"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AOD","display":"accounting of disclosure","definition":"Custodian system must make available to an information subject upon request an accounting of certain disclosures of the individual's protected health information over a period of time. Policy may dictate that the accounting include information about the information disclosed, the date of disclosure, the identification of the receiver, the purpose of the disclosure, the time in which the disclosing entity must provide a response and the time period for which accountings of disclosure can be requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23373"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDIT","display":"audit","definition":"Custodian system must monitor systems to ensure that all users are authorized to operate on information objects.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23375"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDTR","display":"audit trail","definition":"Custodian system must monitor and maintain retrievable log for each user and operation on information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23376"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"CPLYPOL","display":"comply with policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYPOL may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of the tagged information to comply with applicable policy without specifying the specific policy type(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DECLASSIFYLABEL","display":"declassify security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as unclassified in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DEID","display":"deidentify","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELAU","display":"delete after use","definition":"Custodian system must remove target information from access after use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DOWNGRDLABEL","display":"downgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must downgrade information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a less protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRIVLABEL","display":"derive security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels derived from compilations of information by aggregation or disaggregation in order to classify information compiled in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPT","display":"encrypt","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"HUAPRV","display":"human approval","definition":"Custodian system must require human review and approval for permission requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"LABEL","display":"assign security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels in order to classify information created in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In security systems, security policy label assignments do not change, they may supersede prior assignments, and such reassignments are always tracked for auditing and other purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MASK","display":"mask","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext. User may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MINEC","display":"minimum necessary","definition":"Custodian must limit access and disclosure to the minimum information required to support an authorized user's purpose of use.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Limiting the information available for access and disclosure to that an authorized user or receiver \"needs to know\" in order to perform permitted workflow or purpose of use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PERSISTLABEL","display":"persist security label","definition":"Custodian security system must persist the binding of security labels to classify information received or imported by information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRIVMARK","display":"privacy mark","definition":"Custodian must create and/or maintain human readable security label tags as required by policy.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 description of privacy mark: \"If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PSEUD","display":"pseudonymize","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"REDACT","display":"redact","definition":"Custodian system must remove information, which is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed from records made available to otherwise authorized users.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"UPGRDLABEL","display":"upgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a more protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PROCESSINLINELABEL","display":"process inline security label","definition":"Custodian security system must take note that the data object contains inline security labels and process them.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23850"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"Age Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"COND","display":"Condition Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to an existing/recent patient condition or diagnosis","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"CREACT","display":"common reaction alert","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a common but non-patient specific reaction to the product.\r\n\r\n**Example:**There is no record of a specific sensitivity for the patient, but the presence of the sensitivity is common and therefore caution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEN","display":"Genetic Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient genetic indicators.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEND","display":"Gender Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient gender.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LAB","display":"Lab Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to recent lab test results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"REACT","display":"Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated based on the potential for a patient reaction to the proposed product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16672"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"RREACT","display":"Related Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a potential patient reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LABOE","display":"laboratory test order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a laboratory test to be done for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"MEDOE","display":"medication order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for the administration of one or more medications to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"ALG","display":"Allergy","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21499"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"DINT","display":"Drug Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to a drug.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21501"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"EINT","display":"Environmental Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to environmental conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21503"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"FINT","display":"Food Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to food.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21502"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"NAINT","display":"Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21500"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"OrgCUI","display":"organizational basic controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of basic controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgDEID","display":"organizational de-identified informati)on policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgLDS","display":"organizational limited data set information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgNSI","display":"organizational non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgPI","display":"organizational public information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of public information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgSP-CUI","display":"organizational specified controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgUUI","display":"organizational uncontrolled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by the organization or governing jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"ALLERLREV","display":"allergy list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of known allergies of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23268"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEE","display":"clinical note entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a clinical note about a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"IMMLREV","display":"immunization list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of immunizations due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23269"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"REMLREV","display":"reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of health care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23270"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"ALLERLE","display":"allergy list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a known allergy for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CDSREV","display":"clinical decision support intervention review","definition":"A person reviews a recommendation/assessment provided automatically by a clinical decision support application for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEREV","display":"clinical note review task","definition":"A person reviews a clinical note of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTREV","display":"diagnosis list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of diagnoses of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"IMMLE","display":"immunization list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters an immunization due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"LABRREV","display":"laboratory results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of laboratory results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MICRORREV","display":"microbiology results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MLREV","display":"medication list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of medication orders submitted to a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"OREV","display":"orders review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of orders submitted to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATREPREV","display":"pathology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a pathology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTREV","display":"problem list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of problems of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RADREPREV","display":"radiology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a radiology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"REMLE","display":"reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a health care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RISKASSESS","display":"risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATPREFALT","display":"violates stated preferences, alternate available","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record. An alternate therapy meeting those constraints is available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATPREF"}]},{"code":"PersDEID","display":"personal de-identified information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the information subject or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24083"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersLDS","display":"personal limited data set information policy","definition":"Personal policy personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24085"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersNSI","display":"personal non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24084"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersPI","display":"personal public information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24086"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","display":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","definition":"Information the US Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls. However, CUI does not include classified information (see definition above) or information a non-executive branch entity possesses and maintains in its own systems that did not come from, or was not created or possessed by or for, an executive branch agency or an entity acting for an agency. Law, regulation, or Government-wide policy may require or permit safeguarding or dissemination controls in three ways: Requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information but providing no specific controls, which makes the information CUI Basic; requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information and providing specific controls for doing so, which makes the information CUI Specified; or requiring or permitting agencies to control the information and specifying only some of those controls, which makes the information CUI Specified, but with CUI Basic controls where the authority does not specify. Based on CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html .\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf. For definitions of key terms see CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"SecurityLabelMark","display":"Security Label Mark","definition":"An abstract code for displayed Security Label tags.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* These marks may be based on any of the HL7 Security Labeling related codes from various code systems and values sets, which are organized according to the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System into HL7 Security Observation Type Named Tag Sets and valued with codes associated with the HL7 Security Observation Value Tag Set Names.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"CUIMark","display":"CUI Mark","definition":"An originator must mark, persist, display, and convey computable and renderable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) marks as required by policy. A recipient must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI marks on information received based on agreements with the originator..\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * As CUI custodians, Federal Agencies and their contractors must mark, persist, display, and convey these marks.\r\n * All CUI receivers must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI markings on information further disclosed\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PRIVMARK"}]},{"code":"DENTPRG","display":"dental program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for dental care to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"DISEASEPRG","display":"public health program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for health and social services to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria related to a particular disease.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Reproductive health, sexually transmitted disease, and end renal disease programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MANDPOL","display":"mandatory health program","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22149"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MENTPRG","display":"mental health program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded mental health program for beneficiaries meeting financial and mental health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22141"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SAFNET","display":"safety net clinic program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded program to support provision of care to underserved populations through safety net clinics.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., safety net providers such as federally qualified health centers (FQHC) receive funding under PHSA Section 330 grants administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22142"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPRG","display":"substance use program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded substance use program for beneficiaries meeting financial, substance use behavior, and health status criteria. Beneficiaries may be required to enroll as a result of legal proceedings. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22143"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDIZ","display":"subsidized health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22137"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"ALGY","display":"Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to the proposed product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16674"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"INT","display":"Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to the proposed product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16673"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"NOAUTH","display":"no disclosure without subject authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without information subject's authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOCOLLECT","display":"no collection","definition":"Prohibition on collection or storage of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23395"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCD","display":"no disclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational approved patient restriction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23396"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCDS","display":"no disclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOINTEGRATE","display":"no integration","definition":"Prohibition on Integration into other records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23397"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOLIST","display":"no unlisted entity disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to entities on specific access list.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23398"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOMOU","display":"no disclosure without MOU","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without an interagency service agreement or memorandum of understanding (MOU).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23399"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOORGPOL","display":"no disclosure without organizational authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23400"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPAT","display":"no disclosure to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosing information to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The information may be labeled with the ActInformationSensitivity TBOO code, triggering application of this RefrainPolicy code as a handling caveat controlling access.\r\n\r\nMaps to FHIR NOPAT: Typically, this is used on an Alert resource, when the alert records information on patient abuse or non-compliance.\r\n\r\nFHIR print name is \"keep information from patient\". Maps to the French realm - code: INVISIBLE\\_PATIENT.\r\n\r\n * displayName: Document non visible par le patient\r\n * codingScheme: 1.2.250.1.213.1.1.4.13\r\n\r\nFrench use case: A label for documents that the author chose to hide from the patient until the content can be disclose to the patient in a face to face meeting between a healthcare professional and the patient (in French law some results like cancer diagnosis or AIDS diagnosis must be announced to the patient by a healthcare professional and should not be find out by the patient alone).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPERSISTP","display":"no collection beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on collection of the information beyond time necessary to accomplish authorized purpose of use is prohibited.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23401"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSCLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCDS","display":"no redisclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLW","display":"no disclosure without jurisdictional authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without authorization under jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23403"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORELINK","display":"no relinking","definition":"Prohibition on associating de-identified or pseudonymized information with other information in a manner that could or does result in disclosing information intended to be masked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23404"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOREUSE","display":"no reuse beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on use of the information beyond the purpose of use initially authorized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23405"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOVIP","display":"no unauthorized VIP disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to principals with access permission to specific VIP information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23406"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"ORCON","display":"no disclosure without originator authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except as permitted by the information originator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23407"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLE","display":"wellness reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a wellness or preventive care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23267"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLE"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLREV","display":"wellness reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of wellness or preventive care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23271"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLREV"}]},{"code":"MAXOCCURS","display":"repetitions above maximum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is above the maximum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"MINOCCURS","display":"repetitions below minimum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is below the minimum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"RSDID","display":"de-identified information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes, but without consent to re-identify the information under any circumstance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22207"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RSREID","display":"re-identifiable information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes re-identified under specific circumstances outlined in the consent.\r\n\r\n**Example::** Where there is a need to inform the subject of potential health issues.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22208"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RFC","display":"Refill - Complete","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16216"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFF","display":"Refill (First fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFP","display":"Refill - Part Fill","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16217"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFS","display":"refill partial strength","definition":"A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21819"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"TB","display":"Trial Balance","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16213"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFCS","display":"refill complete partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21820"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFC"}]},{"code":"RFFS","display":"refill partial strength (first fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFF"}]},{"code":"RFPS","display":"refill part fill partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21822"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFP"}]},{"code":"FALLRISK","display":"falls risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Falls Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RISKASSESS"}]},{"code":"RALG","display":"Related Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RAR","display":"Related Prior Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded prior adverse reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16679"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RINT","display":"Related Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"SECALTINTOBS","display":"security alteration integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the mechanism used for authorized transformations of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security alteration integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation with a code used to indicate the mechanism used for authorized transformation of an IT resource, including:\r\n\r\n * translation\r\n * syntactic transformation\r\n * semantic mapping\r\n * redaction\r\n * masking\r\n * pseudonymization\r\n * anonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23478"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECDATINTOBS","display":"security data integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the data integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the security mechanism used to preserve resource accuracy and consistency. Data integrity is defined by ISO 22600-23.3.21 as: \"The property that data has not been altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner\", and by ISO/IEC 2382-8: The property of data whose accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made.\"\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security data integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation, include cryptographic hash function and digital signature.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTCONOBS","display":"security integrity confidence observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity confidence of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity confidence observation metadata, which may value the observation, include highly reliable, uncertain reliability, and not reliable.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security integrity confidence observation on an Act may indicate that a valued Act.uncertaintycode attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservationValue. This supports the business requirements for increasing or decreasing the assessment of the reliability or trustworthiness of an IT resource based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act statement level of uncertainty.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23477"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVOBS","display":"security integrity provenance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the provenance integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the lifecycle completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status such as its creation, modification, suspension, and deletion; locations in which the resource has been collected or archived, from which it may be retrieved, and the history of its distribution and disclosure. Integrity provenance metadata about an IT resource may be used to assess its veracity, reliability, and trustworthiness.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance observation metadata, which may value the observation about an IT resource, include:\r\n\r\n * completeness or workflow status, such as authentication\r\n * the entity responsible for original authoring or informing about an IT resource\r\n * the entity responsible for a report or assertion about an IT resource relayed \"second-hand\"\r\n * the entity responsible for excerpting, transforming, or compiling an IT resource","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTSTOBS","display":"security integrity status observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Indicates the completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status, which may impact users that are authorized to access and use the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity status observation metadata, which may value the observation, include codes from the HL7 DocumentCompletion code system such as legally authenticated, in progress, and incomplete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23476"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVABOBS","display":"security integrity provenance asserted by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that made assertions about the resource. The asserting entity may not be the original informant about the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance asserted by observation metadata, which may value the observation, including:\r\n\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVRBOBS","display":"security integrity provenance reported by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that reported the existence of the resource. The reporting entity may not be the original author of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance reported by observation metadata, which may value the observation, include:\r\n\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCATOBS","display":"security category observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the category of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security category metadata is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"A nonhierarchical grouping of sensitive information used to control access to data more finely than with hierarchical security classification alone.\"\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security category observation supports requirement to specify the type of IT resource to facilitate application of appropriate levels of information security according to a range of levels of impact or consequences that might result from the unauthorized disclosure, modification, or use of the information or information system. A resource is assigned to a specific category of information (e.g., privacy, medical, proprietary, financial, investigative, contractor sensitive, security management) defined by an organization or in some instances, by a specific law, Executive Order, directive, policy, or regulation. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security categories include:\r\n\r\n * Compartment: A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk. (ISO 2382-8). A security label tag that \"segments\" an IT resource by indicating that access and use is restricted to members of a defined community or project. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)\r\n * Sensitivity: The characteristic of an IT resource which implies its value or importance and may include its vulnerability. (ISO 7492-2) Privacy metadata for information perceived as undesirable to share. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCLASSOBS","display":"security classification observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the classification of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security classification is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"The determination of which specific degree of protection against access the data or information requires, together with a designation of that degree of protection.\" Security classification metadata is based on an analysis of applicable policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm that could result from unauthorized disclosure.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security classification observation may indicate that the confidentiality level indicated by an Act or Role confidentiality attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityClassificationObservationValue. This supports the business requirement for increasing or decreasing the level of confidentiality (classification or declassification) based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act or Role confidentiality.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security classification include: HL7 Confidentiality Codes such as very restricted, unrestricted, and normal. Intelligence community examples include top secret, secret, and confidential.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Security classification observation type codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityClassificationObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23472"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCONOBS","display":"security control observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the control of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security control metadata convey instructions to users and receivers for secure distribution, transmission, and storage; dictate obligations or mandated actions; specify any action prohibited by refrain policy such as dissemination controls; and stipulate the permissible purpose of use of an IT resource.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security control observation supports requirement to specify applicable management, operational, and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) prescribed for an information system to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its information. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security control metadata include:\r\n\r\n * handling caveats\r\n * dissemination controls\r\n * obligations\r\n * refrain policies\r\n * purpose of use constraints","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23474"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTOBS","display":"security integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security integrity observation supports the requirement to guard against improper information modification or destruction, and includes ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity. (44 U.S.C., SEC. 3542)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity metadata include:\r\n\r\n * Integrity status, which indicates the completeness or workflow status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)\r\n * Integrity confidence, which indicates the reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource\r\n * Integrity control, which indicates pertinent handling caveats, obligations, refrain policies, and purpose of use for the resource\r\n * Data integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used to ensure that the accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made (ISO/IEC DIS 2382-8)\r\n * Alteration integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used for authorized transformations of the resource\r\n * Integrity provenance, which indicates the entity responsible for a report or assertion relayed \"second-hand\" about an IT resource","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBS","display":"SECTRSTOBS","definition":"An observation identifying trust metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used as a trust attribute to populate a computable trust policy, trust credential, trust assertion, or trust label field in a security label or trust policy, which are principally used for authentication, authorization, and access control decisions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBS","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBS","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBS","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\n**For example,**\r\n\r\n * A Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. For example, a particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\r\n * A Certificate Practice Statement (CSP), which is a statement of the practices which an Authority employs in issuing and managing certificates. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBS","display":"trust framework observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBS","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBS","display":"trust mechanism observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"ConfidentialMark","display":"confidential mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered as \"Confidential\", which indicates to end users that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing must be protected at a level of protection as dictated by applicable policy.\r\n\r\nMay be used to indicate proprietary or classified information that is, for example, business, intelligence, or project related, e.g., secret ingredients in a therapeutic substance; location of disaster health facilities and providers, or the name of a manufacturer or project contractor. Example use cases include a display to alert authorized business system users that they are viewing additionally protected proprietary and business confidential information deemed proprietary under an applicable jurisdictional or organizational policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nThe ConfidentialMark (confidential mark) description is based on the HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"COPYMark","display":"copy of original mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is a copy of an authoritative source for the information. The copy is not considered authoritative but is a duplicate of the authoritative content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Applicable policy will dictate how the COPY mark will be displayed. Typical renderings include the marking appearing at the top or \"banner\" of electronic or hardcopy pages, or as watermarks set diagonally across each page.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DeliverToAddresseeOnlyMark","display":"deliver only to addressee mark","definition":"A displayed mark on an electronic transmission or physical container such as an electronic transmittal wrapper, batch file, message header, or a physical envelop or package indicating that the contents, whether electronic or hardcopy information, must only be delivered to the authorized recipient(s) named in the address.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Required by US 32 CRF Part 2002 for container storing or transmitting CUI.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RedisclosureProhibitionMark","display":"prohibition against redisclosure mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as a prescribed text warning that the electronic or hardcopy information shall not be further disclosed without consent of the subject of the information. For example, in order to warn a recipient of 42 CFR Part 2 information of the redisclosure restrictions, the rule mandates that end users receive a written prohibition against redisclosure unless authorized by patient consent or otherwise permitted by Part 2. See 42 CFR § 2.32 Prohibition on re-disclosure. (a)Notice to accompany disclosure. Each disclosure made with the patient's written consent must be accompanied by one of the following written statements: (1) This information has been disclosed to you from records protected by federal confidentiality rules ( 42 CFR part 2). The federal rules prohibit you from making any further disclosure of information in this record that identifies a patient as having or having had a substance use disorder either directly, by reference to publicly available information, or through verification of such identification by another person unless further disclosure is expressly permitted by the written consent of the individual whose information is being disclosed or as otherwise permitted by 42 CFR part 2. A general authorization for the release of medical or other information is NOT sufficient for this purpose (see § 2.31). The federal rules restrict any use of the information to investigate or prosecute with regard to a crime any patient with a substance use disorder, except as provided at § § 2.12(c)(5) and 2.65; or (2) 42 CFR part 2 prohibits unauthorized disclosure of these records. https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/42/2.32\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Example of marking requirement from SAMHSA FAQ Response to question 13:\r\n\r\nWould a logon or splash page notification on an HIO's portal that contains the Part 2 notice prohibiting redisclosure be sufficient to meet Part 2's requirement that disclosures made with patient consent be accompanied by such a statement?\r\n\r\nNo. Part 2 requires each disclosure made with written patient consent to be accompanied by a written statement that the information disclosed is protected by federal law and that the recipient cannot make any further disclosure of it unless permitted by the regulations (42 CFR § 2.32). A logon page is the page where a user logs onto a computer system; a splash page is an introductory page to a web site. A logon or splash page notification on a HIO's portal including the statement as required by § 2.32 would not be sufficient notification regarding prohibitions on redisclosure since it would not accompany a specific disclosure. The notification must be tied to the Part 2 information being disclosed in order to ensure that the recipient of that information knows that specific information is protected by Part 2 and cannot be redisclosed except as authorized by the express written consent of the person to whom it pertains or as otherwise permitted by Part 2. https://www.samhsa.gov/about-us/who-we-are/laws-regulations/confidentiality-regulations-faqs","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RestrictedConfidentialityMark","display":"restricted confidentiality mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as \"Restricted Confidentiality\", which indicates that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing, must be protected at a restricted level of confidentiality protection as defined by HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted). Examples: Includes information that is additionally protected such as sensitive conditions mental health, HIV, substance abuse, domestic violence, child abuse, genetic disease, and reproductive health; or sensitive demographic information such as a patient's standing as an employee or a celebrity. Use cases include a display to alert authorized EHR users that they are viewing additionally protected health information deemed sensitive by an applicable jurisdictional, organizational, or personal privacy policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The definition is based on HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted), which is described as:\r\n\r\nPrivacy metadata indicating highly sensitive, potentially stigmatizing information, which presents a high risk to the information subject if disclosed without authorization. May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law, e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment. Foundational definitions of Confidentiality: From HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\nUsage Note from HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\": Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nThis metadata indicates that the receiver may be obligated to comply with applicable, prevailing (default) jurisdictional privacy law or disclosure authorization.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes. Map: Partial Map to ISO 13606-4 Sensitivity Level (3) Clinical Care: Default for normal clinical care access (i.e. most clinical staff directly caring for the patient should be able to access nearly all of the EHR). Maps to normal confidentiality for treatment information but not to ancillary care, payment and operations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DRAFTMark","display":"Draft Mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hard-copy information is still under development and is not yet considered to be ready for normal use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"AUTHPOL","display":"authorization policy","definition":"Authorisation policies are essentially security policies related to access-control and specify what activities a subject is permitted or forbidden to do, to a set of target objects. They are designed to protect target objects so are interpreted by access control agents or the run-time systems at the target system.\r\n\r\nA positive authorisation policy defines the actions that a subject is permitted to perform on a target. A negative authorisation policy specifies the actions that a subject is forbidden to perform on a target. Positive authorisation policies may also include filters to transform the parameters associated with their actions. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELEPOL","display":"delegation policy","definition":"Delegation policies specify which actions subjects are allowed to delegate to others. A delegation policy thus specifies an authorisation to delegate. Subjects must already possess the access rights to be delegated.\r\n\r\nDelegation policies are aimed at subjects delegating rights to servers or third parties to perform actions on their behalf and are not meant to be the means by which security administrators would assign rights to subjects. A negative delegation policy identifies what delegations are forbidden.\r\n\r\nA Delegation policy specifies the authorisation policy from which delegated rights are derived, the grantors, which are the entities which can delegate these access rights, and the grantees, which are the entities to which the access rights can be delegated. There are two types of delegation policy, positive and negative. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ObligationPolicy","display":"obligation policy","definition":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23372"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PrivacyMark","display":"privacy mark","definition":"An abstract code for human readable marks indicating, e.g., the level of confidentiality protection, an authorized compartment, the integrity, or the handling instruction required by applicable policy. Such markings must be displayed as directed by applicable policy on electronically rendered information content and any electronic transmittal envelope or container; or on hardcopy information and any physical transmittal envelope or container.\r\n\r\nExamples of protocols for marking displays on electronic or hardcopy rendered content: Across the top or \"banner\" of each page ; as a watermark placed diagonally cross each page; at the bottom or \"footer\" of each page; and may be displayed at the beginning of any portion within the content that required markings different than other portions of the content. The banner or top of page marking typically acts as a \"high watermark\" by including all of the markings made on any marked portions within the entirety of the information content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A \"Privacy Mark\" is a Security Control Observation (SECCONOBS) named tag set as specified by the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System (HCS). A Privacy Mark Named Tag Set is valued with a Privacy Mark leaf code \"tag\", which is a member of the Security Control Observation Value (\\_SecurityObservationValue) tag set. Related Security Control Observation named tag sets are Purpose of Use, Obligation Policy, and Refrain Policy, each with their own Security Control Observation Value tag sets.\r\n\r\nFoundational standard definitions: ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 - If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label. IEEE Security Glossary Compendium 93- CESG Memorandum No.1 Issue 1.2 Oct 1992 - Human readable word or phrase acting as an indicator of all or part of the security constraints that apply to a document so marked. NOTE: A machine readable representation of a marking.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* While policies requiring creators, processors, custodians, senders or recipients apply, enforce, and persist applicable Privacy Marks may be dictated by a jurisdiction, organization or personal privacy, security, or integrity policy, those required to comply may be governed under different policies, so compliance may need to be enforced through trust contracts. For example, information content marked with GDPR related policies may require adherence by processors or recipients outside of the European Union. For this reason, this code system is likely to evolve with the inclusion of multiple policy domains needing to communicate encoded policies in a standard, interoperable manner.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"RefrainPolicy","display":"refrain policy","definition":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"BH","display":"behavioral health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to behavioral and emotional disturbances affecting social adjustment and physical health, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"MH","display":"mental health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to psychological disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Mental health information may be deemed specifically sensitive and distinct from physical health, substance use disorders, and behavioral disabilities and disorders in some jurisdictions.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychiatry psychiatric disorder information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23341"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSYTHPN","display":"psychotherapy note information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychotherapy note information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In some jurisdiction, disclosure of psychotherapy notes requires patient consent.\r\n\r\nIf there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUD","display":"substance use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol or drug use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDMC","display":"subsidized managed care program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage through managed care contracts for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized managed care program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22139"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"SUBSUPP","display":"subsidized supplemental health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria for a supplemental health policy or program such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Supplemental health coverage program may cover the cost of a health program or policy financial participations, such as the copays and the premiums, and may provide coverage for services in addition to those covered under the supplemented health program or policy. In the U.S., Medicaid programs may pay the premium for a covered party who is also covered under the Medicare program or a private health policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized supplemental retiree health program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22140"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"ETHUD","display":"alcohol use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"OPIOIDUD","display":"opioid use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to opioid use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23892"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"TBS","display":"trial balance partial strength","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21823"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TB"}]},{"code":"ALRTENDLATE","display":"end too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22837"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"ALRTSTRTLATE","display":"start too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22838"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"INTERVAL","display":"outside requested time","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed outside the bounds of the time period requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22846"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"MINFREQ","display":"too soon within frequency based on the usage","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed too soon after the previous occurrence based on the requested frequency","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22845"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"DRG","display":"Drug Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NHP","display":"Natural Health Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with existing or recent natural health product therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NONRX","display":"Non-Prescription Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with a non-prescription drug (e.g. alcohol, tobacco, Aspirin)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"SALE","display":"Sale","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product for financial compensation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TRANSFER"}]},{"code":"BUS","display":"business constraint violation","definition":"**Description:**A local business rule relating multiple elements has been violated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"CODE_INVAL","display":"code is not valid","definition":"**Description:**The specified code is not valid against the list of codes allowed for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"FORMAT","display":"invalid format","definition":"**Description:**The element does not follow the formatting or type rules defined for the field.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21655"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"ILLEGAL","display":"illegal","definition":"**Description:**The request is missing elements or contains elements which cause it to not meet the legal standards for actioning.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21652"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"LEN_RANGE","display":"length out of range","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified falls out of the range defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21656"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"MISSCOND","display":"conditional element missing","definition":"**Description:**The specified element must be specified with a non-null value under certain conditions. 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reasons, regardless of whether or not they were paid for the time off or were seeking other jobs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23920"}]},{"code":"NotInLaborForce","display":"Not In Labor Force","definition":"Persons not classified as employed or unemployed, meaning those who have no job and are not looking for one.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23922"}]},{"code":"Unemployed","display":"Unemployed","definition":"Persons who currently have no employment, but are available for work and have made specific efforts to find employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23921"}]}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationValue","display":"GeneticObservationValue","definition":"**Description:** The domain contains genetic analysis specific observation values, e.g. Homozygote, Heterozygote, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22648"}],"concept":[{"code":"Homozygote","display":"HOMO","definition":"**Description:** An individual having different alleles at one or more loci regarding a specific character","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22649"}]}]},{"code":"_MeasurementImprovementNotation","display":"Measurement Improvement Notation","definition":"Observation values that indicate what change in a measurement value or score is indicative of an improvement in the measured item or scored issue.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24042"}],"concept":[{"code":"DecrIsImp","display":"Decreased score indicates improvement","definition":"Improvement is indicated as a decrease in the score or measurement (e.g. Lower score indicates better 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characteristics (e.g., Male smokers between the ages of 40 and 50 years, exposure to treatment, exposure duration).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23553"}]},{"code":"CONTVAR","display":"continuous variable measure scoring","definition":"A measure score in which each individual value for the measure can fall anywhere along a continuous scale (e.g., mean time to thrombolytics which aggregates the time in minutes from a case presenting with chest pain to the time of administration of thrombolytics).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23038"}]},{"code":"PROPOR","display":"proportion measure scoring","definition":"A score derived by dividing the number of cases that meet a criterion for quality (the numerator) by the number of eligible cases within a given time frame (the denominator) where the numerator cases are a subset of the denominator cases (e.g., percentage of eligible women with a mammogram performed in the last year).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23039"}]},{"code":"RATIO","display":"ratio measure scoring","definition":"A score that may have a value of zero or greater that is derived by dividing a count of one type of data by a count of another type of data (e.g., the number of patients with central lines who develop infection divided by the number of central line days).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23040"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationMeasureType","display":"ObservationMeasureType","definition":"Observation values used to indicate what kind of health quality measure is used.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23041"}],"concept":[{"code":"COMPOSITE","display":"composite measure type","definition":"A measure that is composed from one or more other measures and indicates an overall summary of those measures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23650"}]},{"code":"EFFICIENCY","display":"efficiency measure type","definition":"A measure related to the efficiency of medical treatment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23652"}]},{"code":"EXPERIENCE","display":"experience measure type","definition":"A measure related to the level of patient engagement or patient experience of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23653"}]},{"code":"OUTCOME","display":"outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that indicates the result of the performance (or non-performance) of a function or process.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23042"}],"concept":[{"code":"INTERM-OM","display":"intermediate outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that evaluates the change over time of a physiologic state observable that is associated with a specific long-term health outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23862"}]},{"code":"PRO-PM","display":"patient reported outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that is a comparison of patient reported outcomes for a single or multiple patients collected via an instrument specifically designed to obtain input directly from patients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23861"}]}]},{"code":"PROCESS","display":"process measure type","definition":"A measure which focuses on a process which leads to a certain outcome, meaning that a scientific basis exists for believing that the process, when executed well, will increase the probability of achieving a desired outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23043"}],"concept":[{"code":"APPROPRIATE","display":"appropriate use process measure","definition":"A measure that assesses the use of one or more processes where the expected health benefit exceeds the expected negative consequences.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23863"}]}]},{"code":"RESOURCE","display":"resource use measure type","definition":"A measure related to the extent of use of clinical resources or cost of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23651"}]},{"code":"STRUCTURE","display":"structure measure type","definition":"A measure related to the structure of patient care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23654"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationPopulationInclusion","display":"ObservationPopulationInclusion","definition":"Observation values used to assert various populations that a subject falls into.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23044"}],"concept":[{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Patients who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23442"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Denominator exceptions are those conditions that should remove a patient, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23046"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"It can be the same as the initial patient population or a subset of the initial patient population to further constrain the population for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different Denominators. 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Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23047"}]}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Measure population is used only in continuous variable eMeasures. It is a narrative description of the eMeasure population. (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23048"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Numerators are used in proportion and ratio eMeasures. In proportion measures the numerator criteria are the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator. In ratio measures the numerator is related, but not directly derived from the denominator (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23049"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures to define instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23443"}]}]},{"code":"_PartialCompletionScale","display":"PartialCompletionScale","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21099"}],"concept":[{"code":"G","display":"Great extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 81-99% completion","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18126"}]},{"code":"LE","display":"Large extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 61-80% 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metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Confidentiality Codes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23484"}]},{"code":"_SECCONOBV","display":"security control","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security control metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying dissemination controls, information handling caveats, purpose of use, refrain policies, and obligations to which custodians and information receivers must comply.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23486"}]},{"code":"_SECINTOBV","display":"security integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying integrity status, integrity confidence, and provenance.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23487"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECALTINTOBV","display":"alteration integrity","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation values used to indicate mechanism used for authorized alteration of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23497"}],"concept":[{"code":"ABSTRED","display":"abstracted","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of a more abstract version of the content, e.g., replacing exact value of an age or date field with a range, or remove the left digits of a credit card number or SSN.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23498"}]},{"code":"AGGRED","display":"aggregated","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of an algorithmic combination of actual values with the result of an aggregate function, e.g., average, sum, or count in order to limit disclosure of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to the minimum necessary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23499"}]},{"code":"ANONYED","display":"anonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. No key to relink the data is retained.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23500"}]},{"code":"MAPPED","display":"mapped","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource semantic content has been transformed from one encoding to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MAP\" code does not indicate the semantic fidelity of the transformed content.\r\n\r\nTo indicate semantic fidelity for maps of HL7 to other code systems, this security alteration integrity observation may be further specified using an Act valued with Value Set: MapRelationship (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11052).\r\n\r\nSemantic fidelity of the mapped IT Resource may also be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23501"}]},{"code":"MASKED","display":"masked","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can make data unintelligible (that is, as unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext) such that it can only be accessed or used by authorized users. An authorized user may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MASKED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has been further encrypted, and may be accessed only by an authorized user or receiver to which a decryption key is provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23502"}]},{"code":"PSEUDED","display":"pseudonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* Personal data which has been processed to make it impossible to know whose data it is. Used particularly for secondary use of health data. In some cases, it may be possible for authorized individuals to restore the identity of the individual, e.g.,for public health case management. Based on ISO/TS 25237:2008 Health informatics-Pseudonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23503"}]},{"code":"REDACTED","display":"redacted","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can filter an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to remove any portion of the resource that is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"REDACTED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has filtered and not included in the content accessed or received.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23504"}]},{"code":"SUBSETTED","display":"subsetted","definition":"Metadata observation used to indicate that some information has been removed from the source object when the view this object contains was constructed because of configuration options when the view was created. The content may not be suitable for use as the basis of a record update\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* This is not suitable to be used when information is removed for security reasons - see the code REDACTED for this use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23730"}]},{"code":"SYNTAC","display":"syntactic transform","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource syntax has been transformed from one syntactical representation to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"SYNTAC\" code does not indicate the syntactical correctness of the syntactically transformed IT resource.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23505"}]},{"code":"TRSLT","display":"translated","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource has been translated from one human language to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"TRSLT\" does not indicate the fidelity of the translation or the languages translated.\r\n\r\nThe fidelity of the IT Resource translation may be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.\r\n\r\nTo indicate languages, use the Value Set:HumanLanguage (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11526)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23506"}]},{"code":"VERSIONED","display":"versioned","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) which indicates that the resource only retains versions of an IT resource for access and use per applicable policy\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* When this code is used, expectation is that the system has removed historical versions of the data that falls outside the time period deemed to be the effective time of the applicable version.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23507"}]}]},{"code":"_SECDATINTOBV","display":"data integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate data integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the mechanism used to preserve the accuracy and consistency of an IT resource such as a digital signature and a cryptographic hash function.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23494"}],"concept":[{"code":"CRYTOHASH","display":"cryptographic hash function","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can establish that data was not modified in transit.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.19 definition of cryptographic checkvalue: Information which is derived by performing a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) on the data unit. The derivation of the checkvalue may be performed in one or more steps and is a result of a mathematical function of the key and a data unit. It is usually used to check the integrity of a data unit.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * SHA-1\r\n * SHA-2 (Secure Hash Algorithm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23495"}]},{"code":"DIGSIG","display":"digital signature","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems use digital signature to establish that data has not been modified.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.26 definition of digital signature: Data appended to, or a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) of, a data unit that allows a recipient of the data unit to prove the source and integrity of the data unit and protect against forgery e.g., by the recipient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23496"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTCONOBV","display":"integrity confidence","definition":"Abstract security observation value used to indicate integrity confidence metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the level of reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23489"}],"concept":[{"code":"HRELIABLE","display":"highly reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be very high.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23490"}]},{"code":"RELIABLE","display":"reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be adequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23491"}]},{"code":"UNCERTREL","display":"uncertain reliability","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be uncertain.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23492"}]},{"code":"UNRELIABLE","display":"unreliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be inadequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23493"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVOBV","display":"provenance","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation value used to indicate the provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23508"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECINTPRVABOBV","display":"provenance asserted by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that asserted an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity asserting the resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23518"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINAST","display":"clinician asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23519"}]},{"code":"DEVAST","display":"device asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23523"}]},{"code":"HCPAST","display":"healthcare professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23520"}]},{"code":"PACQAST","display":"patient acquaintance asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23526"}]},{"code":"PATAST","display":"patient asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23524"}]},{"code":"PAYAST","display":"payer asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23522"}]},{"code":"PROAST","display":"professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23521"}]},{"code":"SDMAST","display":"substitute decision maker asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23525"}]},{"code":"AIAST","display":"Artificial Intelligence asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Artificial Intelligence (e.g. Clinical Decision Support, Machine Learning, Algorithm).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"123525"}]},{"code":"DICTAST","display":"Dictation asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Dictation algorithm transforming human communications (e.g. speech).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"223525"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVRBOBV","display":"provenance reported by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that reported the resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23509"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINRPT","display":"clinician reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23510"}]},{"code":"DEVRPT","display":"device reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23514"}]},{"code":"HCPRPT","display":"healthcare professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23511"}]},{"code":"PACQRPT","display":"patient acquaintance reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23517"}]},{"code":"PATRPT","display":"patient reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23515"}]},{"code":"PAYRPT","display":"payer reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23513"}]},{"code":"PRORPT","display":"professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23512"}]},{"code":"SDMRPT","display":"substitute decision maker reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23516"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTSTOBV","display":"integrity status","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate integrity status metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes, such as those in the HL7 DocumentClassification code system conveying the workflow status of resource as authenticated, legally authenticated, and in progress.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23488"}]}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBV","display":"security trust observation","definition":"Observation value used to indicate aspects of trust applicable to an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23672"}],"concept":[{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBV","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Values for security trust accreditation metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23673"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBV","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Values for security trust agreement metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\] \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23674"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBV","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Values for security trust certificate metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, a Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. A particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. Another example is Cross Certification with Federal Bridge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23675"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBV","display":"none supplied 5","definition":"Values for security trust framework metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23717"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBV","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Values for security trust assurance metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23676"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN","display":"authentication level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, the degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23677"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN1","display":"low authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have little or no confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 1 requires little or no confidence in the asserted identity. No identity proofing is required at this level, but the authentication mechanism should provide some assurance that the same claimant is accessing the protected transaction or data. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed and any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4, including Personal Identification Numbers (PINs), may be used. To be authenticated, the claimant must prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. At Level 1, long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23678"}]},{"code":"LOAAN2","display":"basic authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of basic digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have some confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 2 requires confidence that the asserted identity is accurate. Level 2 provides for single-factor remote network authentication, including identity-proofing requirements for presentation of identifying materials or information. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed, including any of the token methods of Levels 3 or 4, as well as passwords. Successful authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, and online guessing attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23679"}]},{"code":"LOAAN3","display":"medium authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of medium digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of verification and validation of the process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 3 is appropriate for transactions that need high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 3 provides multifactor remote network authentication. At this level, identity-proofing procedures require verification of identifying materials and information. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key or password through a cryptographic protocol. Cryptographic strength mechanisms should protect the primary authentication token (a cryptographic key) against compromise by the protocol threats, including eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks. A minimum of two authentication factors is required. Three kinds of tokens may be used:\r\n\r\n * \"soft\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a general-purpose computer,\r\n * \"hard\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a special hardware device, and\r\n * \"one-time password\" device token, which has symmetric key stored on a personal hardware device that is a cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 1 or higher. Validation testing of cryptographic modules and algorithms for conformance to Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, is managed by NIST.\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the claimant prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. The token must be unlocked with a password or biometric representation, or a password must be used in a secure authentication protocol, to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23680"}]},{"code":"LOAAN4","display":"high authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have very high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 4 is for transactions that need very high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 4 provides the highest practical assurance of remote network authentication. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key through a cryptographic protocol. This level is similar to Level 3 except that only “hardâ€? cryptographic tokens are allowed, cryptographic module validation requirements are strengthened, and subsequent critical data transfers must be authenticated via a key that is bound to the authentication process. The token should be a hardware cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. This level requires a physical token, which cannot readily be copied, and operator authentication at Level 2 and higher, and ensures good, two-factor remote authentication.\r\n\r\nLevel 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Strong approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23681"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAP","display":"authentication process level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23682"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAP1","display":"low authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication process level of assurance indicates that (1) long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers; and (2) assertions and assertion references require protection from manufacture/modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23683"}]},{"code":"LOAAP2","display":"basic authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication process level of assurance indicates that long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any other party except Credential Service Provider (CSP). Sessions (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by CSP. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any other party except Verifiers operated by the Credential Service Provider (CSP); however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 1 requirements, assertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23684"}]},{"code":"LOAAP3","display":"medium authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication process level of assurance indicates that the token can be unlocked with password, biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Credential Service Provider (CSP).\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the Claimant prove, through a secure authentication protocol, that he or she controls the token. The Claimant unlocks the token with a password or biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication (through proof of possession of a physical or software token in combination with some memorized secret knowledge). Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 2 requirements, assertions are protected against repudiation by the Verifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23685"}]},{"code":"LOAAP4","display":"high authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication process level of assurance indicates all sensitive data transfer are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. Level 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all communicating parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the Claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that he or she controls the token. All protocol threats at Level 3 are required to be prevented at Level 4. Protocols shall also be strongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23686"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAS","display":"assertion level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23687"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAS1","display":"low assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions and assertion references require protection from modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23688"}]},{"code":"LOAAS2","display":"basic assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required for all assertion protocols. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23689"}]},{"code":"LOAAS3","display":"medium assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are protected against repudiation by the verifier. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23690"}]},{"code":"LOAAS4","display":"high assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nStrongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. \"Bearer\" assertions are not used. \"Holder-of-key\" assertions may be used. RP maintains records of the assertions. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23691"}]}]},{"code":"LOACM","display":"token and credential management level of assurance value)","definition":"Indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23712"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOACM1","display":"low token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Little or no confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include weak identity binding to tokens and plaintext passwords or secrets not transmitted across a network. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23713"}]},{"code":"LOACM2","display":"basic token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Some confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verification must prove claimant controls the token; token resists online guessing, replay, session hijacking, and eavesdropping attacks; and token is at least weakly resistant to man-in-the middle attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23714"}]},{"code":"LOACM3","display":"medium token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. High confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Ownership of token verifiable through security authentication protocol and credential management protects against verifier impersonation attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23715"}]},{"code":"LOACM4","display":"high token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. Very high confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verifier can prove control of token through a secure protocol; credential management supports strong cryptographic authentication of all communication parties. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23716"}]}]},{"code":"LOAID","display":"identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23692"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAID1","display":"low identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Requires identity proofing via presentation of identifying material or information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23694"}]},{"code":"LOAID3","display":"medium identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. Requires identity proofing procedures for verification of identifying materials and information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23695"}]},{"code":"LOAID4","display":"high identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Permits the use of any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23708"}]},{"code":"LOATK2","display":"basic token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires single factor authentication using memorized secret tokens, pre-registered knowledge tokens, look-up secret tokens, out of band tokens, or single factor one-time password devices. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23709"}]},{"code":"LOATK3","display":"medium token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires two authentication factors. Provides multi-factor remote network authentication. Permits multi-factor software cryptographic token. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23710"}]},{"code":"LOATK4","display":"high token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires token that is a hardware cryptographic module validated at validated at Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. Level 4 token requirements can be met by using the PIV authentication key of a FIPS 201 compliant Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Card. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23711"}]}]}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBV","display":"none supplied 6","definition":"Values for security trust mechanism metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23718"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SeverityObservation","display":"SeverityObservation","definition":"Potential values for observations of severity.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21100"}],"concept":[{"code":"H","display":"High","definition":"Indicates the condition may be life-threatening or has the potential to cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16644"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Low","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in some adverse consequences but is unlikely to substantially affect the situation of the subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16646"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Moderate","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in noticable adverse adverse consequences but is unlikely to be life-threatening or cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16645"}]}]},{"code":"_SubjectBodyPosition","display":"_SubjectBodyPosition","definition":"Contains codes for defining the observed, physical position of a subject, such as during an observation, assessment, collection of a specimen, etc. ECG waveforms and vital signs, such as blood pressure, are two examples where a general, observed position typically needs to be noted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22917"}],"concept":[{"code":"LLD","display":"left lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the left side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22918"}]},{"code":"PRN","display":"prone","definition":"Lying with the front or ventral surface downward; lying face down.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22919"}]},{"code":"RLD","display":"right lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the right side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22920"}]},{"code":"SFWL","display":"Semi-Fowler's","definition":"A semi-sitting position in bed with the head of the bed elevated approximately 45 degrees.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22921"}]},{"code":"SIT","display":"sitting","definition":"Resting the body on the buttocks, typically with upper torso erect or semi erect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22922"}]},{"code":"STN","display":"standing","definition":"To be stationary, upright, vertical, on one's legs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22923"}]},{"code":"SUP","display":"supine","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22924"}],"concept":[{"code":"RTRD","display":"reverse trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees with head raised and feet lowered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22925"}]},{"code":"TRD","display":"trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees, with head lowered and feet raised.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22926"}]}]}]},{"code":"_VerificationOutcomeValue","display":"verification outcome","definition":"Values for observations of verification act results\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Verified, not verified, verified with warning.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21906"}],"concept":[{"code":"ACT","display":"active coverage","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22213"}]},{"code":"ACTPEND","display":"active - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22214"}]},{"code":"ELG","display":"eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22211"}]},{"code":"INACT","display":"inactive","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22215"}]},{"code":"INPNDINV","display":"inactive - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22217"}]},{"code":"INPNDUPD","display":"inactive - pending eligibility update","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Eligibility Update.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22216"}]},{"code":"NELG","display":"not eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). May optionally include reasons for the ineligibility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22212"}]}]},{"code":"_WorkSchedule","display":"_WorkSchedule","definition":"Concepts that describe an individual's typical arrangement of working hours for an occupation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23907"}],"concept":[{"code":"DS","display":"daytime shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during daytime hours (for example between 6am and 6pm) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23908"}]},{"code":"EMS","display":"early morning shift","definition":"Consistent Early morning schedule of 13 hours or less per shift (between 2 am and 2 pm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23911"}]},{"code":"ES","display":"evening shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during evening hours (for example between 2pm and midnight) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23909"}]},{"code":"NS","display":"night shift","definition":"Scheduled for work during nighttime hours (for example between 9pm and 8am) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23910"}]},{"code":"RSWN","display":"rotating shift with nights","definition":"Scheduled for work times that change periodically between days, and/or evenings, and includes some night shifts.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23912"}]},{"code":"RSWON","display":"rotating shift without nights","definition":"Scheduled for work days/times that change periodically between days, but does not include night or evening work.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23913"}]},{"code":"SS","display":"split shift","definition":"Shift consisting of two distinct work periods each day that are separated by a break of a few hours (for example 2 to 4 hours)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23914"}]},{"code":"VLS","display":"very long shift","definition":"Shifts of 17 or more hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23915"}]},{"code":"VS","display":"variable shift","definition":"Irregular, unpredictable hours scheduled on a short notice (for example, less than 2 day notice): inconsistent schedule, on-call, as needed, as available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23916"}]}]},{"code":"_AnnotationValue","display":"AnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21095"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ECGAnnotationValue","display":"ECGAnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21097"}]}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationValue","display":"common clinical observation","definition":"**Description:**Used in a patient care message to value simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21945"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-DI (diagnostic imaging) coded observation if no value is also required to convey the full meaning of the observation. This may be a single concept code or a complex expression.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22262"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-diagnostic imaging coded result of the coded observable or \"question\" represented by the paired concept from the the NonLabDICodedObservationType domain.\r\n\r\n\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:**An APGAR result, a functional assessment, etc. The value must not require a specific unit of measure.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22263"}]}]},{"code":"_CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","display":"CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","definition":"**Definition:** The category of addiction used for coverage purposes that may refer to a substance, the consumption of which may result in physical or emotional harm.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22242"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportValueDomains","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Value Domains","definition":"This domain is established as a parent to a variety of value domains being defined to support the communication of Individual Case Safety Reports to regulatory bodies. Arguably, this aggregation is not taxonomically pure, but the grouping will facilitate the management of these domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21397"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CaseSeriousnessCriteria","display":"CaseSeriousnessCriteria","definition":"A code that provides information on the overall effect or outcome of the adverse reaction/adverse event reported in the ICSR. Note the criterion applies to the case as a whole and not to an individual reaction.\r\n\r\nExample concepts are: death, disability, hospitalization, congenital anomaly/ birth defect, and other medically important condition.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21398"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","definition":"A code set that includes codes that are used to characterize the outcome of the device evaluation process. The code defines the manufacturer's conclusions following the evaluation.\r\n\r\nExamples include: inadequate alarms, device maintenance contributed to event, device failed just prior to use, user error caused event","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21405"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","definition":"Code assigned to indicate a relevant fact within the context of the evaluation of a reported product. There are a number of concept types including the status of the evaluation, the type of evaluation findings, and the type of activity carried out as part of the evaluation process.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Actual device involved in incident was evaluated, electrical tests performed, visual examination.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21406"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","definition":"Code assigned to indicate an outcome of the manufacturer's investigation of a product for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include:.component/subassembly failure: air cleaner, computer-, imaging system-, microprocessor-controlled device problem: cache memory, design -- not fail safe.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21404"}]},{"code":"_PertinentReactionRelatedness","display":"Pertinent Reaction Relatedness","definition":"A code to capture the reporter's assessment of the extent to which the reaction is related to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: related, not related, possibly related and unlikely related.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21401"}]},{"code":"_ProductCharacterization","display":"Product Characterization","definition":"A code that characterizes the role that the primary reporter felt that the suspect intervention -- either a substance administration or a device related procedure - played in the incident being reported. This code will capture the primary reporter's assessment of the role that the suspect product played in the incident reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Suspect, Concomitant, Interacting, Re-challenge.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21400"}]},{"code":"_ReactionActionTaken","display":"ReactionActionTaken","definition":"Code used to indicate the action taken by practitioner in response to the problem (whether drug or device related) that is reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: failing device replaced, medication stopped, medication dose adjusted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21407"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReaction","display":"Subject Reaction","definition":"A code to capture the kind of reaction that was suffered by the investigated subject, and that is being reported in the ICSR. At this point, SNOMED or MedDRA have been suggested as code systems to be used for providing this information.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include hives, swelling, rash, anaphylactic shock.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21399"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionEmphasis","display":"SubjectReactionEmphasis","definition":"Code that captures the emphasis that the reporter placed on this reaction.\r\n\r\nExamples include: highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Not highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS, Not highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21403"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionOutcome","display":"SubjectReactionOutcome","definition":"Code that captures the type of outcome from an individual outcome of a reaction to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Recovered/resolved. Recovering/resolving, Not recovered/not resolved, Recovered/resolved with sequelae, Fatal.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21402"}]}]},{"code":"_InjuryObservationValue","display":"InjuryObservationValue","definition":"Values for observations of injuries.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21098"}]},{"code":"_IntoleranceValue","display":"IntoleranceValue","definition":"Codes identifying pariticular groupings of allergens and other agents which cause allergies and intolerances. E.g. the drug, allergen group, food or environmental agent which triggers the intolerance","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21495"}]},{"code":"_IssueTriggerObservationValue","display":"IssueTriggerObservationValue","definition":"The combined domain for different types of coded observation issue triggers, such as diagnoses, allergies, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21528"}]},{"code":"_OtherIndicationValue","display":"OtherIndicationValue","definition":"Indicates an observed reason for a medical action other than an indication or symptom. E.g. Need for a contrast agent prior to a diagnostic image, need for anesthesia prior to surgery, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21544"}]},{"code":"_IndicationValue","display":"IndicationValue","definition":"Indicates the specific observation result which is the reason for the action (prescription, lab test, etc.). E.g. Headache, Ear infection, planned diagnostic image (requiring contrast agent), etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21542"}],"concept":[{"code":"_DiagnosisValue","display":"DiagnosisValue","definition":"Diagnosis Value","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21096"}]},{"code":"_SymptomValue","display":"SymptomValue","definition":"Indicates an observed abnormality in the patientaTMs condition, but does not assert causation. E.g. Runny nose, swelling, flaky skin, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21543"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20471"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityControlObservationValue","title":"SecurityControlObservationValue","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Security observation values used to indicate security control metadata. V:SecurityControl is the union of V:SecurityPolicy, V:ObligationPolicy, V:RefrainPolicy, V:PurposeOfUse, and V:GeneralPurpose of Use, V:PrivacyMark, V:SecurityLabelMark, and V:ControlledUnclassifiedInformation used to populate the SecurityControlObservationValue attribute in order to convey one or more nonhierarchical security control metadata dictating handling caveats including, purpose of use, obligation policy, refrain policy, dissemination controls and privacy marks to which a custodian or receiver is required to comply.","immutable":true,"copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-GeneralPurposeOfUse"]},{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ObservationValue"}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20444"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityPolicy","title":"SecurityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Types of security policies that further specify the ActClassPolicy value set.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"SecurityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-ObligationPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20445"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"ObligationPolicy","title":"ObligationPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"ObligationPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-RefrainPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20446"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"RefrainPolicy","title":"RefrainPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"RefrainPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-PurposeOfUse","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20448"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"PurposeOfUse","title":"PurposeOfUse","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Supports communication of purpose of use at a general level.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"PurposeOfUse"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActReason","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.8"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"ActReason","title":"ActReason","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A set of codes specifying the motivation, cause, or rationale of an Act, when such rationale is not reasonably represented as an ActRelationship of type \"has reason\" linking to another Act.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Example reasons that might qualify for being coded in this field might be: \"routine requirement\", \"infectious disease reporting requirement\", \"on patient request\", \"required by law\".","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"Designation of a concept's state. 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May be used to convey reasons pertaining to coverage contractual provisions, including criteria for eligibility, coverage limitations, coverage maximums, or financial participation required of covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22164"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationManagementReason","display":"ActInformationManagementReason","definition":"**Description:**The rationale or purpose for an act relating to information management, such as archiving information for the purpose of complying with an enterprise data retention policy.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22675"}]},{"code":"_ActInvalidReason","display":"ActInvalidReason","definition":"**Description:** Types of reasons why a substance is invalid for use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23235"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason","display":"ActInvoiceCancelReason","definition":"Domain specifies the codes used to describe reasons why a Provider is cancelling an Invoice or Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20941"}]},{"code":"_ActNoImmunizationReason","display":"ActNoImmunizationReason","definition":"A coded description of the reason for why a patient did not receive a scheduled immunization.\r\n\r\n(important for public health strategy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21529"}]},{"code":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","display":"ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","definition":"Indicates why a fulfiller refused to fulfill a supply order, and considered it important to notify other providers of their decision. E.g. \"Suspect fraud\", \"Possible abuse\", \"Contraindicated\".\r\n\r\n(used when capturing 'refusal to fill' annotations)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21530"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason","display":"ClinicalResearchEventReason","definition":"**Definition:**Specifies the reason that an event occurred in a clinical research study.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22391"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason","display":"ClinicalResearchObservationReason","definition":"**Definition:**SSpecifies the reason that a test was performed or observation collected in a clinical research study.\r\n\r\n**Note:**This set of codes are not strictly reasons, but are used in the currently Normative standard. Future revisions of the specification will model these as ActRelationships and thes codes may subsequently be retired. Thus, these codes should not be used for new specifications.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22392"}]},{"code":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","display":"CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Indicates why the prescription should be suspended.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22393"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ControlActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22809"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","display":"ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","definition":"**Description:** Reasons to refuse a transaction to be undone.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23277"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReason","display":"ControlActReason","definition":"Identifies why a specific query, request, or other trigger event occurred.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21491"}]},{"code":"_GenericUpdateReasonCode","display":"GenericUpdateReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies why a change is being made to a record.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22395"}]},{"code":"_PatientProfileQueryReasonCode","display":"patient profile query reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts identifying why the patient's profile is being queried.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21715"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the request to transfer a prescription from one dispensing facility to another has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22863"}]},{"code":"_RefusalReasonCode","display":"RefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Description:** Identifies why a request to add (or activate) a record is being refused. Examples include the receiving system not able to match the identifier and find that record in the receiving system, having no permission, or a detected issue exists which precludes the requested action.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22906"}]},{"code":"_SchedulingActReason","display":"SchedulingActReason","definition":"Reasons for cancelling or rescheduling an Appointment","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20942"}]},{"code":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"Indicates why the act revision (status update) is being refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23014"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the requested authorization to prescribe or dispense a medication has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22856"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","definition":"Reasons why substitution of a substance administration request is not permitted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21531"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20943"}]},{"code":"_TransferActReason","display":"TransferActReason","definition":"The explanation for why a patient is moved from one location to another within the organization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20944"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationReason","display":"ActAdjudicationReason","definition":"Explanatory codes that describe reasons why an Adjudicator has financially adjusted an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nA companion domain (ActAdjudicationInformationCode) includes information reasons which do not have a financial impact on an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication reason code is AA-CLAIM-0011 - Only Basic Procedure/Test Eligible.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain further rationalizes ActAdjudicationCodes (e.g. AA - Adjudicated with Adjustment), which are used to describe the process of adjudicating an invoice. For AS - Adjudicated as Submitted, there should be no specification of ActAdjudicationReason codes, as there are no financial adjustments against the invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20938"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceReason","display":"ActBillableServiceReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document reasons for providing a billable service; the billable services may include both clinical services and social services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22209"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","display":"ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Represents the reason for the level of coverage provided under the policy or program in terms of the types of entities that may play covered parties based on their personal relationships or employment status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22081"}]},{"code":"_ActImmunizationReason","display":"ActImmunizationReason","definition":"**Description:**A coded description of the reason for why a patient was administered an immunization.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Post Exposure - Reason, Universal Immunization Program, Outbreak Control, Universal School Program","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22077"}]},{"code":"_ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Entered in error\", \"altered decision\", etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22394"}]},{"code":"_NonPerformanceReasonCode","display":"NonPerformanceReasonCode","definition":"The reason the action wasn't performed, e.g. why the medication was not taken. If an action wasn\"t performed, it is often clinically important to know why the action wasn\"t taken.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Patient refused, clinically inappropriate, absolute contraindication etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21569"}]},{"code":"_ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","display":"ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","definition":"Code assigned to indicate the rationale for not performing an evaluation investigation on a device for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include: device received in a condition that made analysis impossible, device evaluation anticipated but not yet begun, device not made by company.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21408"}]},{"code":"_ReferralReasonCode","display":"ReferralReasonCode","definition":"The reason a referral was made.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Specialized Medical Assistance, Other Care Requirements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21568"}]},{"code":"BONUS","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17436"}]},{"code":"CHD","display":"Children only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22082"}]},{"code":"DEP","display":"Dependents only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscriber's dependents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22083"}]},{"code":"ECH","display":"Employee and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her children.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22084"}]},{"code":"EDU","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17438"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"Employee only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to an employee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22085"}]},{"code":"ESP","display":"Employee and spouse","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her spouse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22086"}]},{"code":"FAM","display":"Family","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's family.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22087"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"Individual","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an individual.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22088"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19726"}]},{"code":"PROA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17435"}]},{"code":"RECOV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17437"}]},{"code":"RETRO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17434"}]},{"code":"SPC","display":"Spouse and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's spouse and children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22089"}]},{"code":"SPO","display":"Spouse only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscribers spouse","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22090"}]},{"code":"TRAN","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19727"}]},{"code":"ACCREQNA","display":"Accommodation Requested Not Available","definition":"Accommodation requested is not available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"FLRCNV","display":"Floor Convenience","definition":"Accommodation is assigned for floor convenience.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDNEC","display":"Medical Necessity","definition":"Required for medical reasons(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17428"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"PAT","display":"Patient request","definition":"The Patient requested the action","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SchedulingActReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason"}]},{"code":"_MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","display":"MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document why the procedure is a duplicate of one ordered/charged previously for the same patient within the same date of service and has been determined to be medically necessary.\r\n\r\n**Example:** A doctor needs a different view in a chest X-Ray.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","display":"ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","definition":"Reason for Clinical Service being performed.\r\n\r\nThis domain excludes reasons specified by diagnosed conditions.\r\n\r\nExamples of values from this domain include duplicate therapy and fraudulent prescription.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20939"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceReason"}]},{"code":"OVRER","display":"emergency treatment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented by authorized entities for treating a condition which poses an immediate threat to the patient's health and which requires immediate medical intervention.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22194"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRINCOMP","display":"incompetency override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented because deemed incompetent to provide consent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Maps to v2 CON-16 Subject Competence Indicator (ID) 01791 Definition: Identifies whether the subject was deemed competent to provide consent. Refer to table HL7 Table 0136 - Yes/No Indicator and CON-23 Non-Subject Consenter Reason User-defined Table 0502 - Non-Subject Consenter Reason code NC \"Subject is not competent to consent\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPJ","display":"professional judgment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient declined to consent for providing health care.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22197"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPS","display":"public safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for public safety reasons.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22195"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRTPS","display":"third party safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22196"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"_EligibilityActReasonCode","display":"EligibilityActReasonCode","definition":"Identifies the reason or rational for why a person is eligibile for benefits under an insurance policy or progam.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* A person is a claimant under an automobile insurance policy are client deceased & adopted client has been given a new policy identifier. A new employee is eligible for health insurance as an employment benefit. A person meets a government program eligibility criteria for financial, age or health status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21493"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageProviderReason","display":"ActCoverageProviderReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on characteristics of the provider, e.g., contractual relationship to payor, such as in or out-of-network; relationship of the covered party to the provider.\r\n\r\n**Example:**In closed managed care plan, a covered party is assigned a primary care provider who provides primary care services and authorizes referrals and ancillary and non-primary care services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22168"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageServiceReason","display":"ActCoverageServiceReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on clinical efficacy criteria or practices prescribed by the payor.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22169"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageExclusionReason","display":"CoverageExclusionReason","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on coverage exclusions related to the risk of adverse selection by covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22165"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","display":"CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on financial participation responsibilities of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22166"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageLimitationReason","display":"CoverageLimitationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for limitations on the coverage of a service or product based on coverage contract provisions.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The maximum cost per unit; or the maximum number of units per period, which is typically the policy or program effective time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22167"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","display":"ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented as deemed necessary by authorized entities for providing care in the best interest of the patient; providing immediately needed health care for an emergent condition; or for protecting public or third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. Typically, this involves overriding the subject's consent directives.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. 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This could include incorrect costing for items included in the Invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19735"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPOLICY","display":"incorrect policy","definition":"The policy specified with the Invoice is not correct. For example, it may belong to another Adjudicator or Covered Party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19734"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPROV","display":"incorrect provider","definition":"The provider specified with the Invoice is not correct.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"IMMUNE","display":"immunity","definition":"**Definition:**Testing has shown that the patient already has immunity to the agent targeted by the immunization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21745"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDPREC","display":"medical precaution","definition":"**Definition:**The patient currently has a medical condition for which the vaccine is contraindicated or for which precaution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21747"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"OSTOCK","display":"product out of stock","definition":"**Definition:**There was no supply of the product on hand to perform the service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21744"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PATOBJ","display":"patient objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21740"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PHILISOP","display":"philosophical objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of philosophical beliefs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21742"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"RELIG","display":"religious objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine on religious grounds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21741"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACEFF","display":"vaccine efficacy concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The intended vaccine has expired or is otherwise believed to no longer be effective.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Due to temperature exposure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21746"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACSAF","display":"vaccine safety concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of concerns over its safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21743"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"FRR01","display":"order stopped","definition":"**Definition:**The order has been stopped by the prescriber but this fact has not necessarily captured electronically.\r\n\r\n**Example:**A verbal stop, a fax, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR02","display":"stale-dated order","definition":"**Definition:**Order has not been fulfilled within a reasonable amount of time, and may not be current.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR03","display":"incomplete data","definition":"**Definition:**Data needed to safely act on the order which was expected to become available independent of the order is not yet available\r\n\r\n**Example:**Lab results, diagnostic imaging, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR04","display":"product unavailable","definition":"**Definition:**Product not available or manufactured. Cannot supply.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR05","display":"ethical/religious","definition":"**Definition:**The dispenser has ethical, religious or moral objections to fulfilling the order/dispensing the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR06","display":"unable to provide care","definition":"**Definition:**Fulfiller not able to provide appropriate care associated with fulfilling the order.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Therapy requires ongoing monitoring by fulfiller and fulfiller will be ending practice, leaving town, unable to schedule necessary time, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"RET","display":"retest","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred so that a test or observation performed at a prior event could be performed again due to conditions set forth in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"scheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred due to it being scheduled in the research protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"TRM","display":"termination","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred in order to terminate the subject's participation in the study.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21624"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"UNS","display":"unscheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event that occurred was initiated by a study participant (e.g. the subject or the investigator), and did not occur for protocol reasons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21625"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"NPT","display":"non-protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test was neither defined or scheduled in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"PPT","display":"per protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test occurred due to it being defined in the research protocol, and during an activity or event that was scheduled in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"UPT","display":"per definition","definition":"**:**The observation or test occurred as defined in the research protocol, but at a point in time not specified in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"ALTCHOICE","display":"try another treatment first","definition":"**Description:**This therapy has been ordered as a backup to a preferred therapy. This order will be released when and if the preferred therapy is unsuccessful.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21691"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"CLARIF","display":"prescription requires clarification","definition":"**Description:**Clarification is required before the order can be acted upon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGHIGH","display":"drug level too high","definition":"**Description:**The current level of the medication in the patient's system is too high. The medication is suspended to allow the level to subside to a safer level.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21694"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPADM","display":"admission to hospital","definition":"**Description:**The patient has been admitted to a care facility and their community medications are suspended until hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21684"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"LABINT","display":"lab interference issues","definition":"**Description:**The therapy would interfere with a planned lab test and the therapy is being withdrawn until the test is completed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NON-AVAIL","display":"patient not-available","definition":"**Description:**Patient not available for a period of time due to a scheduled therapy, leave of absence or other reason.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21695"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"parent is pregnant/breast feeding","definition":"**Description:**The patient is pregnant or breast feeding. The therapy will be resumed when the pregnancy is complete and the patient is no longer breastfeeding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SALG","display":"allergy","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to be allergic to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21685"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDDI","display":"drug interacts with another drug","definition":"**Description:**The drug interacts with a short-term treatment that is more urgently required. This order will be resumed when the short-term treatment is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDUPTHER","display":"duplicate therapy","definition":"**Description:**Another short-term co-occurring therapy fulfills the same purpose as this therapy. This therapy will be resumed when the co-occuring therapy is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SINTOL","display":"suspected intolerance","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to have an intolerance to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21686"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SURG","display":"patient scheduled for surgery","definition":"**Description:**The drug is contraindicated for patients receiving surgery and the patient is scheduled to be admitted for surgery in the near future. The drug will be resumed when the patient has sufficiently recovered from the surgery.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21696"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"WASHOUT","display":"waiting for old drug to wash out","definition":"**Description:**The patient was previously receiving a medication contraindicated with the current medication. The current medication will remain on hold until the prior medication has been cleansed from their system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"ALTD","display":"altered decision","definition":"**Description:**The decision on which the recorded information was based was changed before the decision had an effect.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Aborted prescription before patient left office, released prescription before suspend took effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"EIE","display":"entered in error","definition":"**Description:**The information was recorded incorrectly or was recorded in the wrong record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NORECMTCH","display":"no record match","definition":"**Description:** There is no match for the record in the database.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOMATCH"}]},{"code":"INRQSTATE","display":"in requested state","definition":"The record is already in the requested state.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NOMATCH","display":"no 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medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestRenewalRefusalReasonCode","display":"pharmacy supply request renewal refusal reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies why a renewal prescription has been refused.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21727"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_SupplyOrderAbortReasonCode","display":"supply order abort reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that indicates why the prescription should no longer be allowed to be dispensed (but can still administer what is already being dispensed).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReasonConditionNullify","display":"ControlActReasonConditionNullify","definition":"Indicates why the ConditionaTMs status was changed to Nullified. *Examples* administrative error, diagnostic error.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21492"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"age eligibility","definition":"A person becomes eligible for a program based on age.\r\n\r\n*Example:* In the U.S., a person who is 65 years of age or older is eligible for Medicare.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim","definition":"A person becomes eligible for insurance or a program because of crime related health condition or injury.\r\n\r\n*Example:* A person is a claimant under the U.S. Crime Victims Compensation program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability","definition":"A person becomes a claimant under a disability income insurance policy or a disability rehabilitation program because of a health condition or injury which limits the person's ability to earn an income or function without 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a program because of a qualifying health condition or injury.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* A person is determined to have a qualifying health conditions include pregnancy, HIV/AIDs, tuberculosis, end stage renal disease, breast or cervical cancer, or other condition requiring specialized health services, hospice, institutional or community based care provided under a program","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21562"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"MULTI","display":"multiple criteria eligibility","definition":"A person becomes eligible for a program based on more than one criterion.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* In the U.S., a child whose familiy income meets Medicaid financial thresholds and whose age is less than 18 is eligible for the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic, and Treatment program (EPSDT). 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A new employee is eligible for health insurance as an employment benefit. A person meets a government program eligibility criteria for financial, age or health status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EligibilityActReasonCode"}]},{"code":"CHGDATA","display":"information change","definition":"**Description:**Information has changed since the record was created.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21673"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_GenericUpdateReasonCode"}]},{"code":"FIXDATA","display":"error correction","definition":"**Description:**Previously recorded information was erroneous and is being corrected.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21674"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_GenericUpdateReasonCode"}]},{"code":"MDATA","display":"merge data","definition":"Information is combined into the 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it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23263"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationOrderAbortReasonCode"}]},{"code":"UNABLE","display":"unable to use","definition":"**Description:**!-- Narrative removed -->"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-GeneralPurposeOfUse","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20449"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"GeneralPurposeOfUse","title":"GeneralPurposeOfUse","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Supports communication of purpose of use at a general level.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","concept":[{"code":"COVERAGE"},{"code":"ETREAT"},{"code":"HMARKT"},{"code":"HOPERAT"},{"code":"HPAYMT"},{"code":"HRESCH"},{"code":"PATRQT"},{"code":"PUBHLTH"},{"code":"TREAT"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-ActUSPrivacyLaw","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ActUSPrivacyLaw","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20427"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"ActUSPrivacyLaw","title":"ActUSPrivacyLaw","status":"retired","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"***Deprecation Comment:*** Content moved to ActCode, and is now represented in value set ActPrivacyLaw.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActUSPrivacyLaw","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActUSPrivacyLaw","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActUSPrivacyLaw","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.1138"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"ActUSPrivacyLaw","title":"ActUSPrivacyLaw","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2019-03-20","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A jurisdictional mandate in the US relating to privacy.\r\n\r\n***Deprecation Comment:*** Content moved to ActCode under \\_ActPrivacyLaw; use that instead.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"A property that indicates the status of the concept. One of active, experimental, deprecated, or retired.","type":"code"},{"code":"deprecationDate","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#deprecationDate","description":"The date at which a concept was deprecated. 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VA may disclose this information for specific purposes to: VA employees on a need to know basis - more restrictive than Privacy Act need to know; contractors who need the information in order to perform or fulfill the duties of the contract; and researchers who provide assurances that the information will not be identified in any report. This information may also be disclosed without consent where patient lacks decision-making capacity; in a medical emergency for the purpose of treating a condition which poses an immediate threat to the health of any individual and which requires immediate medical intervention; for eye, tissue, or organ donation purposes; and disclosure of HIV information for public health purposes.\r\n\r\n*Definition:* Title 38 Part 1 - §1.462 Confidentiality restrictions.\r\n\r\n(a) General. 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diff --git a/captured/tmp-hot.ndjson b/captured/tmp-hot.ndjson new file mode 100644 index 0000000..b0a6d33 --- /dev/null +++ b/captured/tmp-hot.ndjson @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +{"id":"22be7337-2a5c-4004-aeec-4f7b39b8b1a4","ts":"2026-02-07T11:06:25.549Z","method":"POST","url":"/r4/ValueSet/$expand?_limit=1000&_incomplete=true","fhirVersion":"r4","resource":"ValueSet","operation":"$expand","queryKeys":["_incomplete","_limit"],"bodyParamNames":["x-system-cache-id","includeDefinition","excludeNested","incomplete-ok","valueSet","_limit","_incomplete"],"match":false,"prodStatus":422,"devStatus":400,"signature":"POST ValueSet $expand q:_incomplete,_limit 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May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law (e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment but only under limited circumstances).\r\n\r\nConfidentiality code total order hierarchy: Very Restricted (V) is the highest protection level and subsumes all other protection levels s (i.e., *R, N, M, L, and UI*).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\nIncludes information about a victim of abuse, patient requested information sensitivity, and taboo subjects relating to health status that must be discussed with the patient by an attending provider before sharing with the patient. May also include information held under a legal hold or attorney-client privilege.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14799"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByAccessKind","display":"ConfidentialityByAccessKind","definition":"**Description:** By accessing subject / role and relationship based rights (These concepts are mutually exclusive, one and only one is required for a valid confidentiality coding.)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21049"}],"concept":[{"code":"B","display":"business","definition":"**Description:** Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality. However, no patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:* Replced by ActCode.B","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10235"}]},{"code":"D","display":"clinician","definition":"**Description:** Only clinicians may see this item, billing and administration persons can not access this item without special permission.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10231"}]},{"code":"I","display":"individual","definition":"**Description:** Access only to individual persons who are mentioned explicitly as actors of this service and whose actor type warrants that access (cf. to actor type code).\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10233"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityByInfoType","display":"ConfidentialityByInfoType","definition":"**Description:** By information type, only for service catalog entries (multiples allowed). Not to be used with actual patient data!\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21050"}],"concept":[{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse related","definition":"**Description:** Alcohol/drug-abuse related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.ETH","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10243"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV related","definition":"**Description:** HIV and AIDS related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.HIV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10241"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry relate","definition":"**Description:** Psychiatry related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.PSY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10242"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual and domestic violence related","definition":"**Description:** Sexual assault / domestic violence related item\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.SDV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10244"}]}]},{"code":"_ConfidentialityModifiers","display":"ConfidentialityModifiers","definition":"**Description:** Modifiers of role based access rights (multiple allowed)\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21051"}],"concept":[{"code":"C","display":"celebrity","definition":"**Description:** Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) including employees, whose information require special protection.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Replced by ActCode.CEL","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10239"}]},{"code":"S","display":"sensitive","definition":"**Description:** \r\n\r\nInformation for which the patient seeks heightened confidentiality. Sensitive information is not to be shared with family members. Information reported by the patient about family members is sensitive by default. Flag can be set or cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Comment:*Deprecated due to updated confidentiality codes under ActCode","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10237"}]},{"code":"T","display":"taboo","definition":"**Description:** Information not to be disclosed or discussed with patient except through physician assigned to patient in this case. This is usually a temporary constraint only, example use is a new fatal diagnosis or finding, such as malignancy or HIV.\r\n\r\n*Deprecation Note:*Replced by ActCode.TBOO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10238"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-InformationSensitivityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20428"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","title":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an \"employee\" sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. \"Taboo\" would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly.\r\n\r\nSensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable Sensitivity Act.code may be useful in some scenarious if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActCode","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.4"}],"version":"9.0.0","name":"ActCode","title":"ActCode","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2023-05-30","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A code specifying the particular kind of Act that the Act-instance represents within its class.\r\n\r\n*Constraints:* The kind of Act (e.g. physical examination, serum potassium, inpatient encounter, charge financial transaction, etc.) is specified with a code from one of several, typically external, coding systems. The coding system will depend on the class of Act, such as LOINC for observations, etc.\r\n\r\nConceptually, the Act.code must be a specialization of the Act.classCode. This is why the structure of ActClass domain should be reflected in the superstructure of the ActCode domain and then individual codes or externally referenced vocabularies subordinated under these domains that reflect the ActClass structure.\r\n\r\nAct.classCode and Act.code are not modifiers of each other but the Act.code concept should really imply the Act.classCode concept. For a negative example, it is not appropriate to use an Act.code \"potassium\" together with and Act.classCode for \"laboratory observation\" to somehow mean \"potassium laboratory observation\" and then use the same Act.code for \"potassium\" together with Act.classCode for \"medication\" to mean \"substitution of potassium\". This mutually modifying use of Act.code and Act.classCode is not permitted.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"extension":[{"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/StructureDefinition/ext-mif-relationship-relationshipKind","valueCode":"Specializes"}],"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#rim-ClassifiesClassCode","description":"The child code is a classification of the particular class group identified by the 'classCode' in a RIM class as the parent code. Used only in RIM backbone classes to link the code and classCode values.","type":"Coding"},{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"A property that indicates the status of the concept. One of active, experimental, deprecated, or retired.","type":"code"},{"code":"deprecationDate","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#deprecationDate","description":"The date at which a concept was deprecated. Concepts that are deprecated but not inactive can still be used, but their use is discouraged.","type":"dateTime"},{"code":"notSelectable","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#notSelectable","description":"Indicates that the code is abstract - only intended to be used as a selector for other concepts","type":"boolean"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#HL7usageNotes","description":"HL7 Concept Usage Notes","type":"string"},{"code":"synonymCode","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#synonym","description":"An additional concept code that was also attributed to a concept","type":"code"},{"code":"subsumedBy","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#parent","description":"The concept code of a parent concept","type":"code"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ActAccountCode","display":"ActAccountCode","definition":"An account represents a grouping of financial transactions that are tracked and reported together with a single balance. Examples of account codes (types) are Patient billing accounts (collection of charges), Cost centers; Cash.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20849"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20850"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","display":"ActAdjudicationResultActionCode","definition":"Actions to be carried out by the recipient of the Adjudication Result information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20853"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableModifierCode","display":"ActBillableModifierCode","definition":"**Definition:**An identifying modifier code for healthcare interventions or procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21993"}]},{"code":"_ActBillingArrangementCode","display":"ActBillingArrangementCode","definition":"The type of provision(s) made for reimbursing for the deliver of healthcare services and/or goods provided by a Provider, over a specified period.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20857"}]},{"code":"_ActBoundedROICode","display":"ActBoundedROICode","definition":"Type of bounded ROI.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ROIBND"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20858"}]},{"code":"_ActCareProvisionCode","display":"act care provision","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21825"}]},{"code":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","display":"ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode","definition":"**Description:** Coded types of attachments included to support a healthcare claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CATEGORY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23004"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentType","display":"ActConsentType","definition":"**Definition:** The type of consent directive, e.g., to consent or dissent to collect, access, or use in specific ways within an EHRS or for health information exchange; or to disclose health information for purposes such as research.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22199"}]},{"code":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode","display":"ActContainerRegistrationCode","definition":"Constrains the ActCode to the domain of Container Registration","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"CONTREG"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20860"}]},{"code":"_ActControlVariable","display":"ActControlVariable","definition":"An observation form that determines parameters or attributes of an Act. Examples are the settings of a ventilator machine as parameters of a ventilator treatment act; the controls on dillution factors of a chemical analyzer as a parameter of a laboratory observation act; the settings of a physiologic measurement assembly (e.g., time skew) or the position of the body while measuring blood pressure.\r\n\r\nControl variables are forms of observations because just as with clinical observations, the Observation.code determines the parameter and the Observation.value assigns the value. While control variables sometimes can be observed (by noting the control settings or an actually measured feedback loop) they are not primary observations, in the sense that a control variable without a primary act is of no use (e.g., it makes no sense to record a blood pressure position without recording a blood pressure, whereas it does make sense to record a systolic blood pressure without a diastolic blood pressure).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20861"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageConfirmationCode","definition":"Response to an insurance coverage eligibility query or authorization request.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20863"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLimitCode","display":"ActCoverageLimitCode","definition":"Criteria that are applicable to the authorized coverage.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20865"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageTypeCode","display":"ActCoverageTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy or program that pays for the cost of benefits provided to covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22096"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20867"}]},{"code":"_ActExposureCode","display":"ActExposureCode","definition":"Concepts that identify the type or nature of exposure interaction. Examples include \"household\", \"care giver\", \"intimate partner\", \"common space\", \"common substance\", etc. to further describe the nature of interaction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"EXPOS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22353"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode","display":"ActFinancialTransactionCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20872"}]},{"code":"_ActIncidentCode","display":"ActIncidentCode","definition":"Set of codes indicating the type of incident or accident.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20873"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessCode","display":"ActInformationAccessCode","definition":"**Description:** The type of health information to which the subject of the information or the subject's delegate consents or dissents.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22244"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode","display":"ActInformationAccessContextCode","definition":"Concepts conveying the context in which authorization given under jurisdictional law, by organizational policy, or by a patient consent directive permits the collection, access, use or disclosure of specified patient health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22332"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationCategoryCode","display":"ActInformationCategoryCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates the set of information types which may be manipulated or referenced, such as for recommending access restrictions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"DOC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22386"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20888"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode","definition":"Identifies the different types of summary information that can be reported by queries dealing with Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The summary information is generally used to help resolve balance discrepancies between providers and payors.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20889"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode","display":"ActInvoiceOverrideCode","definition":"Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20892"}]},{"code":"_ActListCode","display":"ActListCode","definition":"Provides codes associated with ActClass value of LIST (working list)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20895"}]},{"code":"_ActMonitoringProtocolCode","display":"ActMonitoringProtocolCode","definition":"Identifies types of monitoring programs","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"MPROT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20897"}]},{"code":"_ActNonObservationIndicationCode","display":"ActNonObservationIndicationCode","definition":"**Description:**Concepts representing indications (reasons for clinical action) other than diagnosis and symptoms.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22387"}]},{"code":"_ActObservationVerificationType","display":"act observation verification","definition":"Identifies the type of verification investigation being undertaken with respect to the subject of the verification activity.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n1. Verification of eligibility for coverage under a policy or program - aka enrolled/covered by a policy or program\r\n2. Verification of record - e.g., person has record in an immunization registry\r\n3. Verification of enumeration - e.g. NPI\r\n4. Verification of Board Certification - provider specific\r\n5. Verification of Certification - e.g. JAHCO, NCQA, URAC\r\n6. Verification of Conformance - e.g. entity use with HIPAA, conformant to the CCHIT EHR system criteria\r\n7. Verification of Provider Credentials\r\n8. Verification of no adverse findings - e.g. on National Provider Data Bank, Health Integrity Protection Data Base (HIPDB)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"VERIF"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21907"}]},{"code":"_ActPaymentCode","display":"ActPaymentCode","definition":"Code identifying the method or the movement of payment instructions.\r\n\r\nCodes are drawn from X12 data element 591 (PaymentMethodCode)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"XACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20900"}]},{"code":"_ActPharmacySupplyType","display":"ActPharmacySupplyType","definition":"Identifies types of dispensing events","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20901"}]},{"code":"_ActPolicyType","display":"ActPolicyType","definition":"A mandate, regulation, obligation, principle, requirement, rule, or expectation of how an entity is to conduct itself or execute an activity, which may be dictated and enforced by an authority of competent jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"POLICY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22182"}]},{"code":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode","display":"ActProductAcquisitionCode","definition":"The method that a product is obtained for use by the subject of the supply act (e.g. patient). Product examples are consumable or durable goods.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPLY"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20903"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode","display":"ActSpecimenTransportCode","definition":"Transportation of a specimen.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22388"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","display":"ActSpecimenTreatmentCode","definition":"Set of codes related to specimen treatments","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCTRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20905"}]},{"code":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","display":"ActSubstanceAdministrationCode","definition":"**Description:** Describes the type of substance administration being performed. This should not be used to carry codes for identification of products. Use an associated role or entity to carry such information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SBADM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21517"}]},{"code":"_ActTaskCode","display":"ActTaskCode","definition":"**Description:** A task or action that a user may perform in a clinical information system (e.g., medication order entry, laboratory test results review, problem list entry).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22047"}]},{"code":"_ActTransportationModeCode","display":"ActTransportationModeCode","definition":"Characterizes how a transportation act was or will be carried out.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via private transport, via public transit, via courier.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21545"}]},{"code":"_ObservationType","display":"ObservationType","definition":"Identifies the kinds of observations that can be performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20930"}]},{"code":"_ROIOverlayShape","display":"ROIOverlayShape","definition":"Shape of the region on the object being referenced","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20931"}]},{"code":"C","display":"corrected","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that result data has been corrected.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22831"}]},{"code":"DIET","display":"Diet","definition":"Code set to define specialized/allowed diets","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10376"}]},{"code":"DRUGPRG","display":"drug program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for prescription drugs to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22132"}]},{"code":"F","display":"final","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is complete. No further results are to come. This maps to the 'complete' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22830"}]},{"code":"PRLMN","display":"preliminary","definition":"**Description:**Indicates that a result is incomplete. There are further results to come. This maps to the 'active' state in the observation result status code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22829"}]},{"code":"SECOBS","display":"SecurityObservationType","definition":"An observation identifying security metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security metadata are used to name security labels.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* According to ISO/TS 22600-3:2009(E) A.9.1.7 SECURITY LABEL MATCHING, Security label matching compares the initiator's clearance to the target's security label. All of the following must be true for authorization to be granted:\r\n\r\n * The security policy identifiers shall be identical\r\n * The classification level of the initiator shall be greater than or equal to that of the target (that is, there shall be at least one value in the classification list of the clearance greater than or equal to the classification of the target), and\r\n * For each security category in the target label, there shall be a security category of the same type in the initiator's clearance and the initiator's classification level shall dominate that of the target.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** SecurityObservationType security label fields include:\r\n\r\n * Confidentiality classification\r\n * Compartment category\r\n * Sensitivity category\r\n * Security mechanisms used to ensure data integrity or to perform authorized data transformation\r\n * Indicators of an IT resource completeness, veracity, reliability, trustworthiness, or provenance.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* SecurityObservationType codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23471"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDFFS","display":"subsidized fee for service program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage on a fee for service basis for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized fee for service program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22138"}]},{"code":"WRKCOMP","display":"(workers compensation program","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22146"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationInformationCode","display":"ActAdjudicationInformationCode","definition":"Explanatory codes that provide information derived by an Adjudicator during the course of adjudicating an invoice.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain are purely informational and do not materially affect the adjudicated invoice. That is, these codes do not impact or explain financial adjustments to an invoice. A companion domain (ActAdjudicationReasonCode) includes reasons which have a financial impact on an Invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication information code is 54540 - Patient has reached Plan Maximum for current year.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20852"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","display":"ActBillableTreatmentPlanCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20856"}]},{"code":"_ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","display":"ActCognitiveProfessionalServiceCode","definition":"Denotes the specific service that has been performed. This is obtained from the professional service catalog pertaining to the discipline of the health service provider. Professional services are generally cognitive in nature and exclude surgical procedures. E.g. Provided training, Provided drug therapy review, Gave smoking-cessation counseling, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21511"}]},{"code":"_ActIdentityDocumentCode","display":"ActIdentityDocumentCode","definition":"Code identifying the type of identification document (e.g. passport, drivers license)\r\n\r\n**Implementation Note:**The proposal called for a domain, but a code was also provided. When codes are available for the value set the code IDENTDOC (identity document) will be used as the headcode for the specializable value set.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22267"}]},{"code":"_ActOrderCode","display":"ActOrderCode","definition":"The type of order that was fulfilled by the clinical service","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20899"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorization","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorization","definition":"An Act which characterizes a Privilege can have additional observations to provide a finer definition of the requested or conferred privilege. This domain describes the categories under which this additional information is classified.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21535"}]},{"code":"_ActProcedureCode","display":"ActProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying code for healthcare interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20902"}]},{"code":"_ActRegistryCode","display":"ActRegistryCode","definition":"This is the domain of registry types. Examples include Master Patient Registry, Staff Registry, Employee Registry, Tumor Registry.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20904"}]},{"code":"_ActSecurityObjectCode","display":"ActSecurityObjectCode","definition":"**Description:**An access control object used to manage permissions and capabilities of users within information systems. (See HL7 RBAC specification fo examples of thes objects.)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22641"}]},{"code":"_AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","display":"AdvanceBeneficiaryNoticeType","definition":"**Description:**\r\n\r\nRepresents types of consent that patient must sign prior to receipt of service, which is required for billing purposes.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * Advanced beneficiary medically necessity notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary agreement to pay notice.\r\n * Advanced beneficiary requests payer billed.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22095"}]},{"code":"_CPT4","display":"CPT4","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22176"}]},{"code":"_ExternallyDefinedActCodes","display":"ExternallyDefinedActCodes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20919"}]},{"code":"_HL7DefinedActCodes","display":"HL7DefinedActCodes","definition":"Domain provides the root for HL7-defined detailed or rich codes for the Act classes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20921"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportCriteria","definition":"**Description:** Includes those concepts that are provided to justify the fact that an adverse event or product problem is required to be reported in an expedited fashion.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22078"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","display":"IndividualCaseSafetyReportProductCharacteristic","definition":"**Description:** Includes relevant pieces of information about a product or its process of creation. The vocabulary domain is used to characterize products when they are cited in adverse event or product problem reports.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Weight, color, dimensions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22079"}]},{"code":"_ObservationActAgeGroupType","display":"ObservationActAgeGroupType","definition":"**Description:**To allow queries to specify useful information about the age of the patient without disclosing possible protected health information.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22046"}]},{"code":"COPAY","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17501"}]},{"code":"DEDUCT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17500"}]},{"code":"DOSEIND","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17793"}]},{"code":"PRA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16675"}]},{"code":"STORE","display":"Storage","definition":"The act of putting something away for safe keeping. The \"something\" may be physical object such as a specimen, or information, such as observations regarding a specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21456"}]},{"code":"ACCTRECEIVABLE","display":"account receivable","definition":"An account for collecting charges, reversals, adjustments and payments, including deductibles, copayments, coinsurance (financial transactions) credited or debited to the account receivable account for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21361"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CASH","display":"Cash","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"CC","display":"credit card","definition":"**Description:** Types of advance payment to be made on a plastic card usually issued by a financial institution used of purchasing services and/or products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"PBILLACCT","display":"patient billing account","definition":"An account representing charges and credits (financial transactions) for a patient's encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21301"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_CreditCard","display":"CreditCard","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccountCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode","display":"ActAdjudicationGroupCode","definition":"Catagorization of grouping criteria for the associated transactions and/or summary (totals, subtotals).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ADJUD"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20851"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AA","display":"adjudicated with adjustments","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges).\r\n\r\nAlso includes the concept 'Adjudicate as zero' and items not covered under a particular Policy.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AR","display":"adjudicated as refused","definition":"The invoice element has passed through the adjudication process but payment is refused due to one or more reasons.\r\n\r\nIncludes items such as patient not covered, or invoice element is not constructed according to payer rules (e.g. 'invoice submitted too late').\r\n\r\nIf one invoice element line item in the invoice element structure is rejected, the remaining line items may not be adjudicated and the complete group is treated as rejected.\r\n\r\nA refused invoice element can be forwarded to the next payer (for Coordination of Benefits) or modified and resubmitted to refusing payer.\r\n\r\nInvoice element cannot be reversed (nullified) as there is nothing to reverse.\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is not saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"AS","display":"adjudicated as submitted","definition":"The invoice element was/will be paid exactly as submitted, without financial adjustment(s).\r\n\r\nIf the dollar amount stays the same, but the billing codes have been amended or financial adjustments have been applied through the adjudication process, the invoice element is treated as \"Adjudicated with Adjustment\".\r\n\r\nIf information items are included in the adjudication results that do not affect the monetary amounts paid, then this is still Adjudicated as Submitted (e.g. 'reached Plan Maximum on this Claim').\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationCode"}]},{"code":"CONT","display":"contract","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Contract Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17974"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DAY","display":"day","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar day within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17969"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"LOC","display":"location","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by service location (e.g clinic).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17976"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"MONTH","display":"month","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar month within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17970"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PERIOD","display":"period","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17971"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PROV","display":"provider","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by Provider Identifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17975"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"WEEK","display":"week","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar week within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17972"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"YEAR","display":"year","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar year within the date range specified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17973"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"DISPLAY","display":"Display","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be displayed to the receiver of the adjudication result.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"FORM","display":"Print on Form","definition":"The adjudication result associated is to be printed on the specified form, which is then provided to the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdjudicationResultActionCode"}]},{"code":"NAT","display":"Insufficient authorization","definition":"The requesting party has insufficient authorization to invoke the interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"SUPPRESSED","display":"record suppressed","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have been suppressed due to consent or privacy restrictions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23274"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"VALIDAT","display":"validation issue","definition":"**Description:**The specified element did not pass business-rule validation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeAuthorizationDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode","display":"Authorization Issue Management Code","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"KEY204","display":"Unknown key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., was not found. Used for transactions other than additions, e.g. transfer of a non-existent patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY205","display":"Duplicate key identifier","definition":"The ID of the patient, order, etc., already exists. Used in response to addition transactions (Admit, New Order, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"KEY206","display":"non-matching identification","definition":"**Description:** Metadata associated with the identification (e.g. name or gender) does not match the identification being verified.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23272"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSOLETE","display":"obsolete record returned","definition":"**Description:** One or more records in the query response have a status of 'obsolete'.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23275"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAdministrativeRuleDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"CPTM","display":"CPT modifier codes","definition":"**Description:**CPT modifier codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22151"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"HCPCSA","display":"HCPCS Level II and Carrier-assigned","definition":"**Description:**HCPCS Level II (HCFA-assigned) and Carrier-assigned (Level III) modifiers are reported in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition and in the Medicare Bulletin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableModifierCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable medical services, as opposed to codes for similar services to identify them for clinical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22219"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"_ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","display":"ActNonMedicalBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services that are not medical procedures, such as social services or governmental program services.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Building a wheelchair ramp, help with groceries, giving someone a ride, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22220"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceCode"}]},{"code":"BLK","display":"block funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a prescribed group (volume) of services to a single patient which occur over a period of time. Services included in the block may vary.\r\n\r\nThis billing arrangement is also known as Program of Care for some specific Payors and Program Fees for other Payors.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CAP","display":"capitation funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where the payment made to a Provider is determined by analyzing one or more demographic attributes about the persons/patients who are enrolled with the Provider (in their practice).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17484"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"CONTF","display":"contract funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a particular volume of one or more interventions/procedures or groups of interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FINBILL","display":"financial","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges for non-clinical items. This includes interest in arrears, mileage, etc. Clinical content is not included in Invoices submitted with this type of billing arrangement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19723"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"ROST","display":"roster funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where funding is based on a list of individuals registered as patients of the Provider.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"SESS","display":"sessional funding","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a sum to provide a group (volume) of interventions/procedures to one or more patients within a defined period of time, typically on the same date. Interventions/procedures included in the session may vary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17483"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"}]},{"code":"FFS","display":"fee for service","definition":"A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a separate fee for each intervention/procedure/event or product.\r\n\r\nFee for Service is used when an individual intervention/procedure/event is used for billing purposes. In other words, fees are associated with the intervention/procedure/event. For example, a specific CCI (Canadian Classification of Interventions) code has an associated fee and is used for billing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillingArrangementCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"ROIFS","display":"fully specified ROI","definition":"A fully specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) delineates a ROI in which only those dimensions participate that are specified by boundary criteria, whereas all other dimensions are excluded. For example a ROI to mark an episode of \"ST elevation\" in a subset of the EKG leads V2, V3, and V4 would include 4 boundaries, one each for time, V2, V3, and V4.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17897"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"ROIPS","display":"partially specified ROI","definition":"A partially specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) specifies a ROI in which at least all values in the dimensions specified by the boundary criteria participate. For example, if an episode of ventricular fibrillations (VFib) is observed, it usually doesn't make sense to exclude any EKG leads from the observation and the partially specified ROI would contain only one boundary for time indicating the time interval where VFib was observed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBoundedROICode"}]},{"code":"_ActCredentialedCareCode","display":"act credentialed care","definition":"**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by a credentialing agency, i.e. government or non-government agency. Failure in executing this Act may result in loss of credential to the person or organization who participates as performer of the Act. Excludes employment agreements.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Hospital license; physician license; clinic accreditation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"PCPR"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21826"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterCode","display":"ActEncounterCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActEncounterClass (ENC)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ENC"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicalServiceCode","display":"ActMedicalServiceCode","definition":"General category of medical service provided to the patient during their encounter.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCareProvisionCode"}]},{"code":"AUTOATTCH","display":"auto attachment","definition":"**Description:** Automobile Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DOCUMENT","display":"document","definition":"**Description:** Document Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"HEALTHREC","display":"health record","definition":"**Description:** Health Record Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMG","display":"image attachment","definition":"**Description:** Image Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABRESULTS","display":"lab results","definition":"**Description:** Lab Results Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MODEL","display":"model","definition":"**Description:** Digital Model Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"WIATTCH","display":"work injury report attachment","definition":"**Description:** Work Injury related additional Information Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"XRAY","display":"x-ray","definition":"**Description:** Digital X-Ray Attachment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActClaimAttachmentCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDecision","display":"_ActDecision","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies types of consent directives governing the collection, access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsent"}]},{"code":"EMRGONLY","display":"emergency only","definition":"Privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for all purposes except for emergency treatment generally, which may include treatment during a disaster, a threat, in an emergency department and for break the glass purposes of use as specified by applicable domain policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* To specify the scope of an \"EMRGONLY\" consent directive within a policy domain, use one or more of the following Purpose of Use codes in the ActReason code system OID: 2.16.840.1.113883.5.8.\r\n\r\n * ETREAT (Emergency Treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition.\r\n * BTG (break the glass): To perform policy override operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition affecting potential harm, death or patient safety by end users who are not provisioned for this purpose of use. Includes override of organizational provisioning policies and may include override of subject of care consent directive restricting access.\r\n * ERTREAT (emergency room treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition in an emergency room or similar emergent care context by end users provisioned for this purpose, which does not constitute as policy override such as in a \"Break the Glass\" purpose of use.\r\n * THREAT (threat): To perform one or more operations on information used to prevent injury or disease to living subjects who may be the target of violence.\r\n * DISASTER (disaster): To perform one or more operations on information used for provision of immediately needed health care to a population of living subjects located in a disaster zone.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"emergency only\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) 5.13 Exceptional access","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23325"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GRANTORCHOICE","display":"grantor choice","definition":"A grantor's terms of agreement to which a grantee may assent or dissent, and which may include an opportunity for a grantee to request restrictions or extensions.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor typically is able to stipulate preferred terms of agreement when the grantor has control over the topic of the agreement, which a grantee must accept in full or may be offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If the grantor's term of agreement must be accepted in full, then this is considered \"basic consent\". If a grantee is offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms, then the agreement is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A PHR account holder \\[grantor\\] may require any PHR user \\[grantee\\] to accept the terms of agreement in full, or may permit a PHR user to extend or restrict terms selected by the account holder or requested by the PHR user.\r\n * Non-healthcare: The owner of a resource server \\[grantor\\] may require any authorization server \\[grantee\\] to meet authorization requirements stipulated in the grantor's terms of agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIED","display":"implied consent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement is based on the grantor's behavior, which may result from not expressly assenting to the consent directive offered, or from having no right to assent or dissent offered by the grantee.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent occurs when the behavior of the grantor is understood by a reasonable person to signal agreement to the grantee's terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied consent with no opportunity to assent or dissent to certain terms is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient schedules an appointment with a provider, and either does not take the opportunity to expressly assent or dissent to the provider's consent directive, does not have an opportunity to do so, as in the case where emergency care is required, or simply behaves as though the patient \\[grantor\\] agrees to the rights granted to the provider \\[grantee\\] in an implicit consent directive.\r\n * An injured and unconscious patient is deemed to have assented to emergency treatment by those permitted to do so under jurisdictional laws, e.g., Good Samaritan laws.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Upon receiving a driver's license, the driver is deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to undergoing field sobriety tests.\r\n * A corporation that does business in a foreign nation is deemed to have deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to abide by that nation's laws.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23755"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"IMPLIEDD","display":"implied consent with opportunity to dissent","definition":"A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement, which is based on the grantor's behavior, and includes a right to dissent to certain terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor assenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to dissent to grantor selected terms or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Implied or \"implicit\" consent with an \"opportunity to dissent\" occurs when the grantor's behavior is understood by a reasonable person to signal assent to the grantee's terms of agreement whether the grantor requests or the grantee approves further restrictions, is considered \"granular consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Examples: A healthcare provider deems a patient's assent to disclosure of health information to family members and friends, but offers an opportunity or permits the patient to dissent to such disclosures.\r\n * A health information exchanges deems a patient to have assented to disclosure of health information for treatment purposes, but offers the patient an opportunity to dissents to disclosure to particular provider organizations.\r\n * Non-healthcare Examples: A bank deems a banking customer's assent to specified collection, access, use, or disclosure of financial information as a requirement of holding a bank account, but provides the user an opportunity to limit third-party collection, access, use or disclosure of that information for marketing purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23756"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOCONSENT","display":"no consent","definition":"No notification or opportunity is provided for a grantor to assent or dissent to a grantee's terms of agreement.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A \"No Consent\" policy scheme provides no opportunity for accommodation of an individual's preferences, and may not comply with Fair Information Practice Principles \\[FIPP\\] by enabling the data subject to object, access collected information, correct errors, or have accounting of disclosures.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The grantee's terms of agreement, may be available to the grantor by reviewing the grantee's privacy policies, but there is no notice by which a grantor is apprised of the policy directly or able to acknowledge.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is automatically included in and available (often according to certain rules) through a health information exchange. Note that this differs from implied consent, where the patient is assumed to have consented.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is collected, accessed, used, or disclosed for research, public health, security, fraud prevention, court order, or law enforcement.\r\n * Non-healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's healthcare or non-healthcare internet searches are aggregated for secondary uses such as behavioral tracking and profiling.\r\n * Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's location and activities in a shopping mall are tracked by RFID tags on purchased items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23757"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"NOPP","display":"notice of privacy practices","definition":"An implied privacy consent directive or notification, which the data subject may or may not acknowledge. The notification specifies permitted actions, which may include access, use, or disclosure of any and all personal information. The notification specifies the scope of personal information, which may include de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, that may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository. The notification specifies the purposes for which personal information may be used such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, disaster, quality and safety reporting; as required by law including court order, law enforcement, national security, military authorities; and for data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Map: An \"implied\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied\"."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23370"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OPTIN","display":"opt-in","definition":"A grantor's assent to the terms of an agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to dissent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Acceptance of a grantee's terms pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with no opportunity for a grantor to restrict certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] signs a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, and revocation policies.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] signs an employer's \\[grantee's\\] non-disclosure and non-compete agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTINR","display":"opt-in with restrictions","definition":"A grantor's assent to the grantee's terms of an agreement with an opportunity for to dissent to certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A grantor dissenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to assent to grantor's pre-approved restrictions or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-in with restrictions is considered \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to narrow the permissions sought by the grantee.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient assent to grantee's consent directive terms for collection, access, use, or disclosure of health information, and dissents to disclosure to certain recipients as allowed by the provider's pre-approved restriction list.\r\n * Non-Healthcare: A cell phone user assents to the cell phone's privacy practices and terms of use, but dissents from location tracking by turning off the cell phone's tracking capability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23758"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUT","display":"op-out","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the terms of agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to assent to any terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* Rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with no opportunity for a grantor to permit certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered \"basic consent\".\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] declines to sign a provider's \\[grantee's\\] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, revocation policies, and consequences of not assenting.\r\n * Non-healthcare: An employee \\[grantor\\] refuses to sign an employer's \\[grantee's\\] agreement not to join unions or participate in a strike where state law protects employee's collective bargaining rights.\r\n * A citizen \\[grantor\\] refuses to enroll in mandatory government \\[grantee\\] health insurance based on religious beliefs, which is an exemption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"OPTOUTE","display":"opt-out with exceptions","definition":"A grantor's dissent to the grantee's terms of agreement except for certain grantor or grantee selected terms.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* A rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement while assenting to certain permissions sought by the grantee or requesting approval of additional grantor terms.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Opt-out with exceptions is considered a \"granular consent\" because the grantor has an opportunity to accept certain permissions sought by the grantee or request additional grantor terms, while rejecting other grantee terms.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare: A patient \\[grantor\\] dissents to a health information exchange consent directive with the exception of disclosure based on a limited \"time to live\" shared secret \\[e.g., a token or password\\], which the patient can give to a provider when seeking care.\r\n * Non-healthcare: A social media user \\[grantor\\] dissents from public access to their account, but assents to access to a circle of friends.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23759"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentDirective"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDecision"}]},{"code":"ICOL","display":"information collection","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information collected in an electronic health record. This entails that the information may be used in analysis, modified, updated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22203"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IDSCL","display":"information disclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have collected healthcare information disclosed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22204"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"INFA","display":"information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access healthcare information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22200"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"IRDSCL","display":"information redisclosure","definition":"**Definition:** Information re-disclosed without the patient's consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22205"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"RESEARCH","display":"research information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have healthcare information in an electronic health record accessed for research purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22206"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentType"}]},{"code":"ID","display":"Identified","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that it has received a container.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"IP","display":"In Position","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is in position for specimen transfer (e.g., container removal from track, pipetting, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Left Equipment","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container has been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Missing","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container did not arrive at its next expected location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"O","display":"In Process","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the specific container is being processed by the equipment. It is useful as a response to a query about Container Status, when the specific step of the process is not relevant.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"R","display":"Process Completed","definition":"Status is used by one system to inform another that the processing has been completed, but the container has not been released from that system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"X","display":"Container Unavailable","definition":"Used by one system to inform another that the container is no longer available within the scope of the system (e.g., tube broken or discarded).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActContainerRegistrationCode"}]},{"code":"AUTO","display":"auto-repeat permission","definition":"Specifies whether or not automatic repeat testing is to be initiated on specimens.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16860"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"ENDC","display":"endogenous content","definition":"A baseline value for the measured test that is inherently contained in the diluent. In the calculation of the actual result for the measured test, this baseline value is normally considered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16858"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"REFLEX","display":"reflex permission","definition":"Specifies whether or not further testing may be automatically or manually initiated on specimens.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16859"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"_ECGControlVariable","display":"ECGControlVariable","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20916"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActControlVariable"}]},{"code":"AUTH","display":"Authorized","definition":"Authorization approved and funds have been set aside to pay for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) within defined criteria for the authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17492"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"NAUTH","display":"Not Authorized","definition":"Authorization for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) denied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17493"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageAuthorizationConfirmationCode","definition":"Indication of authorization for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). If authorization is approved, funds are set aside.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"COV"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20862"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode","display":"ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode","definition":"Indication of eligibility coverage for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20864"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"ELG","display":"Eligible","definition":"Insurance coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17489"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageEligibilityConfirmationCode"}]},{"code":"NELG","display":"Not Eligible","definition":"Insurance coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). 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An insurance policy contains pertinent facts about the policy holder, the insurance coverage, the covered parties, and the insurer. A policy may include exemptions and provisions specifying the extent to which the indemnification clause cannot be enforced for intentional tortious conduct of a covered party, e.g., whether the covered parties are jointly or severably insured.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* In contrast to programs, an insurance policy has one or more policy holders, who own the policy. The policy holder may be the covered party, a relative of the covered party, a partnership, or a corporation, e.g., an employer. A subscriber of a self-insured health insurance policy is a policy holder. A subscriber of an employer sponsored health insurance policy is holds a certificate of coverage, but is not a policy holder; the policy holder is the employer. 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agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CONC","display":"certified oncology care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21892"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"COPD","display":"certified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CORT","display":"certified organ transplant care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPAD","display":"certified parkinsons disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21895"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPND","display":"certified pneumonia disease care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CPST","display":"certified primary stroke center care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21897"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSDM","display":"certified stroke disease management care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21901"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSIC","display":"certified sickle cell care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21898"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSLD","display":"certified sleep disorders care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21899"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CSPT","display":"certified spine treatment care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21900"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CTBU","display":"certified trauma/burn center care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21902"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CVDC","display":"certified vascular diseases care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21903"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CWMA","display":"certified wound management care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21905"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"CWOH","display":"certified women's health care","definition":"**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21904"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCredentialedCareProvisionProgramCode"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20855"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"1","display":"Therapy Appropriate","definition":"Confirmed drug therapy appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16696"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"14","display":"Supply Appropriate","definition":"Confirmed supply action appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16709"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"8","display":"Other Action Taken","definition":"Order is performed as issued, but other action taken to mitigate potential adverse effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16703"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialDetectedIssueManagementCode","display":"ActFinancialDetectedIssueManagementCode","definition":"Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the financial acts domain.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20871"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActDetectedIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"_HL7AccommodationCode","display":"HL7AccommodationCode","definition":"**Description:**Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22153"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCSAccommodationCode","display":"HCPCSAccommodationCode","definition":"**Description:**External value set for accommodation types used in the U.S. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) including modifiers.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22152"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"AMB","display":"ambulatory","definition":"A comprehensive term for health care provided in a healthcare facility (e.g. a practitioneraTMs office, clinic setting, or hospital) on a nonresident basis. The term ambulatory usually implies that the patient has come to the location and is not assigned to a bed. Sometimes referred to as an outpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16239"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"EMER","display":"emergency","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place at a dedicated healthcare service delivery location where the patient receives immediate evaluation and treatment, provided until the patient can be discharged or responsibility for the patient's care is transferred elsewhere (for example, the patient could be admitted as an inpatient or transferred to another facility.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16240"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"FLD","display":"field","definition":"A patient encounter that takes place both outside a dedicated service delivery location and outside a patient's residence. Example locations might include an accident site and at a supermarket.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16235"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"HH","display":"home health","definition":"Healthcare encounter that takes place in the residence of the patient or a designee","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16237"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"IMP","display":"inpatient encounter","definition":"A patient encounter where a patient is admitted by a hospital or equivalent facility, assigned to a location where patients generally stay at least overnight and provided with room, board, and continuous nursing service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16847"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"OBSENC","display":"observation encounter","definition":"An encounter where the patient usually will start in different encounter, such as one in the emergency department (EMER) but then transition to this type of encounter because they require a significant period of treatment and monitoring to determine whether or not their condition warrants an inpatient admission or discharge. In the majority of cases the decision about admission or discharge will occur within a time period determined by local, regional or national regulation, often between 24 and 48 hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23896"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"PRENC","display":"pre-admission","definition":"A patient encounter where patient is scheduled or planned to receive service delivery in the future, and the patient is given a pre-admission account number. When the patient comes back for subsequent service, the pre-admission encounter is selected and is encapsulated into the service registration, and a new account number is generated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* This is intended to be used in advance of encounter types such as ambulatory, inpatient encounter, virtual, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23573"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"SS","display":"short stay","definition":"An encounter where the patient is admitted to a health care facility for a predetermined length of time, usually less than 24 hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21444"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"VR","display":"virtual","definition":"A patient encounter where the patient and the practitioner(s) are not in the same physical location. Examples include telephone conference, email exchange, robotic surgery, and televideo conference.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16236"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActEncounterCode"}]},{"code":"CHLDCARE","display":"Day care - Child care Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in a child care setting","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22357"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"CONVEYNC","display":"Common Conveyance Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants traveled in/on the same vehicle (not necessarily concurrently, e.g. both are passengers of the same plane, but on different flights of that plane).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22358"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HLTHCARE","display":"Health Care Interaction - Not Patient Care","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery or in a health care delivery setting, but did not involve the direct provision of care (e.g. a janitor cleaning a patient's hospital room).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22355"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOMECARE","display":"Care Giver Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in context of one providing care for the other, i.e. a babysitter providing care for a child, a home-care aide providing assistance to a paraplegic.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22354"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPPTNT","display":"Hospital Patient Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred when both were patients being treated in the same (acute) health care delivery facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22362"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPVSTR","display":"Hospital Visitor Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred when one visited the other who was a patient being treated in a health care delivery facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22363"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"HOUSEHLD","display":"Household Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in context of domestic interaction, i.e. both participants reside in the same household.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22364"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"INMATE","display":"Inmate Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being incarcerated at a correctional facility","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22365"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"INTIMATE","display":"Intimate Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction was intimate, i.e. participants are intimate companions (e.g. spouses, domestic partners).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22366"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"LTRMCARE","display":"Long Term Care Facility Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being resident at a long term care facility (second participant may be a visitor, worker, resident or a physical place or object within the facility).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22367"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"PLACE","display":"Common Space Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants were both present in the same location/place/space.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22361"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"PTNTCARE","display":"Health Care Interaction - Patient Care","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery by a provider (e.g. a physician treating a patient in her office).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22356"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SCHOOL2","display":"School Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure participants' interaction occurred in an academic setting (e.g., participants are fellow students, or student and teacher).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22368"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SOCIAL2","display":"Social/Extended Family Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants are social associates or members of the same extended family","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22369"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"SUBSTNCE","display":"Common Substance Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants shared or co-used a common substance (e.g. drugs, needles, or common food item).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22359"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"TRAVINT","display":"Common Travel Interaction","definition":"**Description:** An interaction where the exposure participants traveled together in/on the same vehicle/trip (e.g. concurrent co-passengers).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22360"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"WORK2","display":"Work Interaction","definition":"**Description:** Exposure interaction occurred in a work setting, i.e. participants are co-workers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22370"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActExposureCode"}]},{"code":"CHRG","display":"Standard Charge","definition":"A type of transaction that represents a charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14805"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"REV","display":"Standard Charge Reversal","definition":"A type of transaction that represents a reversal of a previous charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms. It has the opposite effect of a standard charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14806"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActFinancialTransactionCode"}]},{"code":"GDPRCD","display":"GDPR Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nWhere processing is based on consent, the controller shall be able to demonstrate that the data subject has consented to processing of his or her personal data. If the data subject's consent is given in the context of a written declaration which also concerns other matters, the request for consent shall be presented in a manner which is clearly distinguishable from the other matters, in an intelligible and easily accessible form, using clear and plain language. Any part of such a declaration which constitutes an infringement of this Regulation shall not be binding. The data subject shall have the right to withdraw his or her consent at any time. The withdrawal of consent shall not affect the lawfulness of processing based on consent before its withdrawal. Prior to giving consent, the data subject shall be informed thereof. It shall be as easy to withdraw as to give consent. When assessing whether consent is freely given, utmost account shall be taken of whether, inter alia, the performance of a contract, including the provision of a service, is conditional on consent to the processing of personal data that is not necessary for the performance of that contract. Consent should be given by a clear affirmative act establishing a freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her, such as by a written statement, including by electronic means, or an oral statement. This could include ticking a box when visiting an internet website, choosing technical settings for information society services or another statement or conduct which clearly indicates in this context the data subject's acceptance of the proposed processing of his or her personal data. Silence, pre-ticked boxes or inactivity should not therefore constitute consent. Consent should cover all processing activities carried out for the same purpose or purposes. When the processing has multiple purposes, consent should be given for all of them. If the data subject's consent is to be given following a request by electronic means, the request must be clear, concise and not unnecessarily disruptive to the use of the service for which it is provided.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Article 4.11 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ 11) 'Consent' of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her. Article 7 GDPR Conditions for consent https://gdpr-info.eu/art-7-gdpr Recital 32 Conditions for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-32 Recital 42 Burden of proof and requirements for consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-42/> Recital 43 Freely given consent\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-43 GDPR Consent Brief https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/consent/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions Art. 6 GDPR Lawfulness of processing Art. 7 GDPR Conditions for consent Art. 8 GDPR Conditions applicable to child's consent in relation to information society services Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data Art. 22 GDPR Automated individual decision-making, including profiling Art. 49 GDPR Derogations for specific situations\r\n\r\nRelevant GDPR Recitals: (32) Conditions for consent (33) Consent to certain areas of scientific research (38) Special protection of children's personal data (40) Lawfulness of data processing (42) Burden of proof and requirements for consent (43) Freely given consent (50) Further processing of personal data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data (54) Processing of sensitive data in public health sector (71) Profiling (111) Exceptions for certain cases of international transfers (155) Processing in the employment context (161) Consenting to the participation in clinical trials (171) Repeal of Directive 95/46/EC and transitional provisions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRResearchCD","display":"GDPR Research Consent Directive","definition":"A consent directive that complies with regulatory requirements for a consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.\r\n\r\nGDPR research consent directive has the additional caveat that it is often not possible to fully identify the purpose of personal data processing for scientific research purposes at the time of data collection. Therefore, data subjects should be allowed to give their consent to certain areas of scientific research when in keeping with recognized ethical standards for scientific research. Data subjects should have the opportunity to give their consent only to certain areas of research or parts of research projects to the extent allowed by the intended purpose.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* HL7 Purpose of Use codes include specialize research purposes of use, which could be used to convey a data subject's purpose of use restrictions related to areas of research or parts of research projects. See citations for GDPRResearchCD and below: Recital 33 Consent to certain areas of scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-33/> Recital 157 Information from registries and scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-157 Recital 159 Processing for scientific research purposes\\* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-159/","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"GDPRCONSENT","display":"GDPR Consent","definition":"Processing of personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, is lawful only if the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of his or her personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, for one or more specific purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition to use the data may not be lifted by the data subject; and for personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The description is based on the following GDPR provisions: Article 6.1.a https://gdpr-info.eu/art-6-gdpr/ 1Processing shall be lawful only if and to the extent that at least one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given consent to the processing of his or her personal data for one or more specific purposes. Article 9.1, 9.2a., 9.2.e https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ 1. Processing of personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation shall be prohibited. 2. Paragraph 1 shall not apply if one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of those personal data for one or more specified purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition referred to in paragraph 1 may not be lifted by the data subject; and (e) processing relates to personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"OIC","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting the collection of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to collection of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OIS","display":"opt-in to personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive permitting access, use, or disclosure of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care and \"Opt-in\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOC","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect collection in a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting collection of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to collection consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"OOS","display":"opt-out of personal information or effect sharing via a registry or repository","definition":"An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.\r\n\r\nMap: An \"expressed\" opt-out to sharing consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for \"Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care\" and \"Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActGenericConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"DENTAL","display":"dental care policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that that covers benefits for dental services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DISEASE","display":"disease specific policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for healthcare services provided for named conditions under the policy, e.g., cancer, diabetes, or HIV-AIDS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGPOL","display":"drug policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for prescription drugs, pharmaceuticals, and supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22107"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EHCPOL","display":"extended healthcare","definition":"Private insurance policy that provides coverage in addition to other policies (e.g. in addition to a Public Healthcare insurance policy).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19722"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"HIP","display":"health insurance plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers healthcare benefits by protecting covered parties from medical expenses arising from health conditions, sickness, or accidental injury as well as preventive care. Health insurance policies explicitly exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Health insurance policies are offered by health insurance plans that typically reimburse providers for covered services on a fee-for-service basis, that is, a fee that is the allowable amount that a provider may charge. This is in contrast to managed care plans, which typically prepay providers a per-member/per-month amount or capitation as reimbursement for all covered services rendered. Health insurance plans include indemnity and healthcare services plans.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22108"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HSAPOL","display":"health spending account","definition":"Insurance policy that provides for an allotment of funds replenished on a periodic (e.g. annual) basis. The use of the funds under this policy is at the discretion of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19720"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"}]},{"code":"LTC","display":"long term care policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers benefits for long-term care services people need when they no longer can care for themselves. This may be due to an accident, disability, prolonged illness or the simple process of aging. Long-term care services assist with activities of daily living including:\r\n\r\n * Help at home with day-to-day activities, such as cooking, cleaning, bathing and dressing\r\n * Care in the community, such as in an adult day care facility\r\n * Supervised care provided in an assisted living facility\r\n * Skilled care provided in a nursing home","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22109"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MCPOL","display":"managed care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.\r\n\r\nManaged care policies specifically exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* Managed care policies are offered by managed care plans that contract with selected providers or health care organizations to provide comprehensive health care at a discount to covered parties and coordinate the financing and delivery of health care. Managed care uses medical protocols and procedures agreed on by the medical profession to be cost effective, also known as medical practice guidelines. Providers are typically reimbursed for covered services by a capitated amount on a per member per month basis that may reflect difference in the health status and level of services anticipated to be needed by the member.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22147"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MENTPOL","display":"mental health policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for mental health services and prescriptions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22113"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"POS","display":"point of service policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that has features of both an HMO and a FFS plan. Like an HMO, a POS plan encourages the use its HMO network to maintain discounted fees with participating providers, but recognizes that sometimes covered parties want to choose their own provider. The POS plan allows a covered party to use providers who are not part of the HMO network (non-participating providers). However, there is a greater cost associated with choosing these non-network providers. A covered party will usually pay deductibles and coinsurances that are substantially higher than the payments when he or she uses a plan provider. Use of non-participating providers often requires the covered party to pay the provider directly and then to file a claim for reimbursement, like in an FFS plan.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22111"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPOL","display":"substance use policy","definition":"**Definition:** A health insurance policy that covers benefits for substance use services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22114"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VISPOL","display":"vision care policy","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes for a policy that provides coverage for health care expenses arising from vision services.\r\n\r\nA health insurance policy that covers benefits for vision care services, prescriptions, and products.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22115"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MVA","display":"Motor vehicle accident","definition":"Incident or accident as the result of a motor vehicle accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16509"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SCHOOL","display":"School Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a school place accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17468"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"SPT","display":"Sporting Accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a sporting accident.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17469"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"WPA","display":"Workplace accident","definition":"Incident or accident is the result of a work place accident","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","display":"ActPatientSafetyIncidentCode","definition":"**Definition:** A code specifying the particular kind of Patient Safety Incident that the Incident class instance represents.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Medication incident\", \"slips, trips and falls incident\".The actual value set for the domain will be determined by each (realm) implementation, whose Patient Safety terminology will be specific, although probably linked to the WHO Patient Safety Taxonomy that is currently under development","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActIncidentCode"}]},{"code":"ACADR","display":"adverse drug reaction access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access adverse drug reaction information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALL","display":"all access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access all information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACALLG","display":"allergy access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access allergy information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACCONS","display":"informational consent access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access informational consent information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22869"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDEMO","display":"demographics access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access demographics information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22254"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACDI","display":"diagnostic imaging access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access diagnostic imaging information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22810"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACIMMUN","display":"immunization access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access immunization information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22255"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACLAB","display":"lab test result access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access lab test result information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMED","display":"medication access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEDC","display":"medical condition access","definition":"**Definition:** Provide consent to view or access medical condition information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACMEN","display":"mental health access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access mental health information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22904"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACOBS","display":"common observations access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access common observation information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22253"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPOLPRG","display":"policy or program information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access coverage policy or program for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22252"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPROV","display":"provider information access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access provider information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22251"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACPSERV","display":"professional service access","definition":"**Description:** Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access professional service information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22250"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"ACSUBSTAB","display":"substance abuse access","definition":"**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access substance abuse information for a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22905"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessCode"}]},{"code":"INFAUT","display":"authorized information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or a patient's consent directive, which may be implied, deemed, opt-in, opt-out, or explicit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22643"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFCRT","display":"only on court order","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with judicial system protocol, such as in the case of a subpoena or court order.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFDNG","display":"only if danger to others","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information where deemed necessary to avert potential danger to other persons in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, disclosure about a person threatening violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFEMER","display":"only in an emergency","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with emergency information transfer protocol dictated by jurisdictional law, organization policy, or standards of practice. For example, sharing of health information during disaster response.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFPWR","display":"only if public welfare risk","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information necessary to avert potential public welfare risk in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, reporting that a person is a victim of abuse or demonstrating suicidal tendencies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFREG","display":"regulatory information transfer","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information for public health, welfare, and safety purposes in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, public health reporting of notifiable conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationAccessContextCode"}]},{"code":"INFOACCESS","display":"access information","definition":"Authorization to obtain information with no further permission to collect and store it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24088"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOCOLLECT","display":"collect information","definition":"Authorization to gather and store information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24089"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODEIDENTIFIY","display":"deidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or remove identifying characteristics of an entity or individual that is a subject of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFODISCLOSE","display":"disclose information","definition":"Authorization to make information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOMASK","display":"mask information","definition":"Authorization to alter information in order to conceal it from unauthorized recipients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24092"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREADONLY","display":"read only information","definition":"Authorization to access information within a specific context for communication purposes only. Storing, manipulating, and further disclosure are prohibited and may be technically disabled.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24093"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDACT","display":"redact information","definition":"Authorization to remove information that a recipient is not authorized to access.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24094"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREDISCLOSE","display":"redisclose information","definition":"Authorization to make disclosed information known to another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24095"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOREIDENTIFY","display":"reidentify information","definition":"Authorization to alter or relink deidentified information so that an entity or individual that is the subject of that information identifiable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24096"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"INFOUSE","display":"use information","definition":"Authorization to employ or alter information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24097"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationActionPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLCAT","display":"all categories","definition":"**Description:** All patient information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ALLGCAT","display":"allergy category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's allergy and intolerance records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21614"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"ARCAT","display":"adverse drug reaction category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's adverse drug reactions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22811"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"COBSCAT","display":"common observation category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's common observation records (height, weight, blood pressure, temperature, etc.).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21617"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DEMOCAT","display":"demographics category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's demographics (such as name, date of birth, gender, address, etc).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21618"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"DICAT","display":"diagnostic image category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's diagnostic image records (orders & results).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21613"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUCAT","display":"immunization category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's vaccination records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21619"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"LABCAT","display":"lab test category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's lab test records (orders & results)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21611"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MEDCCAT","display":"medical condition category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medical condition records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21616"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"MENCAT","display":"mental health category","definition":"**Description:** All information pertaining to a patient's mental health records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22871"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"PSVCCAT","display":"professional service category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's professional service records (such as smoking cessation, counseling, medication review, mental health).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21615"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"RXCAT","display":"medication category","definition":"**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medication records (orders, dispenses and other active medications).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21612"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationCategoryCode"}]},{"code":"JurisIP","display":"jurisdictional information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24074"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"OrgIP","display":"organizational information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information, which does not conflict with jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PersIP","display":"personal information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24082"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ETH","display":"substance abuse information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling alcohol or drug-abuse information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to alcohol or drug-abuse information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23338"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"GDIS","display":"genetic disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling genetic disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to genetic disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23339"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"HIV","display":"HIV/AIDS information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling HIV or AIDS information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to HIV or AIDS information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23340"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"MST","display":"military sexual trauma information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to sexual assault or repeated, threatening sexual harassment that occurred while the patient was in the military, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for military sexual trauma is based on the patient being subject to control by a higher ranking military perpetrator and/or censure by others within the military unit. Due to the relatively unfettered access to healthcare information by higher ranking military personnel and those who have command over the patient, there is a need to sequester this information outside of the typical controls on access to military health records.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23888"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PREGNANT","display":"pregnancy information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about an individual's current or past pregnancy status, deemed sensitive by the individual or by policy, which may be afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nInformation about a patient's current or past pregnancy status may be considered sensitive in circumstances in which that status could result in discrimination or stigmatization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SCA","display":"sickle cell anemia information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sickle cell disease information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols are based on organizational policies related to sickle cell disease information, which is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then the Act valued with this ActCode should be associated with an Act valued with any applicable laws from the ActPrivacyLaw code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SDV","display":"sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\nSDV code covers violence perpetrated by related and non-related persons. This code should be specific to physical and mental trauma caused by a related person only. The access control concerns are keeping the patient safe from the perpetrator who may have an abusive psychological control over the patient, may be stalking the patient, or may try to manipulate care givers into allowing the perpetrator to make contact with the patient. The definition needs to be clarified.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23342"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SEX","display":"sexuality and reproductive health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexuality and reproductive health information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexuality and reproductive health information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23343"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SPI","display":"specially protected information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information deemed specially protected by law or policy including substance abuse, substance use, psychiatric, mental health, behavioral health, and cognitive disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23889"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"STD","display":"sexually transmitted disease information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling sexually transmitted disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexually transmitted disease information that is deemed sensitive.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23344"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"TBOO","display":"taboo","definition":"Policy for handling information not to be initially disclosed or discussed with patient except by a physician assigned to patient in this case. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sensitive patient information that must be initially discussed with the patient by an attending physician before being disclosed to the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* This definition conflates a rule and a characteristic, and there may be a similar issue with ts sibling codes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23345"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIO","display":"violence information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to harm by violence, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Harm by violence is perpetrated by an unrelated person.\r\n\r\nAccess control concerns for information about mental or physical harm resulting from violence caused by an unrelated person may include manipulation of care givers or access to records that enable the perpetrator contact or locate the patient, but the perpetrator will likely not have established abusive psychological control over the patient.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"IDS","display":"Identifier Sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an identifier of an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Usage Note: Such policies may govern the sensitivity of information related to an identifier of an act, such as the identifier of a contract; a role, such as a citizen, a patient, a practitioner, or an organization; or an entity such as a medical device due to potential impact on the privacy, well-being, safety or integrity of an information subject. For example, protection against identity fraud or counterfeit.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24800"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SICKLE","display":"sickle cell","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23459"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUTOPOL","display":"automobile","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in an automobile accident. Will also typically covered non-named parties to the policy, such as pedestrians and passengers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PUBLICPOL","display":"public healthcare","definition":"Insurance policy funded by a public health system such as a provincial or national health plan. Examples include BC MSP (British Columbia Medical Services Plan) OHIP (Ontario Health Insurance Plan), NHS (National Health Service).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19718"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"WCBPOL","display":"worker's compensation","definition":"Insurance policy for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19719"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsurancePolicyCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","display":"ActHealthInsuranceTypeCode","definition":"**Definition:** Set of codes indicating the type of health insurance policy that covers health services provided to covered parties. A health insurance policy is a written contract for insurance between the insurance company and the policyholder, and contains pertinent facts about the policy owner (the policy holder), the health insurance coverage, the insured subscribers and dependents, and the insurer. Health insurance is typically administered in accordance with a plan, which specifies (1) the type of health services and health conditions that will be covered under what circumstances (e.g., exclusion of a pre-existing condition, service must be deemed medically necessary; service must not be experimental; service must provided in accordance with a protocol; drug must be on a formulary; service must be prior authorized; or be a referral from a primary care provider); (2) the type and affiliation of providers (e.g., only allopathic physicians, only in network, only providers employed by an HMO); (3) financial participations required of covered parties (e.g., co-pays, coinsurance, deductibles, out-of-pocket); and (4) the manner in which services will be paid (e.g., under indemnity or fee-for-service health plans, the covered party typically pays out-of-pocket and then file a claim for reimbursement, while health plans that have contractual relationships with providers, i.e., network providers, typically do not allow the providers to bill the covered party for the cost of the service until after filing a claim with the payer and receiving reimbursement).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that provides a regular payment to compensate for income lost due to the covered party's inability to work because of illness or injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EWB","display":"employee welfare benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy under a benefit plan run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits other than pension-related to employees and their families. Typically provides health-related benefits, benefits for disability, disease or unemployment, or day care and scholarship benefits, among others. An employer sponsored health policy includes coverage of health care expenses arising from sickness or accidental injury, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for dental or vision benefits, which are typically provided under a separate policy. Coverage excludes health care expenses covered by accident or disability, workers' compensation, liability or automobile insurance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"FLEXP","display":"flexible benefit plan policy","definition":"**Definition:** An insurance policy that covers qualified benefits under a Flexible Benefit plan such as group medical insurance, long and short term disability income insurance, group term life insurance for employees only up to $50,000 face amount, specified disease coverage such as a cancer policy, dental and/or vision insurance, hospital indemnity insurance, accidental death and dismemberment insurance, a medical expense reimbursement plan and a dependent care reimbursement plan.\r\n\r\n *Discussion:* See UnderwriterRoleTypeCode flexible benefit plan which is defined as a benefit plan that allows employees to choose from several life, health, disability, dental, and other insurance plans according to their individual needs. Also known as cafeteria plans. Authorized under Section 125 of the Revenue Act of 1978.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"LIFE","display":"life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy under which the insurer agrees to pay a sum of money upon the occurrence of the covered partys death. In return, the policyholder agrees to pay a stipulated amount called a premium at regular intervals. Life insurance indemnifies the beneficiary for the loss of the insurable interest that a beneficiary has in the life of a covered party. For persons related by blood, a substantial interest established through love and affection, and for all other persons, a lawful and substantial economic interest in having the life of the insured continue. An insurable interest is required when purchasing life insurance on another person. Specific exclusions are often written into the contract to limit the liability of the insurer; for example claims resulting from suicide or relating to war, riot and civil commotion.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:*A life insurance policy may be used by the covered party as a source of health care coverage in the case of a viatical settlement, which is the sale of a life insurance policy by the policy owner, before the policy matures. Such a sale, at a price discounted from the face amount of the policy but usually in excess of the premiums paid or current cash surrender value, provides the seller an immediate cash settlement. Generally, viatical settlements involve insured individuals with a life expectancy of less than two years. In countries without state-subsidized healthcare and high healthcare costs (e.g. United States), this is a practical way to pay extremely high health insurance premiums that severely ill people face. Some people are also familiar with life settlements, which are similar transactions but involve insureds with longer life expectancies (two to fifteen years).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22148"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"PNC","display":"property and casualty insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A type of insurance that covers damage to or loss of the policyholderaTMs property by providing payments for damages to property damage or the injury or death of living subjects. The terms \"casualty\" and \"liability\" insurance are often used interchangeably. Both cover the policyholder's legal liability for damages caused to other persons and/or their property.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"REI","display":"reinsurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** An agreement between two or more insurance companies by which the risk of loss is proportioned. Thus the risk of loss is spread and a disproportionately large loss under a single policy does not fall on one insurance company. Acceptance by an insurer, called a reinsurer, of all or part of the risk of loss of another insurance company.\r\n\r\n**Discussion:** Reinsurance is a means by which an insurance company can protect itself against the risk of losses with other insurance companies. Individuals and corporations obtain insurance policies to provide protection for various risks (hurricanes, earthquakes, lawsuits, collisions, sickness and death, etc.). Reinsurers, in turn, provide insurance to insurance companies.\r\n\r\nFor example, an HMO may purchase a reinsurance policy to protect itself from losing too much money from one insured's particularly expensive health care costs. An insurance company issuing an automobile liability policy, with a limit of $100,000 per accident may reinsure its liability in excess of $10,000. A fire insurance company which issues a large policy generally reinsures a portion of the risk with one or several other companies. Also called *risk control insurance or stop-loss insurance.*","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SURPL","display":"surplus line insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** \r\n\r\n1. A risk or part of a risk for which there is no normal insurance market available.\r\n2. Insurance written by unauthorized insurance companies. Surplus lines insurance is insurance placed with unauthorized insurance companies through licensed surplus lines agents or brokers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"UMBRL","display":"umbrella liability insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** A form of insurance protection that provides additional liability coverage after the limits of your underlying policy are reached. An umbrella liability policy also protects you (the insured) in many situations not covered by the usual liability policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22122"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInsuranceTypeCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode","definition":"Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20876"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode"}]},{"code":"ALEC","display":"alternate electronic","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a submitted invoice that arrived to the payor from an electronic source that did not provide a conformant set of HL7 messages (e.g. web claim submission).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20077"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"BONUS","display":"bonus","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"CFWD","display":"carry forward adjusment","definition":"An amount still owing to the payor but the payment is 0$ and this cannot be settled until a future payment is made.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EDU","display":"education fees","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for tuition and continuing education.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"EPYMT","display":"early payment fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a shorter payment frequency (i.e. next day versus biweekly payments.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"GARN","display":"garnishee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","display":"submitted invoice","definition":"Payment is based on a payment intent for a previously submitted Invoice, based on formal adjudication results..","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PINV","display":"paper invoice","definition":"Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a paper (original, may have been faxed) invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PPRD","display":"prior period adjustment","definition":"An amount that was owed to the payor as indicated, by a carry forward adjusment, in a previous payment advice","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"PROA","display":"professional association deduction","definition":"Professional association fee that is collected by the payor from the practitioner/provider on behalf of the association","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RECOV","display":"recovery","definition":"Retroactive adjustment such as fee rate adjustment due to contract negotiations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"RETRO","display":"retro adjustment","definition":"Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"TRAN","display":"transaction fee","definition":"Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentGroupCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoicePaymentCode"}]},{"code":"INVTYPE","display":"invoice type","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by invoice type (e.g. RXDINV - Pharmacy Dispense)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYEE","display":"payee","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"PAYOR","display":"payor","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"SENDAPP","display":"sending application","definition":"Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of a messaging application on a single processor. It is a registered identifier known to the receivers.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"UNSPSC","display":"United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification","definition":"**Description:**United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification, managed by Uniform Code Council (UCC): www.unspsc.org","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22179"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode"}]},{"code":"_CPT5","display":"CPT5","definition":"**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22177"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_HCPCS","display":"HCPCS","definition":"**Description:**Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) Codes are procedure identifying codes. HCPCS is Health Care Finance AdministrationaTMs (HFCA) coding scheme to group procedures performed for payment to providers. contains codes for medical equipment, injectable drugs, transportation services, and other services not found in CPT4.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22175"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD10PCS","display":"ICD10PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-10-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22173"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ICD9PCS","display":"ICD9PCS","definition":"**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-9-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-9-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22174"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare products.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode","definition":"An identifying data string for A substance used as a medication or in the preparation of medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode","definition":"The detail item codes to identify charges or changes to the total billing of a claim due to insurance rules and payments.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode","definition":"An identifying data string for medical facility accommodations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20886"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailClinicalServiceCode","definition":"An identifying data string for healthcare procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"An identifying data string for oral health procedure codes, e.g. extract tooth.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20885"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode"}]},{"code":"GTIN","display":"Global Trade Item Number","definition":"**Description:**Global Trade Item Number is an identifier for trade items developed by GS1 (comprising the former EAN International and Uniform Code Council).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22181"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"UPC","display":"Universal Product Code","definition":"**Description:**Universal Product Code is one of a wide variety of bar code languages widely used in the United States and Canada for items in stores.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22180"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailDrugProductCode"}]},{"code":"COIN","display":"coinsurance","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a percentage of the eligible amount for the service/product that is typically charged after the covered party has met the policy deductible. This amount represents the covered party's coinsurance that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21946"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COPAYMENT","display":"patient co-pay","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a defined amount per service/product of the eligible amount for the service/product. This amount represents the covered party's copayment that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"DEDUCTIBLE","display":"deductible","definition":"That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay in a particular period (e.g. annual) before the benefits are payable by the adjudicator. This amount represents the covered party's deductible that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"PAY","display":"payment","definition":"The guarantor, who may be the patient, pays the entire charge for a service. Reasons for such action may include: there is no insurance coverage for the service (e.g. cosmetic surgery); the patient wishes to self-pay for the service; or the insurer denies payment for the service due to contractual provisions such as the need for prior authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21362"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"SPEND","display":"spend down","definition":"That total amount of the eligible charges which a covered party must periodically pay for services and/or products prior to the Medicaid program providing any coverage. This amount represents the covered party's spend down that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21947"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"COINS","display":"co-insurance","definition":"The covered party pays a percentage of the cost of covered services.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericAdjudicatorCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify adjudicator specified components to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge. As for example after hours increase in the office visit fee.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20883"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify provider supplied charges or changes to the total billing of a claim.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20884"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode","definition":"The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge by a tax factor applied to the amount. As for example 7% provincial sales tax.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20887"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericCode"}]},{"code":"AFTHRS","display":"non-normal hours","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing outside of normal working hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"ISOL","display":"isolation allowance","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing in a remote location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"OOO","display":"out of office","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing at a location other than normal working location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericModifierCode"}]},{"code":"CANCAPT","display":"cancelled appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient cancels an appointment with insufficient time for the provider to make another appointment with another patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"DSC","display":"discount","definition":"A reduction in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example a 5% discount for volume purchase.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"ESA","display":"extraordinary service assessment","definition":"A premium on a service fee is requested because, due to extenuating circumstances, the service took an extraordinary amount of time or supplies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FFSTOP","display":"fee for service top off","definition":"Under agreement between the parties (payor and provider), a guaranteed level of income is established for the provider over a specific, pre-determined period of time. The normal course of business for the provider is submission of fee-for-service claims. Should the fee-for-service income during the specified period of time be less than the agreed to amount, a top-up amount is paid to the provider equal to the difference between the fee-for-service total and the guaranteed income amount for that period of time. The details of the agreement may specify (or not) a requirement for repayment to the payor in the event that the fee-for-service income exceeds the guaranteed amount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21311"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FNLFEE","display":"final fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual final fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21314"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"FRSTFEE","display":"first fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual initial fee associated with treating a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21313"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MARKUP","display":"markup or up-charge","definition":"An increase in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example, 12% markup on product cost.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20038"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"MISSAPT","display":"missed appointment","definition":"A charge to compensate the provider when a patient does not show for an appointment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20039"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERFEE","display":"periodic fee","definition":"Anticipated or actual periodic fee associated with treating a patient. For example, expected billing cycle such as monthly, quarterly. The actual period (e.g. monthly, quarterly) is specified in the unit quantity of the Invoice Element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21312"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"PERMBNS","display":"performance bonus","definition":"The amount for a performance bonus that is being requested from a payor for the performance of certain services (childhood immunizations, influenza immunizations, mammograms, pap smears) on a sliding scale. That is, for 90% of childhood immunizations to a maximum of $2200/yr. An invoice is created at the end of the service period (one year) and a code is submitted indicating the percentage achieved and the dollar amount claimed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21310"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"RESTOCK","display":"restocking fee","definition":"A charge is requested because the patient failed to pick up the item and it took an amount of time to return it to stock for future use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"TRAVEL","display":"travel","definition":"A charge to cover the cost of travel time and/or cost in conjuction with providing a service or product. It may be charged per kilometer or per hour based on the effective agreement.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"URGENT","display":"urgent","definition":"Premium paid on service fees in compensation for providing an expedited response to an urgent situation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21315"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailGenericProviderCode"}]},{"code":"_ActEncounterAccommodationCode","display":"ActEncounterAccommodationCode","definition":"Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ACCM"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20868"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailPreferredAccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"FST","display":"federal sales tax","definition":"Federal tax on transactions such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"HST","display":"harmonized sales Tax","definition":"Joint Federal/Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"PST","display":"provincial/state sales tax","definition":"Tax levied by the provincial or state jurisdiction such as Provincial Sales Tax","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceDetailTaxCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","display":"ActInvoiceAdjudicationPaymentCode","definition":"Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee and other cost elements such as bonus, retroactive adjustment and transaction fees.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20875"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceDetailCode","display":"ActInvoiceDetailCode","definition":"Codes representing a service or product that is being invoiced (billed). The code can represent such concepts as \"office visit\", \"drug X\", \"wheelchair\" and other billable items such as taxes, service charges and discounts.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated","display":"InvoiceElementAdjudicated","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts adjudicated for all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated within a time period based on the adjudication date of the Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementPaid","display":"InvoiceElementPaid","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts paid for all Invoice Groupings that were paid within a time period based on the payment date.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted","display":"InvoiceElementSubmitted","definition":"Total counts and total net amounts billed for all Invoice Groupings that were submitted within a time period. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceElementSummaryCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceInterGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nThe domain is only specified for an intermediate invoice element group (non-root or non-top level) for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","display":"ActInvoiceRootGroupCode","definition":"Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.\r\n\r\nInvoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain reflect the type of Invoice such as Pharmacy Dispense, Clinical Service and Clinical Product. The domain is only specified for the root (top level) invoice element group for an Invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"INVE"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDDRGING","display":"compound drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound ingredients being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20033"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDINDING","display":"compound ingredient invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying an ingredient drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20034"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CPNDSUPING","display":"compound supply invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound supplies being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20035"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGING","display":"drug invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20032"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"FRAMEING","display":"frame invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the frame fee and the frame dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"LENSING","display":"lens invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the lens fee and the lens dispensing cost that are being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PRDING","display":"product invoice group","definition":"A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the product (good or supply) being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or discount.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceInterGroupCode"}]},{"code":"COVGE","display":"coverage problem","definition":"Insurance coverage problems have been encountered. Additional explanation information to be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17594"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"EFORM","display":"electronic form to follow","definition":"Electronic form with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"FAX","display":"fax to follow","definition":"Fax with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"GFTH","display":"good faith indicator","definition":"The medical service was provided to a patient in good faith that they had medical coverage, although no evidence of coverage was available before service was rendered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17592"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"LATE","display":"late invoice","definition":"Knowingly over the payor's published time limit for this invoice possibly due to a previous payor's delays in processing. Additional reason information will be supplied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17593"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"MANUAL","display":"manual review","definition":"Manual review of the invoice is requested. Additional information to be supplied. This may be used in the case of an appeal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19713"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"OOJ","display":"out of jurisdiction","definition":"The medical service and/or product was provided to a patient that has coverage in another jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18036"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"ORTHO","display":"orthodontic service","definition":"The service provided is required for orthodontic purposes. If the covered party has orthodontic coverage, then the service may be paid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21317"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PAPER","display":"paper documentation to follow","definition":"Paper documentation (or other physical format) with supporting or additional information to follow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PIE","display":"public insurance exhausted","definition":"Public Insurance has been exhausted. Invoice has not been sent to Public Insuror and therefore no Explanation Of Benefits (EOB) is provided with this Invoice submission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"PYRDELAY","display":"delayed by a previous payor","definition":"Allows provider to explain lateness of invoice to a subsequent payor.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17591"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REFNR","display":"referral not required","definition":"Rules of practice do not require a physician's referral for the provider to perform a billable service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18037"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"REPSERV","display":"repeated service","definition":"The same service was delivered within a time period that would usually indicate a duplicate billing. However, the repeated service is a medical necessity and therefore not a duplicate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"UNRELAT","display":"unrelated service","definition":"The service provided is not related to another billed service. For example, 2 unrelated services provided on the same day to the same patient which may normally result in a refused payment for one of the items.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21316"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"VERBAUTH","display":"verbal authorization","definition":"The provider has received a verbal permission from an authoritative source to perform the service or supply the item being invoiced.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceOverrideCode"}]},{"code":"CPINV","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CP","display":"clinical product invoice","definition":"Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).\r\n\r\nFor example, a crutch or a wheelchair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CPINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19715"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSINV","display":"clinical service invoice","definition":"Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.\r\n\r\n\\[1\\] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.\r\n\r\nFor example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).\r\n\r\n\\[2\\] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.\r\n\r\nFor example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.\r\n\r\n\\[3\\] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.\r\n\r\nFor example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CS"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CS","display":"clinical service invoice","definition":"Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.\r\n\r\n\\[1\\] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.\r\n\r\nFor example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).\r\n\r\n\\[2\\] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.\r\n\r\nFor example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.\r\n\r\n\\[3\\] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.\r\n\r\nFor example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CSINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"CSPINV","display":"clinical service and product","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more services and one or more product. Billing for these service(s) and product(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).\r\n\r\nAll items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.\r\n\r\nFor example , a brace (product) invoiced together with the fitting (service).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20076"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"FININV","display":"financial invoice","definition":"Invoice Grouping without clinical justification. These will not require identification of participants and associations from a clinical context such as patient and provider.\r\n\r\nExamples are interest charges and mileage.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19716"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"OHSINV","display":"oral health service","definition":"A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more oral health services. Billing for these service(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).\r\n\r\nAll items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21309"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PAINV","display":"preferred accommodation invoice","definition":"HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PA"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"PA","display":"preferred accommodation invoice","definition":"HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PAINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXCINV","display":"Rx compound invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXC"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXC","display":"Rx compound invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXCINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXDINV","display":"Rx dispense invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"RXD","display":"Rx dispense invoice","definition":"Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"RXDINV"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"SBFINV","display":"sessional or block fee invoice","definition":"Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Group contains one billable item for multiple clinical services in one or more sessions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19717"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceRootGroupCode"}]},{"code":"VRXINV","display":"vision dispense invoice","definition":"Vision dispense invoice for up to 2 lens (left and right), frame and optional discount. 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Such registries are used for a variety of purposes by federated health information exchanges, health information systems, personal record systems, and research organizations to locate and retrieve personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information stored externally to their systems.\r\n\r\nRepositories governed by registry consent directives are data stores used to collect, access, use, and disclose personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects and metadata used to manage the repository contents. Such repositories are used for a variety of purposes by centralized health information exchanges, health information systems used by providers and payers, personal record systems, and research organizations. A repository typically includes a registry component that provides the data store with content management capabilities for internal purposes. A repository may also interface with one or more external registries, which provide federated content management.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","display":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective","definition":"Specific US privacy consent directives in accordance with US federal, state, regional, organizational, or personal privacy policies.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24099"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_ActGDPRPrivacyLaw","display":"General Data Protection Regulation","definition":"GDPR is a regulation on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (Data Protection Directive). Promulgated by the European Parliament and Council of the European Union. Regulation available at L119, 4 May 2016, p. 1-88.\r\n\r\nGDPR privacy policies specifying types of lawful personal data processing based on a controller meeting one or more processing condition such as specified by law, compliance with data controller legal obligations, protection of data subject's vital interests, perform tasks in the public interest, related to legal claims, research and statistics, management of health or social care systems, legitimate interests of controller or third party. Processing sensitive personal data, including genetic, biometric and health data, as well as personal data from which racial and ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or ideological convictions or membership in a union can be attributed to a person, requires meeting at least one sensitive personal processing condition.\r\n\r\nGDPR 'processing' means any operation or set of operations which is performed on personal data or on sets of personal data, whether or not by automated means, such as collection, recording, organisation, structuring, storage, adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making available, alignment or combination, restriction, erasure or destruction. Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\n * Confidentiality: e.g., U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; L (low) for pseudonymized U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; M (moderate) for indirectly identifiable information such as test scores and work times; N (normal) for personal information; and R (restricted) for sensitive personal information\r\n * DPR sensitivity \\[personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation, some of which are defined at Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/\r\n * GDPR processing policies and GDPR ConsentDirectiveTypes, such as data subject consent and research consent.\r\n * Other security category codes, such as compartment codes for legitimate relationship,\r\n * Handling instructions including\r\n * Purpose of use stipulated in a GDPR consent or contract restricting processing or related to the scope of the processing policy such as public health, research, and legal obligations\r\n * Obligation policies such as GDPR Information Obligations https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/information-obligations, data minimization and deleting when processing is complete\r\n * Refrain policies such as no relinking\r\n\r\nSee Intersoft GDPR at https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/personal-data/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ Relevant Recitals (26) Not applicable to anonymous data (30) Online identifiers for profiling and identification (34) Genetic data (35) Health data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data at Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/\r\n\r\nAuthorities\r\n\r\n * European Data Protection Supervisor - Security Measures for Personal Data Processing (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority Isle of Man - Know your data - Mapping the 5 W's (Link)\r\n * Data Protection Authority UK - Key definitions (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What is personal data? (Link)\r\n * European Commission - What personal data is considered sensitive? (Link)\r\n * EU publications - Handbook on European data protection law - Personal data, page 83 (Link)\r\n\r\nExpert contribution A&L Goodbody - The GDPR: A Guide for Businesses - Definition of Personal & Sensitive Data, Page 8 (Link) Bird & Bird - Sensitive data and lawful processing (Link) https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/justice-and-fundamental-rights/data-protection/2018-reform-eu-data-protection-rules\\_en General Data Protection Regulation https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1528874672298&uri=CELEX%3A32016R0679 Communication on data protection - guidance on direct application of the GDPR http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1517578296944&uri=CELEX%3A52018DC0043 Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","display":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw","definition":"*Definition:* A jurisdictional mandate in the U.S. relating to privacy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActPrivacyLaw codes may be associated with an Act or a Role to indicate the legal provision to which the assignment of an Act.confidentialityCode or Role.confidentialtyCode complies. May be used to further specify rationale for assignment of other ActPrivacyPolicy codes in the US realm, e.g., ETH and 42CFRPart2 can be differentiated from ETH and Title38Part1.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23760"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentDirective","display":"ActConsentDirective","definition":"Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Such agreements may be considered \"consent directives\" or \"contracts\" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.\r\n * Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.\r\n * Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.\r\n * Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an \"award\" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.\r\n * A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.\r\n * Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivacyLaw","display":"ActPrivacyLaw","definition":"A jurisdictional mandate, regulation, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization, which is imposed on:\r\n\r\n * The activity of a governed party\r\n * The behavior of a governed party\r\n * The manner in which an act is executed by a governed party","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23328"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"InformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation characterizing the value or importance of a resource and may include its vulnerability. (Based on ISO7498-2:1989. Note: The vulnerability of personally identifiable sensitive information may be based on concerns that the unauthorized disclosure may result in social stigmatization or discrimination.) Description: Types of Sensitivity policy that apply to Acts or Roles. A sensitivity policy is adopted by an enterprise or group of enterprises (a 'policy domain') through a formal data use agreement that stipulates the value, importance, and vulnerability of information. A sensitivity code representing a sensitivity policy may be associated with criteria such as categories of information or sets of information identifiers (e.g., a value set of clinical codes or branch in a code system hierarchy). These criteria may in turn be used for the Policy Decision Point in a Security Engine. A sensitivity code may be used to set the confidentiality code used on information about Acts and Roles to trigger the security mechanisms required to control how security principals (i.e., a person, a machine, a software application) may act on the information (e.g., collection, access, use, or disclosure). Sensitivity codes are never assigned to the transport or business envelope containing patient specific information being exchanged outside of a policy domain as this would disclose the information intended to be protected by the policy. When sensitive information is exchanged with others outside of a policy domain, the confidentiality code on the transport or business envelope conveys the receiver's responsibilities and indicates the how the information is to be safeguarded without unauthorized disclosure of the sensitive information. This ensures that sensitive information is treated by receivers as the sender intends, accomplishing interoperability without point to point negotiations.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an employee's sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. 'Taboo' would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly. Sensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable InformationSensitivityPolicy Act.code may be useful in some scenarios if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23329"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"COMPT","display":"compartment","definition":"This is the healthcare analog to the US Intelligence Community's concept of a Special Access Program. Compartment codes may be used in as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in security category label field.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 2382-8 definition of Compartment - \"A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActPrivacyPolicy"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceCode","display":"ActBillableServiceCode","definition":"**Definition:** An identifying code for billable services, as opposed to codes for similar services used to identify them for functional purposes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"_ActOralHealthProcedureCode","display":"ActOralHealthProcedureCode","definition":"**Description:**An identifying code for oral health interventions/procedures.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22178"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProcedureCode"}]},{"code":"LOAN","display":"Loan","definition":"Temporary supply of a product without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"TRANSFER","display":"Transfer","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProductAcquisitionCode"}]},{"code":"CHAR","display":"charity program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided directly to a beneficiary who typically has no other source of coverage without charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22123"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that covers the cost of services provided to crime victims for injuries or losses related to the occurrence of a crime.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22124"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"EAP","display":"employee assistance program","definition":"**Definition:** An employee assistance program is run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits and covering all or part of the cost for employees to receive counseling, referrals, and advice in dealing with stressful issues in their lives. These may include substance abuse, bereavement, marital problems, weight issues, or general wellness issues. The services are usually provided by a third-party, rather than the company itself, and the company receives only summary statistical data from the service provider. Employee's names and services received are kept confidential.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22125"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"GOVEMP","display":"government employee health program","definition":"**Definition:** A set of codes used to indicate a government program that is an organized structure for administering and funding coverage of a benefit package for covered parties meeting eligibility criteria, typically related to employment, health and financial status. Government programs are established or permitted by legislation with provisions for ongoing government oversight. Regulation mandates the structure of the program, the manner in which it is funded and administered, covered benefits, provider types, eligibility criteria and financial participation. A government agency is charged with implementing the program in accordance to the regulation\r\n\r\n**Example:** Federal employee health benefit program in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22126"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"HIRISK","display":"high risk pool program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides health coverage to individuals who are considered medically uninsurable or high risk, and who have been denied health insurance due to a serious health condition. In certain cases, it also applies to those who have been quoted very high premiums a\" again, due to a serious health condition. The pool charges premiums for coverage. Because the pool covers high-risk people, it incurs a higher level of claims than premiums can cover. The insurance industry pays into the pool to make up the difference and help it remain viable.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22127"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"indigenous peoples health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated indigenous peoples health programs.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Indian Health Service in the U.S.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22128"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"MILITARY","display":"military health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government program that provides coverage for health services to military personnel, retirees, and dependents. A covered party who is a subscriber can choose from among Fee-for-Service (FFS) plans, and their Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO), or Plans offering a Point of Service (POS) Product, or Health Maintenance Organizations.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., TRICARE, CHAMPUS.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"RETIRE","display":"retiree health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government mandated program with specific eligibility requirements based on premium contributions made during employment, length of employment, age, and employment status, e.g., being retired, disabled, or a dependent of a covered party under this program. Benefits typically include ambulatory, inpatient, and long-term care, such as hospice care, home health care and respite care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SOCIAL","display":"social service program","definition":"**Definition:** A social service program funded by a public or governmental entity.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Programs providing habilitation, food, lodging, medicine, transportation, equipment, devices, products, education, training, counseling, alteration of living or work space, and other resources to persons meeting eligibility criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22144"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"VET","display":"veteran health program","definition":"**Definition:** Services provided directly and through contracted and operated veteran health programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22145"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActProgramTypeCode"}]},{"code":"SREC","display":"specimen received","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been received by the participating organization/department.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21675"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"SSTOR","display":"specimen in storage","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been placed into storage at a participating location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"STRAN","display":"specimen in transit","definition":"**Description:**Specimen has been put in transit to a participating receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTransportCode"}]},{"code":"ACID","display":"Acidification","definition":"The lowering of specimen pH through the addition of an acid","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14044"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ALK","display":"Alkalization","definition":"The act rendering alkaline by impregnating with an alkali; a conferring of alkaline qualities.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"DEFB","display":"Defibrination","definition":"The removal of fibrin from whole blood or plasma through physical or chemical means","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14043"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"FILT","display":"Filtration","definition":"The passage of a liquid through a filter, accomplished by gravity, pressure or vacuum (suction).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"LDLP","display":"LDL Precipitation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"NEUT","display":"Neutralization","definition":"The act or process by which an acid and a base are combined in such proportions that the resulting compound is neutral.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"RECA","display":"Recalcification","definition":"The addition of calcium back to a specimen after it was removed by chelating agents","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14042"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"UFIL","display":"Ultrafiltration","definition":"The filtration of a colloidal substance through a semipermeable medium that allows only the passage of small molecules.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecimenTreatmentCode"}]},{"code":"ARTBLD","display":"ActSpecObsArtBldCode","definition":"Describes the artificial blood identifier that is associated with the specimen.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DILUTION","display":"ActSpecObsDilutionCode","definition":"An observation that reports the dilution of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"EVNFCTS","display":"ActSpecObsEvntfctsCode","definition":"Domain provides codes that qualify the ActLabObsEnvfctsCode domain. (Environmental Factors)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"INTFR","display":"ActSpecObsInterferenceCode","definition":"An observation that relates to factors that may potentially cause interference with the observation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"VOLUME","display":"ActSpecObsVolumeCode","definition":"An observation that reports the volume of a sample.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14369"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSpecObsCode"}]},{"code":"DRUG","display":"Drug therapy","definition":"The introduction of a drug into a subject with the intention of altering its biologic state with the intent of improving its health status.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21518"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"FD","display":"food","definition":"**Description:** The introduction of material into a subject with the intent of providing nutrition or other dietary supplements (e.g. minerals or vitamins).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"IMMUNIZ","display":"Immunization","definition":"The introduction of an immunogen with the intent of stimulating an immune response, aimed at preventing subsequent infections by more viable agents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21519"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSubstanceAdministrationCode"}]},{"code":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","display":"AdministrationDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Administration of the proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated as proposed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode","display":"SupplyDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Supplying the product at this time may be inappropriate or indicate compliance issues with the associated therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HISTORIC","display":"record recorded as historical","definition":"**Description:** While the record was accepted in the repository, there is a more recent version of a record of this type.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23273"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"PATPREF","display":"violates stated preferences","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OE","display":"order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a service to be performed for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATDOC","display":"patient documentation task","definition":"A person enters documentation about a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"PATINFO","display":"patient information review task","definition":"A person (e.g., clinician, the patient herself) reviews patient information in the electronic medical record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTaskCode"}]},{"code":"_ActMedicationTherapyDurationWorkingListCode","display":"act medication therapy duration working list","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies different types of 'duration-based' mediation working lists.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Continuous/Chronic\" \"Short-Term\" and \"As Needed\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"LIST"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21754"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTherapyDurationWorkingListCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientTransportationModeCode","display":"ActPatientTransportationModeCode","definition":"Definition: Characterizes how a patient was or will be transported to the site of a patient encounter.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Via ambulance, via public transit, on foot.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"TRNS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActTransportationModeCode"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2CD","display":"42 CFR Part 2 consent directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's privacy consent directive that complies with 42 CFR Part 2.31 Consent requirements https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-31.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a written consent to a disclosure under the regulations in Part 2.\r\n\r\n(1) The name of the patient. (2) The specific name(s) or general designation(s) of the part 2 program(s), entity(ies), or individual(s) permitted to make the disclosure. (3) How much and what kind of information is to be disclosed, including an explicit description of the substance use disorder information that may be disclosed. (4) (i) The name(s) of the individual(s) to whom a disclosure is to be made; or (ii)Entities with a treating provider relationship with the patient. If the recipient entity has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed, such as a hospital, a health care clinic, or a private practice, the name of that entity; or (iii)Entities without a treating provider relationship with the patient. (A) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is a third-party payer, the name of the entity; or (B) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is not covered by paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, such as an entity that facilitates the exchange of health information or a research institution, the name(s) of the entity(-ies); and (1) The name(s) of an individual participant(s); or (2) The name(s) of an entity participant(s) that has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed; or (3) A general designation of an individual or entity participant(s) or class of participants that must be limited to a participant(s) who has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed. (i) When using a general designation, a statement must be included on the consent form that the patient (or other individual authorized to sign in lieu of the patient), confirms their understanding that, upon their request and consistent with this part, they must be provided a list of entities to which their information has been disclosed pursuant to the general designation (see Section 2.13(d)). (ii) \\[Reserved\\] (5) The purpose of the disclosure. In accordance with Section 2.13(a), the disclosure must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the stated purpose. (6) A statement that the consent is subject to revocation at any time except to the extent that the part 2 program or other lawful holder of patient identifying information that is permitted to make the disclosure has already acted in reliance on it. Acting in reliance includes the provision of treatment services in reliance on a valid consent to disclose information to a third-party payer (7) The date, event, or condition upon which the consent will expire if not revoked before. This date, event, or condition must ensure that the consent will last no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is provided. (8) The signature of the patient and, when required for a patient who is a minor, the signature of an individual authorized to give consent under Section 2.14; or, when required for a patient who is incompetent or deceased, the signature of an individual authorized to sign under Section 2.15. Electronic signatures are permitted to the extent that they are not prohibited by any applicable law. (9) The date on which the consent is signed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive, \"42CFRPart2CD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR § 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"CompoundResearchCD","display":"Compound HIPAA Research Authorization and Informed Consent for Research","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research when combined with a Common Rule or Federal Drug Administration consent to participate in research also known as a compound authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) has developed the Informed Consent and Authorization Toolkit for Minimal Risk Research to facilitate the process of obtaining informed consent and Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) authorization from potential research subjects. This toolkit contains information for people responsible for ensuring that potential research subjects are informed in a manner that is consistent with medical ethics and regulatory guidelines. From https://www.ahrq.gov/sites/default/files/publications/files/ictoolkit.pdf.\r\n\r\nUsed to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"CompoundResearchCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24105"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section.\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\nA HIPAA Authorization must comply with 45 CFR Section164.508(c) Implementation specifications: Core elements and requirements - (1) Core elements. A valid authorization under this Section must contain at least the following elements: (i) A description of the information to be used or disclosed that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful fashion. (ii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, authorized to make the requested use or disclosure. (iii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, to whom the covered entity may make the requested use or disclosure. (iv) A description of each purpose of the requested use or disclosure. The statement \"at the request of the individual\" is a sufficient description of the purpose when an individual initiates the authorization and does not, or elects not to, provide a statement of the purpose. (v) An expiration date or an expiration event that relates to the individual or the purpose of the use or disclosure. The statement \"end of the research study,\" \"none,\" or similar language is sufficient if the authorization is for a use or disclosure of protected health information for research, including for the creation and maintenance of a research database or research repository. (vi) Signature of the individual and date. If the authorization is signed by a personal representative of the individual, a description of such representative's authority to act for the individual must also be provided. (2)Required statements. In addition to the core elements, the authorization must contain statements adequate to place the individual on notice of all of the following: (i) The individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and either: (A) The exceptions to the right to revoke and a description of how the individual may revoke the authorization; or (B) To the extent that the information in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is included in the notice required by Section 164.520, a reference to the covered entity's notice. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsentCD","display":"HIPAA Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's consent directive under 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsentCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAResearchAuthCD","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research Consent Directive","definition":"A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use \"HIPAAResearchAuthCD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).\r\n\r\nSee ActCode.\\_ActPolicyType.\\_ActPrivacyPolicy.\\_ActPrivacyLaw.\\_ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROAD","display":"HIPAA Right of Access Directive","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf, stipulating the policy elements of an individual's written and signed right of access directive requesting that a covered entity send the individual's protected health information (PHI) to a third party.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.524(c)(3)(ii) If an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf\r\n\r\nThis right applies to PHI in a designated record set, which is defined as \"Designated record set means: (1) A group of records maintained by or for a covered entity that is: (i) The medical records and billing records about individuals maintained by or for a covered health care provider; (ii) The enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medical management record systems maintained by or for a health plan; or (iii) Used, in whole or in part, by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals. \\[https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/45/164.501\\]. Also see HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 \\[https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html\\#maximumflatfee\\].\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.524 use \"HIPAAROAD\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health and substance use treatment in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014. In Michigan, while providers are not required to use this new standard form (MDHHS-5515), they are required to accept it.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24106"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"42CFRPart2","display":"42 CFR Part2","definition":"A code representing 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records. 42 CFR Part 2 stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who has applied for or been given diagnosis or treatment for alcohol or drug abuse at a federally assisted program, which includes non-disclosure of health information relating to health care paid for by a federally assisted substance use disorder program without patient consent. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, and disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf use \"42CFRPart2\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 42 CFR Part 2 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23761"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"CommonRule","display":"Common Rule","definition":"A code representing U.S. Federal laws governing research-related privacy policies known as the \"Common Rule\". The Common Rule is the U.S. Federal regulations governing the protection of human subjects in research (codified at Subpart A of 45 CFR part 46), which has been adopted by 15 U.S. Federal departments and agencies in an effort to promote uniformity, understanding, and compliance with human subject protections. Existing regulations governing the protection of human subjects in Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-regulated research (21 CFR parts 50, 56, 312, and 812) are separate from the Common Rule but include similar requirements.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information or biospecimen is governed by the Common Rule use \"COMMONRULE\" as the security label policy code. Information or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23762"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAAuth","display":"HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508) Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual to use or disclose protected health information for other purposes, or to authorize another covered entity to disclose protected health information to the requesting covered entity, are termed \"authorizations\".\r\n\r\nAn \"authorization\" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.\r\n\r\nAn authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where use or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use \"HIPAAAuth\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent\".\r\n\r\nThe Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use 'HIPAAConsent' as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code 'R' (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAANOPP","display":"HIPAA notice of privacy practices","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.520), which stipulates an individual's right to adequate notice of the uses and disclosures of protected health information that may be made by the covered entity, and of the individual's rights and the covered entity's legal duties with respect to protected health information. Relevant HIPAA Privacy Rule provisions are at Section 164.520 (a) Standard: Notice of privacy practices. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-520.pdf\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, if collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices, use \"HIPAANOPP\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation governed under a HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"N\" (normal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23763"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAPsyNotes","display":"HIPAA psychotherapy notes","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508), which stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who is the subject of psychotherapy notes, and requires authorization for certain uses and disclosure of that information.\r\n\r\nDefinition of Psychotherapy notes 45 CFR Section 164.501 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-501.pdf: Psychotherapy notes means notes recorded (in any medium) by a health care provider who is a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversation during a private counseling session or a group, joint, or family counseling session and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record. Psychotherapy notes excludes medication prescription and monitoring, counseling session start and stop times, the modalities and frequencies of treatment furnished, results of clinical tests, and any summary of the following items: Diagnosis, functional status, the treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.\r\n\r\nSee Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required. (2)Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf: Notwithstanding any provision of this subpart, other than the transition provisions in Section 164.532, a covered entity must obtain an authorization for any use or disclosure of psychotherapy notes, except: (i) To carry out the following treatment, payment, or health care operations: (A) Use by the originator of the psychotherapy notes for treatment; (B) Use or disclosure by the covered entity for its own training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in mental health learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills in group, joint, family, or individual counseling; or (C) Use or disclosure by the covered entity to defend itself in a legal action or other proceeding brought by the individual; and (ii) A use or disclosure that is required by Section 164.502(a)(2)(ii) or permitted by Section 164.512(a); Section 164.512(d) with respect to the oversight of the originator of the psychotherapy notes; Section 164.512(g)(1); Section 164.512(j)(1)(i).\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , use \"HIPAAPsyNotes\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23764"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAAROA","display":"HIPAA Right of Access","definition":"A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.govinfo.gov/app/details/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524, which stipulates that an individual has a right of access to inspect and obtain a copy of protected health information about the individual in a designated record set, for as long as the protected health information is maintained in the designated record set with exceptions stipulated in HIPAA Privacy Rule Section 164.524. Exceptions include psychotherapy notes and information compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or for use in, a civil, criminal, or administrative action or proceeding.\r\n\r\nIf an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information.\r\n\r\nFor discussion on extent of right, grounds for denial, and documentation requirements see: HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html and HHS FAQ on Right of Access vs. HIPAA Authorization https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/2041/why-depend-on-the-individuals-right/index.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed under 45 CFR Section 164.5224 use \"HIPAAROA\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nInformation disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the \"norm\", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"M\" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"HIPAASelfPay","display":"HIPAA self-pay","definition":"A code representing 45 CFR 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of an individual to restrict disclosure of information related to health care items or services for which the individual pays out of pocket in full to a health plan or payer.\r\n\r\nSee 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf. (vi) A covered entity must agree to the request of an individual to restrict disclosure of protected health information about the individual to a health plan if: (A) The disclosure is for the purpose of carrying out payment or health care operations and is not otherwise required by law; and (B) The protected health information pertains solely to a health care item or service for which the individual, or person other than the health plan on behalf of the individual, has paid the covered entity in full.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf use \"HIPAASelfPay\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23765"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"Title38Section7332","display":"Title 38 Section 7332","definition":"A code representing Title 38 Section 7332, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of veterans diagnosed and treated for substance use disorders, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia.\r\n\r\nhttps://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html . (1) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any patient or subject which are maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity (including education, training, treatment, rehabilitation, or research) relating to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia which is carried out by or for the Department under this title shall, except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), be confidential, and (section 5701 of this title to the contrary notwithstanding) such records may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized under subsection (b). (2) Paragraph (1) prohibits the disclosure to any person or entity other than the patient or subject concerned of the fact that a special written consent is required in order for such records to be disclosed. (b) (1) The content of any record referred to in subsection (a) may be disclosed by the Secretary in accordance with the prior written consent of the patient or subject with respect to whom such record is maintained, but only to such extent, under such circumstances, and for such purposes as may be allowed in regulations prescribed by the Secretary. (2) Whether or not any patient or subject, with respect to whom any given record referred to in subsection (a) is maintained, gives written consent, the content of such record may be disclosed by the Secretary as follows: (A) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a bona fide medical emergency. (B) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or program evaluation, but such personnel may not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient or subject in any report of such research, audit, or evaluation, or otherwise disclose patient or subject identities in any manner. (C) (i) In the case of any record which is maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, to a Federal, State, or local public-health authority charged under Federal or State law with the protection of the public health, and to which Federal or State law requires disclosure of such record, if a qualified representative of such authority has made a written request that such record be provided as required pursuant to such law for a purpose authorized by such law. (ii) A person to whom a record is disclosed under this paragraph may not redisclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made. (D) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of competent jurisdiction granted after application showing good cause therefor. In assessing good cause the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient or subject, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized disclosure. (E) To an entity described in paragraph (1)(B) of section 5701(k) of this title, but only to the extent authorized by such section. (F) (i) To a representative of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity, when a practitioner deems the content of the given record necessary for that representative to make an informed decision regarding the patient's treatment. (ii) In this subparagraph, the term \"representative\" means an individual, organization, or other body authorized under section 7331 of this title and its implementing regulations to give informed consent on behalf of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity. (G) To a State controlled substance monitoring program, including a program approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 280g-3), to the extent necessary to prevent misuse and diversion of prescription medicines. (H) (i) To a non-Department entity (including private entities and other Federal agencies) for purposes of providing health care, including hospital care, medical services, and extended care services, to Veterans or performing other health care-related activities or functions. (ii) An entity to which a record is disclosed under this subparagraph may not disclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made or as permitted by law. (I) To a third party in order to recover or collect reasonable charges for care furnished to, or paid on behalf of, a Veteran in connection with a non-service connected disability as permitted by section 1729 of this title or for a condition for which recovery is authorized or with respect to which the United States is deemed to be a third party beneficiary under the Act entitled 'An Act to provide for the recovery from tortiously liable third persons of the cost of hospital and medical care and treatment furnished by the United States' (Public Law 87-693; 42 U.S.C. 2651 et seq.; commonly known as the 'Federal Medical Care Recovery Act').\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 38 U.S. Code Section 7332 - Confidentiality of certain medical records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html use \"Title38Section7332\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a Title 38 Section 7332 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23766"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"a) HIPAAConsent","display":"HIPAA Consent","definition":"Code retired in December 2019 and replaced by code HIPAAConsent. Originally entered with copy/paste error in code value.\r\n\r\nA code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a \"consent.\" The Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use \"HIPAAConsent\" as the security label policy code.\r\n\r\nSince information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyLaw"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedAssent","display":"Informed Assent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in research. Assent means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in a clinical investigation. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent. The minor's assent must be accompanied by parental or guardian consent that the minor participate in a specified research. The assent is not legally binding, however, the accompanying consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 21 CFR Part 50, Subpart D - Additional Safeguards for Children in Clinical Investigations. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/21/part-50/subpart-D","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USResearchInformedConsent","display":"Informed Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in a specified research study. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"USBroadResearchConsent","display":"Broad Consent for Research","definition":"An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in unspecified research studies, including storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable biospecimens and data. If broad consent is obtained, any subsequent storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of the individual’s identifiable biospecimens and data consistent with the broad consent would not require additional consent, so long as additional conditions are met, including limited review by an IRB. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"25102"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActUSPrivacyConsentDirective"}]},{"code":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","display":"AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"COMPLY","display":"Compliance Alert","definition":"There may be an issue with the patient complying with the intentions of the proposed therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DACT","display":"drug action detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"DOSE","display":"Dosage problem","definition":"Proposed dosage instructions for therapy differ from standard practice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16680"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"DUPTHPY","display":"Duplicate Therapy Alert","definition":"The proposed therapy appears to duplicate an existing therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"TIME","display":"timing detected issue","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"DrugActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be contraindicated or ineffective based on an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode","display":"TimingDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective based on the proposed start or end time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AdministrationDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"_ActPatientAnnotationType","display":"ActPatientAnnotationType","definition":"**Description:**Provides a categorization for annotations recorded directly against the patient .","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_ECGAnnotationType","display":"ECGAnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AnnotationType"}]},{"code":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode","display":"InteractionDetectedIssueCode","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"OBSA","display":"Observation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to conditions or characteristics of the patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"PREVINEF","display":"previously ineffective","definition":"**Definition:**The same or similar treatment has previously been attempted with the patient without achieving a positive effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22834"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AppropriatenessDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"EMAUTH","display":"emergency authorization override","definition":"Used to temporarily override normal authorization rules to gain access to data in a case of emergency. Use of this override code will typically be monitored, and a procedure to verify its proper use may be triggered when used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_AuthorizationIssueManagementCode"}]},{"code":"AIRTRNS","display":"airborne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through indirect contact via oral or nasal inhalation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21915"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANANTRNS","display":"animal to animal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one animal to another proximate animal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ANHUMTRNS","display":"animal to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an animal to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21910"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BDYFLDTRNS","display":"body fluid contact transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with any body fluid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21911"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"BLDTRNS","display":"blood borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products whether the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure or not.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21912"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"DERMTRNS","display":"transdermal transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject via agent migration through intact skin.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21923"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"ENVTRNS","display":"environmental exposure transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an environmental surface or source to a living subject by direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21914"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FECTRNS","display":"fecal-oral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject through oral contact with material contaminated by person or animal fecal material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21916"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOMTRNS","display":"fomite transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from an non-living material to a living subject through direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"FOODTRNS","display":"food-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a food source to a living subject via oral consumption.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"HUMHUMTRNS","display":"human to human transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a person to a proximate person.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21919"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"INDTRNS","display":"indeterminate disease transmission mode","definition":"Communication of an agent to a living subject via an undetermined route.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"LACTTRNS","display":"lactation transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with mammalian milk or colostrum.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"NOSTRNS","display":"nosocomial transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from any entity to a living subject while the living subject is in the patient role in a healthcare facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21921"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PARTRNS","display":"parenteral transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject or environmental source to a living subject where the acquisition of the agent is not via the alimentary canal.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"PLACTRNS","display":"transplacental transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject to the progeny of that living subject via agent migration across the maternal-fetal placental membranes while in utero.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21926"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"SEXTRNS","display":"sexual transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with genital or oral tissues as part of a sexual act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21925"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"TRNSFTRNS","display":"transfusion transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from one living subject to another living subject through direct contact with blood or blood products where the contact with blood is part of a therapeutic procedure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21924"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"VECTRNS","display":"vector-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a living subject acting as a required intermediary in the agent transmission process to a recipient living subject via direct contact.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"WATTRNS","display":"water-borne transmission","definition":"Communication of an agent from a contaminated water source to a living subject whether the water is ingested as a food or not. The route of entry of the water may be through any bodily orifice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CaseTransmissionMode"}]},{"code":"REPRESENTATIVE_BEAT","display":"ECG representative beat waveforms","definition":"This Observation Series type contains waveforms of a \"representative beat\" (a.k.a. \"median beat\" or \"average beat\"). The waveform samples are measured in relative time, relative to the beginning of the beat as defined by the Observation Series effective time. The waveforms are not directly acquired from the subject, but rather algorithmically derived from the \"rhythm\" waveforms.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19324"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"RHYTHM","display":"ECG rhythm waveforms","definition":"This Observation type contains ECG \"rhythm\" waveforms. The waveform samples are measured in absolute time (a.k.a. \"subject time\" or \"effective time\"). These waveforms are usually \"raw\" with some minimal amount of noise reduction and baseline filtering applied.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19323"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ECGObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"DEMO","display":"all demographic information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling all demographic information about an information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to all demographic about an information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23352"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"DOB","display":"date of birth information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's date of birth, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality.Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's date of birth, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23353"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"GENDER","display":"gender and sexual orientation information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's gender and sexual orientation, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23354"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"LIVARG","display":"living arrangement information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's living arrangement, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's living arrangement, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23355"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"MARST","display":"marital status information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's marital status, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's marital status, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23356"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"PATLOC","display":"patient location","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an individual's location, which is deemed sensitive when the disclosure could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject, and requires additional protection.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional, organizational, or individual mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw or ActConsentDirective code from the ActCode system to and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"RACE","display":"race information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's race, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's race, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23357"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"REL","display":"religion information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an information subject's religious affiliation, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an information subject's religion, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23358"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType"}]},{"code":"FDACOATING","display":"coating","definition":"FDA label coating","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19260"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDACOLOR","display":"color","definition":"FDA label color","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19259"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDAIMPRINTCD","display":"imprint code","definition":"FDA label imprint code","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19256"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDALOGO","display":"logo","definition":"FDA label logo","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19262"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"FDA label scoring","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19261"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"FDA label shape","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19258"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"FDASIZE","display":"size","definition":"FDA label size","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19257"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_FDALabelData"}]},{"code":"GENE","display":"gene","definition":"**Description:** A DNA segment that contributes to phenotype/function. In the absence of demonstrated function a gene may be characterized by sequence, transcription or homology","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22651"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_GeneticObservationType"}]},{"code":"I","display":"Isolation","definition":"Accommodations used in the care of diseases that are transmitted through casual contact or respiratory transmission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"P","display":"Private","definition":"Accommodations in which there is only 1 bed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"S","display":"Suite","definition":"Uniquely designed and elegantly decorated accommodations with many amenities available for an additional charge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"SP","display":"Semi-private","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 2 beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"W","display":"Ward","definition":"Accommodations in which there are 3 or more beds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7AccommodationCode"}]},{"code":"_ActDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20866"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_HL7TriggerEventCode","display":"HL7TriggerEventCode","definition":"The trigger event referenced by the Control Act instance. Values are drawn from the available trigger events used in the release of HL7 identified by the versionCode.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20922"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationActCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationActCode","definition":"The specific chemical or radiological substance administered or to be administered into the body for therapeutic effect.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_HL7DefinedActCodes"}]},{"code":"OBSANTC","display":"antigen count","definition":"**Description:** Indicates the valid antigen count.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"OBSANTV","display":"antigen validity","definition":"**Description:** Indicates whether an antigen is valid or invalid.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23242"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ImmunizationObservationType"}]},{"code":"PAT_ADV_EVNT","display":"patient adverse event","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing problems that a patient experienced after receiving a vaccine product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23104"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"VAC_PROBLEM","display":"vaccine product problem","definition":"Indicates that the ICSR is describing a problem with the actual vaccine product such as physical defects (cloudy, particulate matter) or inability to confer immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23103"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"ActInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood.\"\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23337"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_EntitySensitivityPolicyType","display":"EntityInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that may apply to a sensitive attribute on an Entity.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* EntitySensitivity codes are used to convey a policy that is applicable to sensitive information conveyed by an entity attribute. May be used to bind a Role.confidentialityCode associated with an Entity per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23351"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","display":"RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy","definition":"Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Roles.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\"","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"RoleSensitivity codes are used to bind information to a Role.confidentialityCode per organizational policy. Role.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as \"an indication of the appropriate disclosure of information about this Role with respect to the playing Entity.\""},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23346"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ADOL","display":"adolescent information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an adolescent, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality per applicable organizational or jurisdictional policy. An enterprise may have a policy that requires that adolescent patient information be provided heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which an adolescent is the information subject. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23330"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"CEL","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"VIP"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"VIP","display":"celebrity information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a celebrity (people of public interest (VIP), which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Celebrities are people of public interest (VIP) about whose information an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive may include health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise in which the information subject is deemed a celebrity or very important person. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"CEL"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23331"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DIA","display":"diagnosis information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a diagnosis, health condition or health problem, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to diagnostic, health condition or health problem related information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23332"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRGIS","display":"drug information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a drug, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Drug information may be deemed sensitive by organizational policy, and require heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to drug information deemed sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23333"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"employee information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Policy for handling information related to an employee, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: When a patient is an employee, an enterprise may have a policy that requires heightened confidentiality. Information deemed sensitive typically includes health information and patient role information including patient status, demographics, next of kin, and location.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PDS","display":"patient default information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which is deemed sensitive within the enterprise (i.e., by default regardless of whether the patient requested that the information be deemed sensitive for another reason.) For example information reported by the patient about another person, e.g., a family member, may be deemed sensitive by default. Organizational policy may allow the sensitivity tag to be cleared on patient's request.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nFor example, VA deems employee information sensitive by default. Information about a patient who is being stalked or a victim of abuse or violence may be deemed sensitive by default per a provider organization's policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23336"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PHY","display":"physician requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information about a patient, which a physician or other licensed healthcare provider deems sensitive. Once tagged by the provider, this may trigger alerts for follow up actions according to organizational policy or jurisdictional law.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For use within an enterprise that provides heightened confidentiality to certain types of information designated by a physician as sensitive. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nUse cases in which this code could be used are, e.g., in systems that lack the ability to automatically detect sensitive information and must rely on manual tagging; a system that lacks an applicable sensitivity tag, or for ad hoc situations where criticality of the situation requires that the tagging be done immediately by the provider before coding or transcription of consult notes can be completed, e.g., upon detection of a patient with suicidal tendencies or potential for violence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23931"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRS","display":"patient requested information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for specially protecting information reported by or about a patient, which the patient deems sensitive, and the patient requests that collection, access, use, or disclosure of that information be restricted. For example, a minor patient may request that information about reproductive health not be disclosed to the patient's family or to particular providers and payers.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23335"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"FOOD","display":"Food Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with certain foods","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TPROD","display":"Therapeutic Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent therapeutic product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17807"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InteractionDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20007"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20006"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20009"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNPPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20008"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20005"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPELCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20004"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPMNAT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20011"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADCNSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADCNSPMNCT","display":"adjud. nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"ADNFSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20010"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPELAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17544"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPELCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17543"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPMNAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPELCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17542"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADNPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17536"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17535"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual amout","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17538"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPPPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17537"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17532"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPELCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17531"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNAT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17534"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADPPSPMNCT","display":"adjud. payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17533"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17560"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPELCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17559"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17562"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFPPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17561"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPELCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNAT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"ADRFSPMNCT","display":"adjud. refused same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17557"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementAdjudicated"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPELCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20016"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNAT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNPPMNCT","display":"paid nullified prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFPPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELAT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20013"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPELCT","display":"paid nullified same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20012"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNAT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNFSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDCNSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDCNSPMNCT","display":"paid nullified same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"PDNFSPMNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20014"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17577"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17576"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPPPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17573"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPELCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNAT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDNPSPMNCT","display":"paid non-payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17569"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPELCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17568"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17571"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPPPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable prior-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17570"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPELCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17564"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNAT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17567"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"PDPPSPMNCT","display":"paid payee payable same-period manual count","definition":"Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17566"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementPaid"}]},{"code":"SBBLELAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLAT","display":"submitted billed electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19999"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLELCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBBLCT","display":"submitted billed electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBBLELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19998"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNAT","display":"submitted nullified electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20001"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBNFELCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBCNCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBCNCT","display":"submitted cancelled electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBNFELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20000"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDAT","display":"submitted pending electronic amount","definition":"Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELAT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20003"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDELCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"SBPDCT","display":"submitted pending electronic count","definition":"Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"SBPDELCT"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20002"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_InvoiceElementSubmitted"}]},{"code":"21611-9","display":"age patient qn est","definition":"**Definition:**Estimated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"21612-7","display":"age patient qn reported","definition":"**Definition:**Reported age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21631"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"29553-5","display":"age patient qn calc","definition":"**Definition:**Calculated age.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21632"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30525-0","display":"age patient qn definition","definition":"**Definition:**General specification of age with no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"30972-4","display":"age at onset of adverse event","definition":"**Definition:**Age at onset of associated adverse event; no implied method of determination.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21633"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType"}]},{"code":"REP_HALF_LIFE","display":"representative half-life","definition":"**Description:**This observation represents an 'average' or 'expected' half-life typical of the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOATING","display":"coating","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, indicating whether it has one or more coatings such as sugar coating, film coating, or enteric coating. Only coatings to the external surface or the dosage form should be considered (for example, coatings to individual pellets or granules inside a capsule or tablet are excluded from consideration).\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true for the presence or false for the absence of one or more coatings on a solid dosage form.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21604"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLCOLOR","display":"color","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the color or colors that most predominantly define the appearance of the dose form. SPLCOLOR is not an FDA specification for the actual color of solid dosage forms or the names of colors that can appear in labeling.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a single coded value or a list of multiple coded values, specifying one or more distinct colors that approximate of the color(s) of distinct areas of the solid dosage form, such as the different sides of a tablet or one-part capsule, or the different halves of a two-part capsule. Bands on banded capsules, regardless of the color, are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. Imprints on the dosage form, regardless of their color are not considered when assigning an SPLCOLOR. If more than one color exists on a particular side or half, then the most predominant color on that side or half is recorded. If the gelatin capsule shell is colorless and transparent, use the predominant color of the contents that appears through the colorless and transparent capsule shell. Colors can include: Black;Gray;White;Red;Pink;Purple;Green;Yellow;Orange;Brown;Blue;Turquoise.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21608"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMAGE","display":"image","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic representing a single file reference that contains two or more views of the same dosage form of the product; in most cases this should represent front and back views of the dosage form, but occasionally additional views might be needed in order to capture all of the important physical characteristics of the dosage form. Any imprint and/or symbol should be clearly identifiable, and the viewer should not normally need to rotate the image in order to read it. Images that are submitted with SPL should be included in the same directory as the SPL file.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21610"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLIMPRINT","display":"imprint","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the alphanumeric text that appears on the solid dosage form, including text that is embossed, debossed, engraved or printed with ink. The presence of other non-textual distinguishing marks or symbols is recorded by SPLSYMBOL.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Included in SPLIMPRINT are alphanumeric text that appears on the bands of banded capsules and logos and other symbols that can be interpreted as letters or numbers.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be of type Character String (ST). Excluded from SPLIMPRINT are internal and external cut-outs in the form of alphanumeric text and the letter 'R' with a circle around it (when referring to a registered trademark) and the letters 'TM' (when referring to a 'trade mark'). To record text, begin on either side or part of the dosage form. Start at the top left and progress as one would normally read a book. Enter a semicolon to show separation between words or line divisions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21607"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSCORING","display":"scoring","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the number of equal pieces that the solid dosage form can be divided into using score line(s).\r\n\r\n**Example:** One score line creating two equal pieces is given a value of 2, two parallel score lines creating three equal pieces is given a value of 3.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** Whether three parallel score lines create four equal pieces or two intersecting score lines create two equal pieces using one score line and four equal pieces using both score lines, both have the scoring value of 4. Solid dosage forms that are not scored are given a value of 1. Solid dosage forms that can only be divided into unequal pieces are given a null-value with nullFlavor other (OTH).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21606"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSHAPE","display":"shape","definition":"**Description:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the two dimensional representation of the solid dose form, in terms of the outside perimeter of a solid dosage form when the dosage form, resting on a flat surface, is viewed from directly above, including slight rounding of corners. SPLSHAPE does not include embossing, scoring, debossing, or internal cut-outs. SPLSHAPE is independent of the orientation of the imprint and logo. Shapes can include: Triangle (3 sided); Square; Round; Semicircle; Pentagon (5 sided); Diamond; Double circle; Bullet; Hexagon (6 sided); Rectangle; Gear; Capsule; Heptagon (7 sided); Trapezoid; Oval; Clover; Octagon (8 sided); Tear; Freeform.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21609"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSIZE","display":"size","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, specifying the longest single dimension of the solid dosage form as a physical quantity in the dimension of length (e.g., 3 mm). The length is should be specified in millimeters and should be rounded to the nearest whole millimeter.\r\n\r\n**Example:** SPLSIZE for a rectangular shaped tablet is the length and SPLSIZE for a round shaped tablet is the diameter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21605"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"SPLSYMBOL","display":"symbol","definition":"**Definition:** A characteristic of an oral solid dosage form of a medicinal product, to describe whether or not the medicinal product has a mark or symbol appearing on it for easy and definite recognition. Score lines, letters, numbers, and internal and external cut-outs are not considered marks or symbols. See SPLSCORING and SPLIMPRINT for these characteristics.\r\n\r\n**Constraints:** The Observation.value must be a Boolean (BL) with true indicating the presence and false for the absence of marks or symbols.\r\n\r\n**Example:**","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21603"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_MedicationObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADMDX","display":"admitting diagnosis","definition":"Admitting diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the basis for a hospital admission.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"DISDX","display":"discharge diagnosis","definition":"Discharge diagnosis are the diagnoses documented for administrative purposes as the time of hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"INTDX","display":"intermediate diagnosis","definition":"Intermediate diagnoses are those diagnoses documented for administrative purposes during the course of a hospital stay.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"NOI","display":"nature of injury","definition":"The type of injury that the injury coding specifies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DX"}]},{"code":"_CaseTransmissionMode","display":"case transmission mode","definition":"Code for the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case. Includes sexually transmitted, airborne, bloodborne, vectorborne, foodborne, zoonotic, nosocomial, mechanical, dermal, congenital, environmental exposure, indeterminate.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType"}]},{"code":"AGGREGATE","display":"aggregate measure observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is carrying out an aggregation calculation, contained in the value element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRMTH","display":"composite measure method","definition":"Indicates what method is used in a quality measure to combine the component measure results included in an composite measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CMPMSRSCRWGHT","display":"component measure scoring weight","definition":"An attribute of a quality measure describing the weight this component measure score is to carry in determining the overall composite measure final score. The value is real value greater than 0 and less than 1.0. Each component measure score will be multiplied by its CMPMSRSCRWGHT and then summed with the other component measures to determine the final overall composite measure score. The sum across all CMPMSRSCRWGHT values within a single composite measure SHALL be 1.0. The value assigned is scoped to the composite measure referencing this component measure only.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23791"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"COPY","display":"copyright","definition":"Identifies the organization(s) who own the intellectual property represented by the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23020"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"CRS","display":"clinical recommendation statement","definition":"Summary of relevant clinical guidelines or other clinical recommendations supporting this eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DEF","display":"definition","definition":"Description of individual terms, provided as needed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23433"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"DISC","display":"disclaimer","definition":"Disclaimer information for the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23022"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"FINALDT","display":"finalized date/time","definition":"The timestamp when the eMeasure was last packaged in the Measure Authoring Tool.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23440"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"GUIDE","display":"guidance","definition":"Used to allow measure developers to provide additional guidance for implementers to understand greater specificity than could be provided in the logic for data criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23434"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"IDUR","display":"improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result (e.g., a higher score indicates better quality OR a lower score indicates better quality OR quality is within a range).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23431"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"ITMCNT","display":"items counted","definition":"Describes the items counted by the measure (e.g., patients, encounters, procedures, etc.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23441"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"KEY","display":"keyword","definition":"A significant word that aids in discoverability.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MEDT","display":"measurement end date","definition":"The end date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23439"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSD","display":"measurement start date","definition":"The start date of the measurement period.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23438"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRADJ","display":"risk adjustment","definition":"The method of adjusting for clinical severity and conditions present at the start of care that can influence patient outcomes for making valid comparisons of outcome measures across providers. Indicates whether an eMeasure is subject to the statistical process for reducing, removing, or clarifying the influences of confounding factors to allow more useful comparisons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23028"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRAGG","display":"rate aggregation","definition":"Describes how to combine information calculated based on logic in each of several populations into one summarized result. It can also be used to describe how to risk adjust the data based on supplemental data elements described in the eMeasure. (e.g., pneumonia hospital measures antibiotic selection in the ICU versus non-ICU and then the roll-up of the two).\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The description does NOT align well with the definition used in the HQMF specfication; correct the MSGAGG definition, and the possible distinction of MSRAGG as a child of AGGREGATE.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23021"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRIMPROV","display":"health quality measure improvement notation","definition":"Information on whether an increase or decrease in score is the preferred result. This should reflect information on which way is better, an increase or decrease in score.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRJUR","display":"jurisdiction","definition":"The list of jurisdiction(s) for which the measure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23539"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTR","display":"reporter type","definition":"Type of person or organization that is expected to report the issue.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23540"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRRPTTIME","display":"timeframe for reporting","definition":"The maximum time that may elapse following completion of the measure until the measure report must be sent to the receiver.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSCORE","display":"measure scoring","definition":"Indicates how the calculation is performed for the eMeasure (e.g., proportion, continuous variable, ratio)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23029"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRSET","display":"health quality measure care setting","definition":"Location(s) in which care being measured is rendered\r\n\r\nUsage Note: MSRSET is used rather than RoleCode because the setting applies to what is being measured, as opposed to participating directly in the health quality measure documantion itself).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23019"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTOPIC","display":"health quality measure topic type","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23031"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTP","display":"measurement period","definition":"The time period for which the eMeasure applies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23432"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"MSRTYPE","display":"measure type","definition":"Indicates whether the eMeasure is used to examine a process or an outcome over time (e.g., Structure, Process, Outcome).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23030"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"RAT","display":"rationale","definition":"Succinct statement of the need for the measure. Usually includes statements pertaining to Importance criterion: impact, gap in care and evidence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23026"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"REF","display":"reference","definition":"Identifies bibliographic citations or references to clinical practice guidelines, sources of evidence, or other relevant materials supporting the intent and rationale of the eMeasure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23027"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"SDE","display":"supplemental data elements","definition":"Comparison of results across strata can be used to show where disparities exist or where there is a need to expose differences in results. For example, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) in the U.S. defines four required Supplemental Data Elements (payer, ethnicity, race, and gender), which are variables used to aggregate data into various subgroups. Additional supplemental data elements required for risk adjustment or other purposes of data aggregation can be included in the Supplemental Data Element section.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23437"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"STRAT","display":"stratification","definition":"Describes the strata for which the measure is to be evaluated. There are three examples of reasons for stratification based on existing work. These include: (1) evaluate the measure based on different age groupings within the population described in the measure (e.g., evaluate the whole \\[age 14-25\\] and each sub-stratum \\[14-19\\] and \\[20-25\\]); (2) evaluate the eMeasure based on either a specific condition, a specific discharge location, or both; (3) evaluate the eMeasure based on different locations within a facility (e.g., evaluate the overall rate for all intensive care units and also some strata include additional findings \\[specific birth weights for neonatal intensive care units\\]).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23435"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TRANF","display":"transmission format","definition":"Can be a URL or hyperlinks that link to the transmission formats that are specified for a particular reporting program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23436"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"USE","display":"notice of use","definition":"Usage notes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23025"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute"}]},{"code":"TIME_ABSOLUTE","display":"absolute time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in the \"absolute\" time domain. This is the same time domain that all HL7 timestamps use. It is time as measured by the Gregorian calendar","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19326"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"TIME_RELATIVE","display":"relative time sequence","definition":"A sequence of values in a \"relative\" time domain. The time is measured relative to the earliest effective time in the Observation Series containing this sequence.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19327"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSequenceType","display":"ECGObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20917"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSequenceType"}]},{"code":"_ECGObservationSeriesType","display":"ECGObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBSSER"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20918"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationSeriesType"}]},{"code":"_ActSpecObsCode","display":"ActSpecObsCode","definition":"Identifies the type of observation that is made about a specimen that may affect its processing, analysis or further result interpretation","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"SPCOBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20906"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AnnotationType","display":"AnnotationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20909"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationType","display":"GeneticObservationType","definition":"**Description:** None provided","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22650"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ImmunizationObservationType","display":"ImmunizationObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Observation codes which describe characteristics of the immunization material.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23241"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportType","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Type","definition":"A code that is used to indicate the type of case safety report received from sender. The current code example reference is from the International Conference on Harmonisation (ICH) Expert Workgroup guideline on Clinical Safety Data Management: Data Elements for Transmission of Individual Case Safety Reports. The unknown/unavailable option allows the transmission of information from a secondary sender where the initial sender did not specify the type of report.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: Spontaneous, Report from study, Other.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","display":"LOINCObservationActContextAgeType","definition":"**Definition:**The set of LOINC codes for the act of determining the period of time that has elapsed since an entity was born or created.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_MedicationObservationType","display":"MedicationObservationType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"OBS"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerCodedObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes the kinds of coded observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. These are observations that are not measurable, but instead can be defined with codes. Coded observation types include: Allergy, Intolerance, Medical Condition, Pregnancy status, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21524"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","display":"ObservationQualityMeasureAttribute","definition":"Codes used to define various metadata aspects of a health quality measure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23018"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSequenceType","display":"ObservationSequenceType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationSeriesType","display":"ObservationSeriesType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","display":"PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType","definition":"**Description:** Reporting codes that are related to an immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23244"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType","display":"PopulationInclusionObservationType","definition":"Observation types for specifying criteria used to assert that a subject is included in a particular population.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23543"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PreferenceObservationType","display":"_PreferenceObservationType","definition":"Types of observations that can be made about Preferences.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ADVERSE_REACTION","display":"Adverse Reaction","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of an unexpected negative occurrence in the subject suspected to result from the subject's exposure to one or more agents. Observation values would be the symptom resulting from the reaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21510"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ASSERTION","display":"Assertion","definition":"**Description:**Refines classCode OBS to indicate an observation in which observation.value contains a finding or other nominalized statement, where the encoded information in Observation.value is not altered by Observation.code. For instance, observation.code=\"ASSERTION\" and observation.value=\"fracture of femur present\" is an assertion of a clinical finding of femur fracture.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22040"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CASESER","display":"case seriousness criteria","definition":"**Definition:**An observation that provides a characterization of the level of harm to an investigation subject as a result of a reaction or event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22833"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CDIO","display":"case disease imported observation","definition":"An observation that states whether the disease was likely acquired outside the jurisdiction of observation, and if so, the nature of the inter-jurisdictional relationship.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23467"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CRIT","display":"criticality","definition":"A clinical judgment as to the worst case result of a future exposure (including substance administration). When the worst case result is assessed to have a life-threatening or organ system threatening potential, it is considered to be of high criticality.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23572"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CTMO","display":"case transmission mode observation","definition":"An observation that states the mechanism by which disease was acquired by the living subject involved in the public health case.\r\n\r\n**OpenIssue:** This code could be moved to LOINC if it can be done before there are significant implemenations using it.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23466"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"DX","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDiagnosisTypes","display":"ObservationDiagnosisTypes","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"DX"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20927"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"GISTIER","display":"GIS tier","definition":"**Description:** Accuracy determined as per the GIS tier code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"HHOBS","display":"household situation observation","definition":"Indicates that the observation is of a person’s living situation in a household including the household composition and circumstances.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"ISSUE","display":"detected issue","definition":"There is a clinical issue for the therapy that makes continuation of the therapy inappropriate.\r\n\r\n*Open Issue:* The definition of this code does not correctly represent the concept space of its specializations (children)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBJ","display":"knowledge subject","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture the main clinical knowledge subject which may be a medication, a laboratory test, a disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23090"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"KSUBT","display":"knowledge subtopic","definition":"Categorization of types of observation that capture a knowledge subtopic which might be treatment, etiology, or prognosis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23091"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"OINT","display":"intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to an agent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21498"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"SEV","display":"Severity Observation","definition":"A subjective evaluation of the seriousness or intensity associated with another observation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16642"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","display":"ActPrivilegeCategorizationType","definition":"This domain includes observations used to characterize a privilege, under which this additional information is classified.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*A privilege to prescribe drugs has a RESTRICTION that excludes prescribing narcotics; a surgical procedure privilege has a PRE-CONDITION that it requires prior Board approval.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21585"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","display":"AdverseSubstanceAdministrationEventActionTakenType","definition":"**Definition:** Indicates the class of actions taken with regard to a substance administration related adverse event. This characterization offers a judgment of the practitioner's response to the patient's problem.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Example values include dose withdrawn, dose reduced, dose not changed.\r\n\r\n**NOTE:** The concept domain is currently supported by a value set created by the International Conference on Harmonization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationType","display":"CommonClinicalObservationType","definition":"Used in a patient care message to report and query simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21527"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_FDALabelData","display":"FDALabelData","definition":"FDA label data","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20920"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestCode","display":"observation allergy test","definition":"**Description:**Dianostic procedures ordered or performed to evaluate whether a sensitivity to a substance is present. This test may be associated with specimen collection and/or substance administration challenge actiivities.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Skin tests and eosinophilia evaluations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21942"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationAllergyTestType","display":"ObservationAllergyTestType","definition":"Indicates the type of allergy test performed or to be performed. E.g. the specific antibody or skin test performed","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21494"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationCausalityAssessmentType","display":"observation causality assessment","definition":"**Description:**A kind of observation that allows a Secondary Observation (source act) to assert (at various levels of probability) that the target act of the association (which may be of any type of act) is implicated in the etiology of another observation that is named as the subject of the Secondary Observation\r\n\r\n**Example:**Causality assertions where an accident is the cause of a symptom; predisposition assertions where the genetic state plus environmental factors are implicated in the development of a disease; reaction assertions where a substance exposure is associated with a finding of wheezing.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21941"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationDosageDefinitionPreconditionType","display":"observation dosage definition precondition type","definition":"**Definition:**\r\n\r\nThe set of observation type concepts that can be used to express pre-conditions to a particular dosage definition.\r\n\r\nRationale: Used to constrain the set of observations to those related to the applicability of a dosage, such as height, weight, age, pregnancy, liver function, kidney function, etc. For example, in drug master-file type records indicating when a specified dose is applicable.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21714"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","display":"ObservationGenomicFamilyHistoryType","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22041"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIndicationType","display":"ObservationIndicationType","definition":"Includes all codes defining types of indications such as diagnosis, symptom and other indications such as contrast agents for lab tests","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21541"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","display":"ObservationIssueTriggerMeasuredObservationType","definition":"Distinguishes between the kinds of measurable observations that could be the trigger for clinical issue detection. Measurable observation types include: Lab Results, Height, Weight.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21525"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationQueryMatchType","display":"ObservationQueryMatchType","definition":"**Definition:** An observation related to a query response.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The degree of match or match weight returned by a matching algorithm in a response to a query.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","display":"ObservationVisionPrescriptionType","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the type of Vision Prescription Observation that is being described.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22243"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_PatientCharacteristicObservationType","display":"PatientCharacteristicObservationType","definition":"Indicates the type of characteristics a patient should have for a given therapy to be appropriate. E.g. Weight, Age, certain lab values, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21526"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"_SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","display":"SimpleMeasurableClinicalObservationType","definition":"Types of measurement observations typically performed in a clinical (non-lab) setting. E.g. Height, Weight, Blood-pressure","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21523"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ObservationType"}]},{"code":"CLSSRM","display":"classroom","definition":"**Description:** The class room associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23246"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"GRADE","display":"grade","definition":"**Description:** The school grade or level the patient was in when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23245"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHL","display":"school","definition":"**Description:** The school the patient attended when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23247"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"SCHLDIV","display":"school division","definition":"**Description:** The school division or district associated with the patient during the immunization event.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23248"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"TEACHER","display":"teacher","definition":"**Description:** The patient's teacher when immunized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23249"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PatientImmunizationRelatedObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Criteria which specify subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23544"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Criteria which specify the removal of a subject, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator, only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient (or subject) reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23545"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). The denominator can be the same as the initial population, or it may be a subset of the initial population to further constrain it for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different denominators. Continuous Variable eMeasures do not have a denominator, but instead define a measure population.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23546"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"IPOP","display":"initial population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the entities to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23547"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSROBS","display":"measure observation","definition":"Defines the observation to be performed for each patient or event in the measure population. Measure observations for each case in the population are aggregated to determine the overall measure score for the population.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * the median time from arrival in the Emergency Room to departure\r\n * the median time from decision to admit to a hospital to the actual admission for Emergency Room patients","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23895"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the measure population as a narrative description (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period). This is used only in continuous variable eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23549"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"MSRPOPLEX","display":"measure population exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying subjects who should be removed from the eMeasure's Initial Population and Measure Population. Measure Population Exclusions are used in Continuous Variable measures to help narrow the Measure Population before determining the value(s) of the continuous variable(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23550"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Criteria for specifying the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator for proportion measures, or related to (but not directly derived from) the denominator for ratio measures (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23551"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Criteria for specifying instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion). Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PopulationInclusionObservationType"}]},{"code":"PREFSTRENGTH","display":"preference strength","definition":"An observation about how important a preference is to the target of the preference.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_PreferenceObservationType"}]},{"code":"CIRCLE","display":"circle","definition":"A circle defined by two (column,row) pairs. The first point is the center of the circle and the second point is a point on the perimeter of the circle.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"ELLIPSE","display":"ellipse","definition":"An ellipse defined by four (column,row) pairs, the first two points specifying the endpoints of the major axis and the second two points specifying the endpoints of the minor axis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16119"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POINT","display":"point","definition":"A single point denoted by a single (column,row) pair, or multiple points each denoted by a (column,row) pair.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16120"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"POLY","display":"polyline","definition":"A series of connected line segments with ordered vertices denoted by (column,row) pairs; if the first and last vertices are the same, it is a closed polygon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16121"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ROIOverlayShape"}]},{"code":"B","display":"business information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling trade secrets such as financial information or intellectual property, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Since the service class can represent knowledge structures that may be considered a trade or business secret, there is sometimes (though rarely) the need to flag those items as of business level confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"No patient related information may ever be of this confidentiality level. If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23347"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"EMPL","display":"employer information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to an employer which is deemed classified to protect an employee who is the information subject, and which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to an employer, such as law enforcement or national security, the identity of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of an information subject who is an employee.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23348"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"LOCIS","display":"location information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to the location of the information subject, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to the location of the information subject, the disclosure of which could impact the privacy, well-being, or safety of that subject.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23349"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"SSP","display":"sensitive service provider information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to a provider of sensitive services, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Description: Policies may govern sensitivity of information related to providers who deliver sensitive healthcare services in order to protect the privacy, well-being, and safety of the provider and of patients receiving sensitive services.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23350"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_RoleInformationSensitivityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ALLDONE","display":"already performed","definition":"**Definition:**The requested action has already been performed and so this request has no effect","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22847"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"FULFIL","display":"fulfillment alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is in some way out of alignment with the requested therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22839"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"HELD","display":"held/suspended alert","definition":"**Definition:**There should be no actions taken in fulfillment of a request that has been held or suspended.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22848"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOLATE","display":"Refill Too Late Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly later than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"TOOSOON","display":"Refill Too Soon Alert","definition":"The patient is receiving a subsequent fill significantly earlier than would be expected based on the amount previously supplied and the therapy dosage instructions","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SupplyDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"ENDLATE","display":"End Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"STRTLATE","display":"Start Too Late Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_TimingDetectedIssueCode"}]},{"code":"19","display":"Consulted Supplier","definition":"Consulted other supplier/pharmacy, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"2","display":"Assessed Patient","definition":"Assessed patient, therapy is appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16697"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"22","display":"appropriate indication or diagnosis","definition":"**Description:** The patient has the appropriate indication or diagnosis for the action to be taken.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"23","display":"prior therapy documented","definition":"**Description:** It has been confirmed that the appropriate pre-requisite therapy has been tried.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"3","display":"Patient Explanation","definition":"Patient gave adequate explanation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16698"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"4","display":"Consulted Other Source","definition":"Consulted other supply source, therapy still appropriate","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16699"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"5","display":"Consulted Prescriber","definition":"Consulted prescriber, therapy confirmed","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16700"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"7","display":"Interacting Therapy No Longer Active/Planned","definition":"Concurrent therapy triggering alert is no longer on-going or planned","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16702"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"1"}]},{"code":"15","display":"Replacement","definition":"Patient's existing supply was lost/wasted","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16710"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"16","display":"Vacation Supply","definition":"Supply date is due to patient vacation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16711"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"17","display":"Weekend Supply","definition":"Supply date is intended to carry patient over weekend","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16712"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"18","display":"Leave of Absence","definition":"Supply is intended for use during a leave of absence from an institution.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17835"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"20","display":"additional quantity on separate dispense","definition":"**Description:** Supply is different than expected as an additional quantity has been supplied in a separate dispense.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"14"}]},{"code":"6","display":"Prescriber Declined Change","definition":"Consulted prescriber and recommended change, prescriber declined","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16701"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"5"}]},{"code":"10","display":"Provided Patient Education","definition":"Provided education or training to the patient on appropriate therapy use","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16705"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"11","display":"Added Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Instituted an additional therapy to mitigate potential negative effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16706"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"12","display":"Temporarily Suspended Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Suspended existing therapy that triggered interaction for the duration of this therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16707"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"13","display":"Stopped Concurrent Therapy","definition":"Aborted existing therapy that triggered interaction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"9","display":"Instituted Ongoing Monitoring Program","definition":"Arranged to monitor patient for adverse effects","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16704"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"8"}]},{"code":"ANF","display":"adjudicated with adjustments and no financial impact","definition":"The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges) without changing the amount.\r\n\r\nInvoice element can be reversed (nullified).\r\n\r\nRecommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19708"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AA"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRD","display":"trust accreditation","definition":"Type of security metadata about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGRE","display":"trust agreement","definition":"Type of security metadata about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTASSUR","display":"trust assurance","definition":"Type of security metadata about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERT","display":"trust certificate","definition":"Type of security metadata about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23662"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWK","display":"trust framework","definition":"Type of security metadata about a complete set of contracts, regulations, or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"TRSTMEC","display":"trust mechanism","definition":"Type of security metadata about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ActTrustPolicyType"}]},{"code":"ADALRT","display":"adult alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for an adult patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23556"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DOSEHINDA","display":"High Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage exceeds standard practice for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17788"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEH"}]},{"code":"DOSELINDA","display":"Low Dose for Age Alert","definition":"Proposed dosage is below suggested therapeutic levels for the patient's age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17792"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DOSEL"}]},{"code":"GEALRT","display":"geriatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of standard practice for a geriatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"PEALRT","display":"pediatric alert","definition":"Proposed therapy is outside of the standard practice for a pediatric patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23555"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AGE"}]},{"code":"DALG","display":"Drug Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a pharmaceutical product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21504"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"}]},{"code":"EALG","display":"Environmental Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance other than a drug or a food. E.g. Latex, pollen, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21506"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"EINT"}]},{"code":"FALG","display":"Food Allergy","definition":"An allergy to a substance generally consumed for nutritional purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21505"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ALG"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"}]},{"code":"AMBAIR","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"Fixed-wingAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"Fixed-wingAmbulance","display":"fixed-wing ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBAIR"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21554"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBGRND","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"GroundAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"GroundAmbulance","display":"ground ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBGRND"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21552"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"AMBHELO","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"HelicopterAmbulance"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"HelicopterAmbulance","display":"helicopter ambulance transport","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"AMBHELO"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21553"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AMBT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"Ambulance"}]},{"code":"ACCESSCONSCHEME","display":"access control scheme","definition":"An access control policy specific to the type of access control scheme, which is used to enforce one or more authorization policies.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Access control schemes are the type of access control policy, which is comprised of access control policy rules concerning the provision of the access control service.\r\n\r\nThere are two categories of access control policies, rule-based and identity-based, which are identified in CCITT Rec. X.800 aka ISO 7498-2. Rule-based access control policies are intended to apply to all access requests by any initiator on any target in a security domain. Identity-based access control policies are based on rules specific to an individual initiator, a group of initiators, entities acting on behalf of initiators, or originators acting in a specific role. Context can modify rule-based or identity-based access control policies. Context rules may define the entire policy in effect. Real systems will usually employ a combination of these policy types; if a rule-based policy is used, then an identity-based policy is usually in effect also.\r\n\r\nAn access control scheme may be based on access control lists, capabilities, labels, and context or a combination of these. An access control scheme is a component of an access control mechanism or \"service\") along with the supporting mechanisms required by that scheme to provide access control decision information (ADI) supplied by the scheme to the access decision facility (ADF also known as a PDP). (Based on ISO/IEC 10181-3:1996)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)\r\n * Discretionary Access Control (DAC)\r\n * History Based Access Control (HBAC)\r\n * Identity Based Access Control (IBAC)\r\n * Mandatory Access Control (MAC)\r\n * Organization Based Access Control (OrBAC)\r\n * Relationship Based Access Control (RelBac)\r\n * Responsibility Based Access Control (RespBAC)\r\n * Risk Adaptable Access Control (RAdAC)\r\n\r\n>","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23935"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTHPOL"}]},{"code":"COL","display":"collision coverage policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will cover the cost of damages to an automobile owned by the named insured that are caused by accident or intentionally by another party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22100"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"UNINSMOT","display":"uninsured motorist policy","definition":"**Definition:** An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will indemnify a loss for which another motorist is liable if that motorist is unable to pay because he or she is uninsured. Coverage under the policy applies to bodily injury damages only. Injuries to the covered party caused by a hit-and-run driver are also covered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22101"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"AUTOPOL"}]},{"code":"COGN","display":"cognitive disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to cognitive disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which are afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nExamples may include dementia, traumatic brain injury, attention deficit, hearing and visual disability such as dyslexia and other disorders and related conditions which impair learning and self-sufficiency. However, the cognitive disabilities to which this term may apply versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23928"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"DVD","display":"developmental disability information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to developmental disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nA diverse group of chronic conditions that are due to mental or physical impairments impacting activities of daily living, self-care, language acuity, learning, mobility, independent living and economic self-sufficiency. Examples may include Down syndrome and Autism spectrum. However, the developmental disabilities to which this term applies versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23929"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"EMOTDIS","display":"emotional disturbance information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to emotional disturbance disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.\r\n\r\nTypical used to characterize behavioral and mental health issues of adolescents where the disorder may be temporarily diagnosed in order to avoid the potential and unnecessary stigmatizing diagnoses of disorder long term.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23930"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"BH"}]},{"code":"AE","display":"American Express","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14814"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DN","display":"Diner's Club","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14815"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DV","display":"Discover Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"MC","display":"Master Card","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14813"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"V","display":"Visa","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14812"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CC"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTE","display":"diagnosis list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a diagnosis for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHINSTE","display":"discharge instruction entry","definition":"A person provides a discharge instruction to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUME","display":"discharge summary entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a discharge summary for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATEDUE","display":"patient education entry","definition":"A person provides a patient-specific education handout to a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PATREPE","display":"pathology report entry task","definition":"A pathologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTE","display":"problem list entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a problem for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"RADREPE","display":"radiology report entry task","definition":"A radiologist enters a report for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEE"}]},{"code":"DISCHSUMREV","display":"discharge summary review task","definition":"A person reviews a discharge summary of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22066"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CLINNOTEREV"}]},{"code":"CODE_DEPREC","display":"code has been deprecated","definition":"**Description:**The specified code has been deprecated and should no longer be used. Select another code from the code system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CODE_INVAL"}]},{"code":"ABUSE","display":"commonly abused/misused alert","definition":"**Description:**The proposed therapy is frequently misused or abused and therefore should be used with caution and/or monitoring.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"FRAUD","display":"potential fraud","definition":"**Description:**The request is suspected to have a fraudulent basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYDOC","display":"Poly-orderer Alert","definition":"A similar or identical therapy was recently ordered by a different practitioner.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"PLYPHRM","display":"Poly-supplier Alert","definition":"This patient was recently supplied a similar or identical therapy from a different pharmacy or supplier.","designation":[{"language":"en","use":{"system":"http://snomed.info/sct","code":"900000000000013009"},"value":"Poly-pharmacy Alert"}],"property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPLY"}]},{"code":"ACOCOMPT","display":"accountable care organization compartment","definition":"A group of health care entities, which may include health care providers, care givers, hospitals, facilities, health plans, and other health care constituents who coordinate care for reimbursement based on quality metrics for improving outcomes and lowering costs, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of membership in that group.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in accountable care workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a an accountable care workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CDSSCOMPT","display":"CDS system compartment","definition":"This compartment code may be used as a field value in an initiator's clearance to indicate permission for its Clinical Decision Support system (CDSS) to access and use an IT Resource with a security label having the same compartment value in the security category label field.\r\n\r\nThis code permits a CDS system to algorithmically process information with this compartment tag for the purpose of alerting an unauthorized end user that masked information is needed to address an emergency or a patient safety issue, such as a contraindicated medication. The alert would advise the end user to \"break the glass\", to access the masked information in an accountable manner, or to ask the patient about possibly masked information.\r\n\r\nFor example, releasing a list of sensitive medications with this compartment tag means that while the CDS system is permitted to use this list in its contraindication analysis, this sensitive information should not be shared directly with unauthorized end-users or end-user-facing Apps. Based on the results of the CDS system analysis (e.g., warnings about prescriptions) the end-user (e.g., a clinician) may still have the ability to access to the sensitive information by invoking \"break-the-glass protocol\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security label with the CDS system compartment may be used in conjunction with other security labels, e.g., a label authorizing an end user with adequate clearance to access the same CDS system compartment tagged information. For example, a patient may restrict sharing sensitive information with most care team members except in an emergency or to prevent an adverse event, and may consent to sharing with their sensitive service care team providers, e.g., for mental health or substance abuse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24132"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"CTCOMPT","display":"care team compartment","definition":"Care coordination across participants in a care plan requires sharing of a healthcare consumer's information specific to that workflow. A care team member should only have access to that information while participating in that workflow or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in care coordination workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a care team member workflow who is requesting access to that information","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23878"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"FMCOMPT","display":"financial management compartment","definition":"Financial management department members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient account, billing and claims workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a financial management workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23881"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HRCOMPT","display":"human resource compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of human resources department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23580"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"LRCOMPT","display":"legitimate relationship compartment","definition":"Providers and care givers who have an established relationship per criteria determined by policy are considered to have an established care provision relations with a healthcare consumer, and may be authorized to access the consumer's health information because of that relationship. Providers and care givers should only have access to that information while participating in legitimate relationship workflows or for other authorized uses.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to a consumer's information use in legitimate relationship workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a legitimate relationship workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23879"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"PACOMPT","display":"patient administration compartment","definition":"Patient administration members who have access to healthcare consumer information as part of a patient administration workflows.\r\n\r\nSecurity Compartment Labels assigned to consumer information used in these workflows should be met or exceeded by the Security Compartment attribute claimed by a participant in a patient administration workflow who is requesting access to that information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23882"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RESCOMPT","display":"research project compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of a research project.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23578"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"RMGTCOMPT","display":"records management compartment","definition":"A security category label field value, which indicates that access and use of an IT resource is restricted to members of records management department or workflow.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23579"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COMPT"}]},{"code":"HGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17795"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"LACT","display":"Lactation Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated when breast-feeding","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"Pregnancy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated during pregnancy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"WGHT","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17794"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"COND"}]},{"code":"INTOLIST","display":"intolerance list","definition":"List of intolerance observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19982"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"PROBLIST","display":"problem list","definition":"List of problem observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19980"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"RISKLIST","display":"risk factors","definition":"List of risk factor observations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19983"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CONDLIST"}]},{"code":"CONTROLLED","display":"CONTROLLED","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CONTROLLED\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUI","display":"CUI","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTH","display":"CUI//HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIHLTHP","display":"(CUI//HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIP","display":"(CUI)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Basic marking include HIPAA Unique Identifier provisions 42 USC 1320d-2 note(b) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf; Title 38 Section 7332 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title38/pdf/USCODE-2016-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332.pdf; and several sections of 42 CFR Part 2.related to consent and confidentiality, e.g., https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-12.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCY","display":"CUI//PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy controlled unclassified basic privacy information is private and must be protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUIPRVCYP","display":"(CUI//PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Basic marking include 20 CFR 401.100 related to SSA disclosure of personal, program, and non-program information. https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title20-vol2/pdf/CFR-2017-title20-vol2-sec401-100.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTH","display":"CUI//SP-HLTH","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-HLTH\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use that differ from those for CUI Basic. The CUI Registry indicates which laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies include such specific requirements. CUI Specified controls may be more stringent than, or may simply differ from, those required by CUI Basic; the distinction is that the underlying authority spells out the controls for CUI Specified information and does not for CUI Basic information. CUI Basic controls apply to those aspects of CUI Specified where the authorizing laws, regulations, and Government-wide policies do not provide specific guidance. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-HLTHP","display":"(CUI//SP-HLTH)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-HLTH)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of healthcare regulation governing CUI Specified marking include HIPAA Transaction and Code Sets and references the Congressional requirement that HHS promulgate Privacy, and Security rules https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCY","display":"CUI//SP-PRVCY","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"CUI//SP-PRVCY\", indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CUISP-PRVCYP","display":"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(CUI//SP-PRVCY)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is protected at the level of the subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls. Agencies handle CUI Basic according to the uniform set of controls set forth in this part and the CUI Registry. CUI Basic differs from CUI Specified (see definition for CUI Specified), and CUI Basic controls apply whenever CUI Specified ones do not cover the involved CUI. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Examples of privacy regulation governing CUI Specified marking is OMB M-17-12ï‡? This Memorandum sets forth the policy for Federal agencies to prepare for and respond to a breach of personally identifiable information (PII). It includes a framework for assessing and mitigating the risk of harm to individuals potentially affected by a breach, as well as guidance on whether and how to provide notification and services to those individuals. https://www.whitehouse.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/files/omb/memoranda/2017/m-17-12\\_0.pdf.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"UUI","display":"(U)","definition":"A displayed mark, required to be rendered as \"(U)\", indicating that a portion of an electronic or hardcopy information is neither Executive Order 13556 nor classified information authorities cover as protected. Although this information is not controlled or classified, agencies must still handle it in accordance with Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements. From CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Regulatory Source: 32 CFR § 2002.20 Marking. Federal Register Page 63344 63344 (ii) Authorized holders permitted to designate CUI must portion mark both CUI and uncontrolled unclassified portions.\r\n\r\nCUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Marking: Portion marking of CUI is optional in a fully unclassified document, but is permitted and encouraged to facilitate information sharing and proper handling of the information. Agency heads may approve the required use of CUI Portion marking on all CUI generated within their agency. As such, users should consult their agency CUI policy when creating CUI documents. When CUI Portion Markings are used and a portion does not contain CUI a \"U\" is placed in parentheses to indicate that the portion contains Uncontrolled Unclassified Information. (Page 14)\r\n\r\nCUI Portion Markings are placed at the beginning of the portion to which they apply and must be used throughout the entire document. They are presented in all capital letters and separated as indicated in this handbook and the CUI Registry. The presence of EVEN ONE item of CUI in a document requires CUI marking of that document. Because of this, CUI Portion Markings can be of great assistance in determining if a document contains CUI and therefore must be marked as such. Remember: When portion markings are used and any portion does not contain CUI, a \"(U)\" is placed in front of that portion to indicate that it contains Uncontrolled - or non-CUI - Unclassified Information. (Page 15)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation"}]},{"code":"CPLYCC","display":"comply with confidentiality code","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the information handling directions of the Confidentiality Code associated with an information target.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCC may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with a Confidentiality Code to comply with applicable level of protection required by the assigned confidentiality code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCD","display":"comply with consent directive","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable information subject consent directives.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYCD may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActConsent code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActConsentDirective code to comply with applicable consent directives.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYCUI","display":"comply with controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In the US, CPLYCUI may be used as a security label code to inform recipients of information designated by a US Federal Agency as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, executive orders, and other guidances, such as included in DURSAs, to persist, mark, and enforce required CUI controls\r\n\r\nBackground:\r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls.\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * • Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJPP","display":"comply with jurisdictional privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActPrivacyPolicy\\_ActPrivacyLaw code or an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.JurisIP code to comply with applicable jurisdictional privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYJSP","display":"comply with jurisdictional security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable jurisdictional security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYJSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable jurisdictional security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24130"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOPP","display":"comply with organizational privacy policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable organizational privacy policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOPP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType\\_ActInformationPolicy.OrgIP code to comply with applicable organizational privacy policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"CPLYOSP","display":"comply with organizational security policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with the organizational security policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYOSP may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of information tagged with an ActCode\\_ActPolicyType.SecurityPolicy code to comply with applicable organizational security policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CPLYPOL"}]},{"code":"_DEADrugSchedule","display":"DEADrugSchedule","definition":"DEA schedule for a drug.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20913"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"CTLSUB"}]},{"code":"BR","display":"breikost (GE)","definition":"A diet exclusively composed of oatmeal, semolina, or rice, to be extremely easy to eat and digest.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10379"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"DM","display":"diabetes mellitus diet","definition":"A diet that uses carbohydrates sparingly. Typically with a restriction in daily energy content (e.g. 1600-2000 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FAST","display":"fasting","definition":"No enteral intake of foot or liquids whatsoever, no smoking. Typically 6 to 8 hours before anesthesia.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10382"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"FORMULA","display":"formula diet","definition":"A diet consisting of a formula feeding, either for an infant or an adult, to provide nutrition either orally or through the gastrointestinal tract via tube, catheter or stoma.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23529"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"GF","display":"gluten free","definition":"Gluten free diet for celiac disease.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LF","display":"low fat","definition":"A diet low in fat, particularly to patients with hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LP","display":"low protein","definition":"A low protein diet for patients with renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LQ","display":"liquid","definition":"A strictly liquid diet, that can be fully absorbed in the intestine, and therefore may not contain fiber. Used before enteral surgeries.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10380"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"LS","display":"low sodium","definition":"A diet low in sodium for patients with congestive heart failure and/or renal failure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"N","display":"normal diet","definition":"A normal diet, i.e. no special preparations or restrictions for medical reasons. This is notwithstanding any preferences the patient might have regarding special foods, such as vegetarian, kosher, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"NF","display":"no fat","definition":"A no fat diet for acute hepatic diseases.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAF","display":"phenylalanine free","definition":"Phenylketonuria diet.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"PAR","display":"parenteral","definition":"Patient is supplied with parenteral nutrition, typically described in terms of i.v. medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"RD","display":"reduction diet","definition":"A diet that seeks to reduce body fat, typically low energy content (800-1600 kcal).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"schonkost (GE)","definition":"A diet that avoids ingredients that might cause digestion problems, e.g., avoid excessive fat, avoid too much fiber (cabbage, peas, beans).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10378"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"SUPPLEMENT","display":"nutritional supplement","definition":"A diet that is not intended to be complete but is added to other diets.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23530"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"T","display":"tea only","definition":"This is not really a diet, since it contains little nutritional value, but is essentially just water. Used before coloscopy examinations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10381"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"VLI","display":"low valin, leucin, isoleucin","definition":"Diet with low content of the amino-acids valin, leucin, and isoleucin, for \"maple syrup disease.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"10392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DIET"}]},{"code":"AUTO-HIGH","display":"Auto-High Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13958"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"AUTO-LOW","display":"Auto-Low Dilution","definition":"The dilution of a sample performed by automated equipment. The value is specified by the equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13959"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"PRE","display":"Pre-Dilution","definition":"The dilution of the specimen made prior to being loaded onto analytical equipment","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13961"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"RERUN","display":"Rerun Dilution","definition":"The value of the dilution of a sample after it had been analyzed at a prior dilution value","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DILUTION"}]},{"code":"DNAINT","display":"Drug Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21507"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"CANPRG","display":"women's cancer detection program","definition":"**Definition:** A program that provides low-income, uninsured, and underserved women access to timely, high-quality screening and diagnostic services, to detect breast and cervical cancer at the earliest stages.\r\n\r\n**Example:** To improve women's access to screening for breast and cervical cancers, Congress passed the Breast and Cervical Cancer Mortality Prevention Act of 1990, which guided CDC in creating the National Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection Program (NBCCEDP), which provides access to critical breast and cervical cancer screening services for underserved women in the United States. An estimated 7 to 10% of U.S. women of screening age are eligible to receive NBCCEDP services. Federal guidelines establish an eligibility baseline to direct services to uninsured and underinsured women at or below 250% of federal poverty level; ages 18 to 64 for cervical screening; ages 40 to 64 for breast screening.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"ENDRENAL","display":"end renal program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government program that administers publicly funded coverage of kidney dialysis and kidney transplant services.\r\n\r\nExample: In the U.S., the Medicare End-stage Renal Disease program (ESRD), the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) American Kidney Fund (AKF) The Organ Transplant Fund.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22135"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"DISEASEPRG"}]},{"code":"HIVAIDS","display":"HIV-AIDS program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded HIV-AIDS program for beneficiaries meeting financial and health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. 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while \"in transit\" or being transported by any means.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23387"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPTU","display":"encrypt in use","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext while in use such that operations permitted on the target information are limited by the license granted to the end user.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23388"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ENCRYPT"}]},{"code":"FFC","display":"First Fill - Complete","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFP","display":"First Fill - Part Fill","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16211"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFPS","display":"first fill, part fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21817"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"FFSS","display":"first fill, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength. (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23017"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"TF","display":"Trial Fill","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16212"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FF"}]},{"code":"FFCS","display":"first fill complete, partial strength","definition":"A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21816"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFC"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"}]},{"code":"TFS","display":"trial fill partial strength","definition":"A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21818"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FFSS"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TF"}]},{"code":"FNAINT","display":"Food Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21508"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FINT"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NAINT"}]},{"code":"NOTACTN","display":"no longer actionable","definition":"**Definition:**The status of the request being fulfilled has changed such that it is no longer actionable. This may be because the request has expired, has already been completely fulfilled or has been otherwise stopped or disabled. (Not used for 'suspended' orders.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22840"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIV","display":"not equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not sufficiently equivalent to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22841"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"TIMING","display":"event timing incorrect alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy is being performed at a time which diverges from the time the therapy was requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22844"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"FULFIL"}]},{"code":"BOOSTER","display":"Booster Immunization","definition":"An additional immunization administration within a series intended to bolster or enhance immunity.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21521"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"INITIMMUNIZ","display":"Initial Immunization","definition":"The first immunization administration in a series intended to produce immunity","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21520"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMMUNIZ"}]},{"code":"ACUTE","display":"inpatient acute","definition":"An acute inpatient encounter.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"13956"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"NONAC","display":"inpatient non-acute","definition":"Any category of inpatient encounter except 'acute'","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16238"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IMP"}]},{"code":"INFAO","display":"access only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access or \"read\" only, which entails that the information is not to be copied, screen printed, saved, emailed, stored, re-disclosed or altered in any way. This level ensures that data which is masked or to which access is restricted will not be.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Opened and then emailed or screen printed for use outside of the consent directive purpose.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22201"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFASO","display":"access and save only","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to access and save only, which entails that access to the saved copy will remain locked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22202"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFA"}]},{"code":"INFCON","display":"after explicit consent","definition":"Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information as explicitly consented to by the subject of the information or the subject's representative.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22334"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INFAUT"}]},{"code":"FIBRIN","display":"Fibrin","definition":"The Fibrin Index of the specimen. In the case of only differentiating between Absent and Present, recommend using 0 and 1","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14386"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"HEMOLYSIS","display":"Hemolysis","definition":"An observation of the hemolysis index of the specimen in g/L","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"ICTERUS","display":"Icterus","definition":"An observation that describes the icterus index of the specimen. It is recommended to use mMol/L of bilirubin","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"LIPEMIA","display":"Lipemia","definition":"An observation used to describe the Lipemia Index of the specimen. It is recommended to use the optical turbidity at 600 nm (in absorbance units).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"INTFR"}]},{"code":"IPPOP","display":"initial patient population","definition":"Criteria for specifying the patients to be evaluated by a specific quality measure, based on a shared common set of characteristics (within a specific measurement set to which a given measure belongs). Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23548"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"IPOP"}]},{"code":"_ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActAdministrativeDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detectyed issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20854"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActSuppliedItemDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues regarding the administration or supply of an item to a patient.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"rim-ClassifiesClassCode","valueCoding":{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActClass","code":"ALRT"}},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20907"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","display":"ActFinancialDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of detected issues for Act class \"ALRT\" for the financial acts domain.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20870"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ISSUE"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","display":"ClinicalActionDetectedIssueCode","definition":"Identifies types of issues detected regarding the performance of a clinical action on a 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jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24075"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisDEID","display":"jurisdictional de-identified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24076"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisLDS","display":"jurisdictional limited data set","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24077"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisNSI","display":"jurisdictional non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by applicable jurisdiction law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24078"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisPI","display":"jurisdictional public information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by applicable jurisdiction law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24079"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisSP-CUI","display":"jurisdictional specified controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24080"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"JurisUUI","display":"jurisdictional uncontrolled unclassified information policy","definition":"Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24081"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"JurisIP"}]},{"code":"LEN_LONG","display":"length is too long","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified is greater than the maximum length defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21658"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LEN_RANGE"}]},{"code":"LEN_SHORT","display":"length is too short","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified is less than the minimum length defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LEN_RANGE"}]},{"code":"ANNU","display":"annuity policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy that, after an initial premium or premiums, pays out a sum at pre-determined intervals.\r\n\r\nFor example, a policy holder may pay $10,000, and in return receive $150 each month until he dies; or $1,000 for each of 14 years or death benefits if he dies before the full term of the annuity has elapsed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22118"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"TLIFE","display":"term life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable only if the insured dies during a specified period. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22116"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"ULIFE","display":"universal life insurance policy","definition":"**Definition:** Life insurance under which the benefit is payable upon the insuredaTMs death or diagnosis of a terminal illness. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22117"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LIFE"}]},{"code":"RENT","display":"Rent","definition":"Temporary supply of a product with financial compensation, without transfer of ownership for the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17962"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"LOAN"}]},{"code":"HMO","display":"health maintenance organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A policy for a health plan that provides coverage for health care only through contracted or employed physicians and hospitals located in particular geographic or service areas. HMOs emphasize prevention and early detection of illness. Eligibility to enroll in an HMO is determined by where a covered party lives or works.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22110"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"PPO","display":"preferred provider organization policy","definition":"**Definition:** A network-based, managed care plan that allows a covered party to choose any health care provider. However, if care is received from a \"preferred\" (participating in-network) provider, there are generally higher benefit coverage and lower deductibles.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22112"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MCPOL"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515MMHC","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-Michigan Mental Health Code","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health governed by the Michigan Mental Health Code Act 258 of 1974, which require patient authorization for purposes other than treatment, payment, and coordination of care, in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24134"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"MDHHS-5515Part2","display":"Michigan Consent to Share Behavioral Health Information for Care Coordination Purposes-US 42 CFR Part 2","definition":"The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to substance use information governed under US 42 CFR Part 2 in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550\\_2941\\_58005-343686--,00.html","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MDHHS-5515"}]},{"code":"CURMEDLIST","display":"current medication list","definition":"List of current medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19977"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"DISCMEDLIST","display":"discharge medication list","definition":"List of discharge medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19979"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"HISTMEDLIST","display":"medication history","definition":"Historical list of medications.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19978"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MEDLIST"}]},{"code":"MICROORGRREV","display":"microbiology organisms results review task","definition":"A person reviews organisms of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22057"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MICROSENSRREV","display":"microbiology sensitivity test results review task","definition":"A person reviews the sensitivity test of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22058"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MICRORREV"}]},{"code":"MARWLREV","display":"medication administration record work list review task","definition":"A clinician reviews a work list of medications to be administered to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22054"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"MLREV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVGEN","display":"not generically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not generically equivalent (having the identical biological action) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22843"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"NOTEQUIVTHER","display":"not therapeutically equivalent alert","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy being performed is not therapeutically equivalent (having the same overall patient effect) to the therapy which was requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22842"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOTEQUIV"}]},{"code":"ANONY","display":"anonymize","definition":"Custodian system must remove any information that could result in identifying the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23374"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AOD","display":"accounting of disclosure","definition":"Custodian system must make available to an information subject upon request an accounting of certain disclosures of the individual's protected health information over a period of time. Policy may dictate that the accounting include information about the information disclosed, the date of disclosure, the identification of the receiver, the purpose of the disclosure, the time in which the disclosing entity must provide a response and the time period for which accountings of disclosure can be requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23373"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDIT","display":"audit","definition":"Custodian system must monitor systems to ensure that all users are authorized to operate on information objects.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23375"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AUDTR","display":"audit trail","definition":"Custodian system must monitor and maintain retrievable log for each user and operation on information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23376"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"CPLYPOL","display":"comply with policy","definition":"Custodian security system must retrieve, evaluate, and comply with applicable policies associated with the target information.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* CPLYPOL may be used as a security label code to inform senders and receivers of the tagged information to comply with applicable policy without specifying the specific policy type(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23377"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DECLASSIFYLABEL","display":"declassify security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as unclassified in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DEID","display":"deidentify","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23383"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELAU","display":"delete after use","definition":"Custodian system must remove target information from access after use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23384"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DOWNGRDLABEL","display":"downgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must downgrade information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a less protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"DRIVLABEL","display":"derive security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels derived from compilations of information by aggregation or disaggregation in order to classify information compiled in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"ENCRYPT","display":"encrypt","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"A mathematical transposition of a file or data stream so that it cannot be deciphered at the receiving end without the proper key. Encryption is a security feature that assures that only the parties who are supposed to be participating in a videoconference or data transfer are able to do so. It can include a password, public and private keys, or a complex combination of all. (Per Infoway.)"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23385"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"HUAPRV","display":"human approval","definition":"Custodian system must require human review and approval for permission requested.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23391"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"LABEL","display":"assign security label","definition":"Custodian security system must assign and bind security labels in order to classify information created in the information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In security systems, security policy label assignments do not change, they may supersede prior assignments, and such reassignments are always tracked for auditing and other purposes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MASK","display":"mask","definition":"Custodian system must render information unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext. User may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23389"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"MINEC","display":"minimum necessary","definition":"Custodian must limit access and disclosure to the minimum information required to support an authorized user's purpose of use.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Limiting the information available for access and disclosure to that an authorized user or receiver \"needs to know\" in order to perform permitted workflow or purpose of use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23574"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PERSISTLABEL","display":"persist security label","definition":"Custodian security system must persist the binding of security labels to classify information received or imported by information systems under its control for collection, access, use and disclosure in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PRIVMARK","display":"privacy mark","definition":"Custodian must create and/or maintain human readable security label tags as required by policy.\r\n\r\nMap: Aligns with ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 description of privacy mark: \"If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label.\"","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23575"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PSEUD","display":"pseudonymize","definition":"Custodian system must strip information of data that would allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23392"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"REDACT","display":"redact","definition":"Custodian system must remove information, which is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed from records made available to otherwise authorized users.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23390"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"UPGRDLABEL","display":"upgrade security label","definition":"Custodian security system must declassify information assigned security labels by instantiating a new version of the classified information so as to break the binding of the classifying security label when assigning a new security label that marks the information as classified at a more protected level in accordance with applicable jurisdictional privacy policies associated with the target information. The system must retain an immutable record of the previous assignment and binding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"PROCESSINLINELABEL","display":"process inline security label","definition":"Custodian security system must take note that the data object contains inline security labels and process them.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23850"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"ObligationPolicy"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"Age Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient age","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"COND","display":"Condition Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to an existing/recent patient condition or diagnosis","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"CREACT","display":"common reaction alert","definition":"**Description:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a common but non-patient specific reaction to the product.\r\n\r\n**Example:**There is no record of a specific sensitivity for the patient, but the presence of the sensitivity is common and therefore caution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEN","display":"Genetic Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient genetic indicators.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"GEND","display":"Gender Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to patient gender.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LAB","display":"Lab Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated due to recent lab test results","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"REACT","display":"Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated based on the potential for a patient reaction to the proposed product","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16672"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"RREACT","display":"Related Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a potential patient reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16676"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OBSA"}]},{"code":"LABOE","display":"laboratory test order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for a laboratory test to be done for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"MEDOE","display":"medication order entry task","definition":"A clinician creates a request for the administration of one or more medications to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OE"}]},{"code":"ALG","display":"Allergy","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21499"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"DINT","display":"Drug Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to a drug.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21501"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"EINT","display":"Environmental Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to environmental conditions.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21503"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"FINT","display":"Food Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity resulting in an adverse reaction upon exposure to food.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21502"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"NAINT","display":"Non-Allergy Intolerance","definition":"Hypersensitivity to an agent caused by a mechanism other than an immunologic response to an initial exposure","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21500"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OINT"}]},{"code":"OrgCUI","display":"organizational basic controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of basic controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24067"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgDEID","display":"organizational de-identified informati)on policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgLDS","display":"organizational limited data set information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24069"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgNSI","display":"organizational non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24070"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgPI","display":"organizational public information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of public information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24071"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgSP-CUI","display":"organizational specified controlled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24072"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"OrgUUI","display":"organizational uncontrolled unclassified information policy","definition":"Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by the organization or governing jurisdiction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24073"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"OrgIP"}]},{"code":"ALLERLREV","display":"allergy list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of known allergies of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23268"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEE","display":"clinical note entry task","definition":"A clinician enters a clinical note about a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22068"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"IMMLREV","display":"immunization list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of immunizations due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23269"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"REMLREV","display":"reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of health care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23270"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATDOC"}]},{"code":"ALLERLE","display":"allergy list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a known allergy for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23264"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CDSREV","display":"clinical decision support intervention review","definition":"A person reviews a recommendation/assessment provided automatically by a clinical decision support application for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"CLINNOTEREV","display":"clinical note review task","definition":"A person reviews a clinical note of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22065"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"DIAGLISTREV","display":"diagnosis list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of diagnoses of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22060"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"IMMLE","display":"immunization list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters an immunization due or received for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23265"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"LABRREV","display":"laboratory results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of laboratory results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22055"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MICRORREV","display":"microbiology results review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of microbiology results of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22056"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"MLREV","display":"medication list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of medication orders submitted to a given patient","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22053"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"OREV","display":"orders review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of orders submitted to a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATREPREV","display":"pathology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a pathology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22062"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PROBLISTREV","display":"problem list review task","definition":"A person reviews a list of problems of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22059"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RADREPREV","display":"radiology report review task","definition":"A person reviews a radiology report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22061"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"REMLE","display":"reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a health care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23266"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"RISKASSESS","display":"risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22063"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATINFO"}]},{"code":"PATPREFALT","display":"violates stated preferences, alternate available","definition":"**Definition:**The proposed therapy goes against preferences or consent constraints recorded in the patient's record. An alternate therapy meeting those constraints is available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22836"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PATPREF"}]},{"code":"PersDEID","display":"personal de-identified information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the information subject or by applicable jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24083"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersLDS","display":"personal limited data set information policy","definition":"Personal policy personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24085"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersNSI","display":"personal non-sensitive information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24084"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"PersPI","display":"personal public information policy","definition":"Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24086"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PersIP"}]},{"code":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","display":"ControlledUnclassifiedInformation","definition":"Information the US Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls. However, CUI does not include classified information (see definition above) or information a non-executive branch entity possesses and maintains in its own systems that did not come from, or was not created or possessed by or for, an executive branch agency or an entity acting for an agency. Law, regulation, or Government-wide policy may require or permit safeguarding or dissemination controls in three ways: Requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information but providing no specific controls, which makes the information CUI Basic; requiring or permitting agencies to control or protect the information and providing specific controls for doing so, which makes the information CUI Specified; or requiring or permitting agencies to control the information and specifying only some of those controls, which makes the information CUI Specified, but with CUI Basic controls where the authority does not specify. Based on CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html .\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Mandatory control marking, which must be displayed on the top portion of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Should be displayed at the bottom of each rendered or printed page containing controlled information. Must be displayed on each portion of controlled information at the portion level if portions are uncontrolled unclassified information. Based on CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf. For definitions of key terms see CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24052"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"SecurityLabelMark","display":"Security Label Mark","definition":"An abstract code for displayed Security Label tags.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* These marks may be based on any of the HL7 Security Labeling related codes from various code systems and values sets, which are organized according to the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System into HL7 Security Observation Type Named Tag Sets and valued with codes associated with the HL7 Security Observation Value Tag Set Names.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24046"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PrivacyMark"}]},{"code":"CUIMark","display":"CUI Mark","definition":"An originator must mark, persist, display, and convey computable and renderable Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) marks as required by policy. A recipient must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI marks on information received based on agreements with the originator..\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * As CUI custodians, Federal Agencies and their contractors must mark, persist, display, and convey these marks.\r\n * All CUI receivers must consume, persist, display, and reconvey CUI markings on information further disclosed\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nIn accordance with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and US Executive Order 13556 Controlled Unclassified Information, US Federal Agencies and their contractors are charged with classifying and marking certain information they create as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).\r\n\r\nThe following definitions, which are provided for context, are based on terms defined by the CUI Glossary https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/cui-glossary.html\r\n\r\n * CUI is defined as \"information in any form that the Government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the Government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls\"\r\n * Designating CUI occurs when an authorized holder, consistent with US 32 CFR Part 2002 and the CUI Registry, determines that a specific item of information falls into a CUI category or subcategory.\r\n * The designating agency is the executive branch agency that designates or approves the designation of a specific item of information as CUI.\r\n * The authorized holder who designates the CUI must make recipients aware of the information's CUI status when disseminating that information.\r\n * Disseminating occurs when authorized holders provide access, transmit, or transfer CUI to other authorized holders through any means, whether internal or external to the agency.\r\n\r\nOnce designated as CUI, US Federal Agencies and their contractors must assign CUI marks as prescribed by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) CUI Registry, and display marks as prescribed by the CUI Marking Handbook.\r\n\r\nCUI markings must be displayed on hard copy, on containers, electronic media, and to end users for IT systems.\r\n\r\nWhen HL7 content is designated as CUI, these computable markings can be interoperably conveyed using HL7 security label CUI tags, and may be included in HL7 text and narrative elements as human readable markings.\r\n\r\n**Impact of CUI markings:**\r\n\r\nCUI Custodians must enforce CUI security controls per applicable CUI policies. Federal agencies and their contractors must adhere to FISMA and NIST SP 800-53 security controls. Custodians, who are not Federal agencies or agency contractors, and are receivers of CUI, must adhere to NIST SP 800-171 security controls and those dictated by the Authorities indicated by the assigned CUI markings.\r\n\r\nFor most participants in US healthcare information exchange, including Federal Agencies and their contractors, additional controls are required by HIPAA Security standards for health information US 42 USC 1320d-2(d)(2) https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/USCODE-2016-title42/pdf/USCODE-2016-title42-chap7-subchapXI-partC-sec1320d-2.pdf\r\n\r\nFederal Agencies and their contractors may be the CUI classifier of original CUI content; or a CUI derivative classifier, which reclassifies CUI content that has been aggregated with other CUI or Unclassified Uncontrolled Information (U) or dissembled from a larger CUI content; or declassifiers, depending on the designating agency's policies.\r\n\r\nApplicable CUI policies include the following and any future applicable updates to policies or laws related to CUI:\r\n\r\n * Executive Order 13556 https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2010/11/09/2010-28360/controlled-unclassified-information\r\n * US 32 CFR Part 2002 https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CFR-2017-title32-vol6/pdf/CFR-2017-title32-vol6-part2002.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171 https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-171r1.pdf\r\n * NIST SP 800-171A https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-171A\r\n * CUI Marking Handbook https://www.archives.gov/files/cui/20161206-cui-marking-handbook-v1-1.pdf\r\n * CUI Registry - Health Information Category https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/category-detail/health-info\r\n * CUI Registry: Limited Dissemination Controls https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/limited-dissemination\r\n * CUI Policy and Guidance https://www.archives.gov/cui/registry/policy-guidance","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24129"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PRIVMARK"}]},{"code":"DENTPRG","display":"dental program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for dental care to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22131"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"DISEASEPRG","display":"public health program","definition":"**Definition:** A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for health and social services to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria related to a particular disease.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Reproductive health, sexually transmitted disease, and end renal disease programs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22133"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MANDPOL","display":"mandatory health program","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22149"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"MENTPRG","display":"mental health program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded mental health program for beneficiaries meeting financial and mental health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22141"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SAFNET","display":"safety net clinic program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded program to support provision of care to underserved populations through safety net clinics.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., safety net providers such as federally qualified health centers (FQHC) receive funding under PHSA Section 330 grants administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22142"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBPRG","display":"substance use program","definition":"**Definition:** Government administered and funded substance use program for beneficiaries meeting financial, substance use behavior, and health status criteria. Beneficiaries may be required to enroll as a result of legal proceedings. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.\r\n\r\n**Example:** In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22143"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDIZ","display":"subsidized health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22137"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"PUBLICPOL"}]},{"code":"ALGY","display":"Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to the proposed product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16674"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"INT","display":"Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to the proposed product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16673"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REACT"}]},{"code":"NOAUTH","display":"no disclosure without subject authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without information subject's authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23394"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOCOLLECT","display":"no collection","definition":"Prohibition on collection or storage of the information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23395"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCD","display":"no disclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational approved patient restriction.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23396"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NODSCLCDS","display":"no disclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23629"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOINTEGRATE","display":"no integration","definition":"Prohibition on Integration into other records.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23397"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOLIST","display":"no unlisted entity disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to entities on specific access list.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23398"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOMOU","display":"no disclosure without MOU","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without an interagency service agreement or memorandum of understanding (MOU).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23399"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOORGPOL","display":"no disclosure without organizational authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without organizational authorization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23400"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPAT","display":"no disclosure to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosing information to patient, family or caregivers without attending provider's authorization.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The information may be labeled with the ActInformationSensitivity TBOO code, triggering application of this RefrainPolicy code as a handling caveat controlling access.\r\n\r\nMaps to FHIR NOPAT: Typically, this is used on an Alert resource, when the alert records information on patient abuse or non-compliance.\r\n\r\nFHIR print name is \"keep information from patient\". Maps to the French realm - code: INVISIBLE\\_PATIENT.\r\n\r\n * displayName: Document non visible par le patient\r\n * codingScheme: 1.2.250.1.213.1.1.4.13\r\n\r\nFrench use case: A label for documents that the author chose to hide from the patient until the content can be disclose to the patient in a face to face meeting between a healthcare professional and the patient (in French law some results like cancer diagnosis or AIDS diagnosis must be announced to the patient by a healthcare professional and should not be find out by the patient alone).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23657"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOPERSISTP","display":"no collection beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on collection of the information beyond time necessary to accomplish authorized purpose of use is prohibited.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23401"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSLCD","display":"no redisclosure without consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without patient consent directive.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"synonymCode","valueCode":"NORDSCLCD"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23402"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLCDS","display":"no redisclosure without information subject's consent directive","definition":"Prohibition on redisclosure without a consent directive from the information subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23630"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORDSCLW","display":"no disclosure without jurisdictional authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure without authorization under jurisdictional law.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23403"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NORELINK","display":"no relinking","definition":"Prohibition on associating de-identified or pseudonymized information with other information in a manner that could or does result in disclosing information intended to be masked.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23404"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOREUSE","display":"no reuse beyond purpose of use","definition":"Prohibition on use of the information beyond the purpose of use initially authorized.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23405"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"NOVIP","display":"no unauthorized VIP disclosure","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except to principals with access permission to specific VIP information.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23406"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"ORCON","display":"no disclosure without originator authorization","definition":"Prohibition on disclosure except as permitted by the information originator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23407"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RefrainPolicy"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLE","display":"wellness reminder list entry","definition":"**Description:** A person enters a wellness or preventive care reminder for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23267"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLE"}]},{"code":"WELLREMLREV","display":"wellness reminder list review","definition":"**Description:** A person reviews a list of wellness or preventive care reminders for a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23271"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REMLREV"}]},{"code":"MAXOCCURS","display":"repetitions above maximum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is above the maximum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21664"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"MINOCCURS","display":"repetitions below minimum","definition":"**Description:**The number of repeating elements is below the minimum number of repetitions allowed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"REP_RANGE"}]},{"code":"RSDID","display":"de-identified information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes, but without consent to re-identify the information under any circumstance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22207"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RSREID","display":"re-identifiable information access","definition":"**Definition:** Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes re-identified under specific circumstances outlined in the consent.\r\n\r\n**Example::** Where there is a need to inform the subject of potential health issues.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22208"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RESEARCH"}]},{"code":"RFC","display":"Refill - Complete","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16216"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFF","display":"Refill (First fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16218"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFP","display":"Refill - Part Fill","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16217"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFS","display":"refill partial strength","definition":"A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21819"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"TB","display":"Trial Balance","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16213"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RF"}]},{"code":"RFCS","display":"refill complete partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21820"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFC"}]},{"code":"RFFS","display":"refill partial strength (first fill this facility)","definition":"The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21821"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFF"}]},{"code":"RFPS","display":"refill part fill partial strength","definition":"A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21822"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RFP"}]},{"code":"FALLRISK","display":"falls risk assessment instrument task","definition":"A person reviews a Falls Risk Assessment Instrument report of a given patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22064"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RISKASSESS"}]},{"code":"RALG","display":"Related Allergy Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient allergy to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Allergies are immune based reactions.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16678"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RAR","display":"Related Prior Reaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded prior adverse reaction to a cross-sensitivity related product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16679"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"RINT","display":"Related Intolerance Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or contraindicated because of a recorded patient intolerance to a cross-sensitivity related product. (Intolerances are non-immune based sensitivities.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16677"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"RREACT"}]},{"code":"SECALTINTOBS","display":"security alteration integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the mechanism used for authorized transformations of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security alteration integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation with a code used to indicate the mechanism used for authorized transformation of an IT resource, including:\r\n\r\n * translation\r\n * syntactic transformation\r\n * semantic mapping\r\n * redaction\r\n * masking\r\n * pseudonymization\r\n * anonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23478"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECDATINTOBS","display":"security data integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the data integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the security mechanism used to preserve resource accuracy and consistency. Data integrity is defined by ISO 22600-23.3.21 as: \"The property that data has not been altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner\", and by ISO/IEC 2382-8: The property of data whose accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made.\"\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security data integrity observation metadata, which may value the observation, include cryptographic hash function and digital signature.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23479"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTCONOBS","display":"security integrity confidence observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity confidence of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity confidence observation metadata, which may value the observation, include highly reliable, uncertain reliability, and not reliable.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A security integrity confidence observation on an Act may indicate that a valued Act.uncertaintycode attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservationValue. This supports the business requirements for increasing or decreasing the assessment of the reliability or trustworthiness of an IT resource based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act statement level of uncertainty.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23477"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVOBS","display":"security integrity provenance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the provenance integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the lifecycle completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status such as its creation, modification, suspension, and deletion; locations in which the resource has been collected or archived, from which it may be retrieved, and the history of its distribution and disclosure. Integrity provenance metadata about an IT resource may be used to assess its veracity, reliability, and trustworthiness.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance observation metadata, which may value the observation about an IT resource, include:\r\n\r\n * completeness or workflow status, such as authentication\r\n * the entity responsible for original authoring or informing about an IT resource\r\n * the entity responsible for a report or assertion about an IT resource relayed \"second-hand\"\r\n * the entity responsible for excerpting, transforming, or compiling an IT resource","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23480"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTSTOBS","display":"security integrity status observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Indicates the completeness of an IT resource in terms of workflow status, which may impact users that are authorized to access and use the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity status observation metadata, which may value the observation, include codes from the HL7 DocumentCompletion code system such as legally authenticated, in progress, and incomplete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23476"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVABOBS","display":"security integrity provenance asserted by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that made assertions about the resource. The asserting entity may not be the original informant about the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance asserted by observation metadata, which may value the observation, including:\r\n\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * assertions about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23482"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTPRVRBOBS","display":"security integrity provenance reported by observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which indicates the entity that reported the existence of the resource. The reporting entity may not be the original author of the resource.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity provenance reported by observation metadata, which may value the observation, include:\r\n\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a patient\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a clinician\r\n * reports about an IT resource by a device","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23481"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECINTPRVOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCATOBS","display":"security category observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the category of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security category metadata is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"A nonhierarchical grouping of sensitive information used to control access to data more finely than with hierarchical security classification alone.\"\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security category observation supports requirement to specify the type of IT resource to facilitate application of appropriate levels of information security according to a range of levels of impact or consequences that might result from the unauthorized disclosure, modification, or use of the information or information system. A resource is assigned to a specific category of information (e.g., privacy, medical, proprietary, financial, investigative, contractor sensitive, security management) defined by an organization or in some instances, by a specific law, Executive Order, directive, policy, or regulation. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security categories include:\r\n\r\n * Compartment: A division of data into isolated blocks with separate security controls for the purpose of reducing risk. (ISO 2382-8). A security label tag that \"segments\" an IT resource by indicating that access and use is restricted to members of a defined community or project. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)\r\n * Sensitivity: The characteristic of an IT resource which implies its value or importance and may include its vulnerability. (ISO 7492-2) Privacy metadata for information perceived as undesirable to share. (HL7 Healthcare Classification System)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23473"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCLASSOBS","display":"security classification observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the classification of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security classification is defined by ISO/IEC 2382-8:1998(E/F)/ T-REC-X.812-1995 as: \"The determination of which specific degree of protection against access the data or information requires, together with a designation of that degree of protection.\" Security classification metadata is based on an analysis of applicable policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm that could result from unauthorized disclosure.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security classification observation may indicate that the confidentiality level indicated by an Act or Role confidentiality attribute has been overridden by the entity responsible for ascribing the SecurityClassificationObservationValue. This supports the business requirement for increasing or decreasing the level of confidentiality (classification or declassification) based on parameters beyond the original assignment of an Act or Role confidentiality.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security classification include: HL7 Confidentiality Codes such as very restricted, unrestricted, and normal. Intelligence community examples include top secret, secret, and confidential.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Security classification observation type codes designate security label field types, which are valued with an applicable SecurityClassificationObservationValue code as the \"security label tag\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23472"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECCONOBS","display":"security control observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the control of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions. Security control metadata convey instructions to users and receivers for secure distribution, transmission, and storage; dictate obligations or mandated actions; specify any action prohibited by refrain policy such as dissemination controls; and stipulate the permissible purpose of use of an IT resource.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security control observation supports requirement to specify applicable management, operational, and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) prescribed for an information system to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its information. \\[FIPS 199\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security control metadata include:\r\n\r\n * handling caveats\r\n * dissemination controls\r\n * obligations\r\n * refrain policies\r\n * purpose of use constraints","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23474"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECINTOBS","display":"security integrity observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used to make access control decisions.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* A security integrity observation supports the requirement to guard against improper information modification or destruction, and includes ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity. (44 U.S.C., SEC. 3542)\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Types of security integrity metadata include:\r\n\r\n * Integrity status, which indicates the completeness or workflow status of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)\r\n * Integrity confidence, which indicates the reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource\r\n * Integrity control, which indicates pertinent handling caveats, obligations, refrain policies, and purpose of use for the resource\r\n * Data integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used to ensure that the accuracy and consistency are preserved regardless of changes made (ISO/IEC DIS 2382-8)\r\n * Alteration integrity, which indicate the security mechanisms used for authorized transformations of the resource\r\n * Integrity provenance, which indicates the entity responsible for a report or assertion relayed \"second-hand\" about an IT resource","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23475"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBS","display":"SECTRSTOBS","definition":"An observation identifying trust metadata about an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), which may be used as a trust attribute to populate a computable trust policy, trust credential, trust assertion, or trust label field in a security label or trust policy, which are principally used for authentication, authorization, and access control decisions.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBS","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23667"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBS","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23666"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBS","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\n**For example,**\r\n\r\n * A Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. For example, a particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\r\n * A Certificate Practice Statement (CSP), which is a statement of the practices which an Authority employs in issuing and managing certificates. \\[Trust Service Principles and Criteria for Certification Authorities Version 2.0 March 2011 Copyright 2011 by Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23668"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBS","display":"trust framework observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23670"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBS","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23669"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBS","display":"trust mechanism observation","definition":"Type of security metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23671"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SECTRSTOBS"}]},{"code":"ConfidentialMark","display":"confidential mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered as \"Confidential\", which indicates to end users that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing must be protected at a level of protection as dictated by applicable policy.\r\n\r\nMay be used to indicate proprietary or classified information that is, for example, business, intelligence, or project related, e.g., secret ingredients in a therapeutic substance; location of disaster health facilities and providers, or the name of a manufacturer or project contractor. Example use cases include a display to alert authorized business system users that they are viewing additionally protected proprietary and business confidential information deemed proprietary under an applicable jurisdictional or organizational policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \r\n\r\nThe ConfidentialMark (confidential mark) description is based on the HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24048"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"COPYMark","display":"copy of original mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hardcopy information is a copy of an authoritative source for the information. The copy is not considered authoritative but is a duplicate of the authoritative content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Applicable policy will dictate how the COPY mark will be displayed. Typical renderings include the marking appearing at the top or \"banner\" of electronic or hardcopy pages, or as watermarks set diagonally across each page.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24051"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DeliverToAddresseeOnlyMark","display":"deliver only to addressee mark","definition":"A displayed mark on an electronic transmission or physical container such as an electronic transmittal wrapper, batch file, message header, or a physical envelop or package indicating that the contents, whether electronic or hardcopy information, must only be delivered to the authorized recipient(s) named in the address.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Required by US 32 CRF Part 2002 for container storing or transmitting CUI.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24050"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RedisclosureProhibitionMark","display":"prohibition against redisclosure mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as a prescribed text warning that the electronic or hardcopy information shall not be further disclosed without consent of the subject of the information. For example, in order to warn a recipient of 42 CFR Part 2 information of the redisclosure restrictions, the rule mandates that end users receive a written prohibition against redisclosure unless authorized by patient consent or otherwise permitted by Part 2. See 42 CFR § 2.32 Prohibition on re-disclosure. (a)Notice to accompany disclosure. Each disclosure made with the patient's written consent must be accompanied by one of the following written statements: (1) This information has been disclosed to you from records protected by federal confidentiality rules ( 42 CFR part 2). The federal rules prohibit you from making any further disclosure of information in this record that identifies a patient as having or having had a substance use disorder either directly, by reference to publicly available information, or through verification of such identification by another person unless further disclosure is expressly permitted by the written consent of the individual whose information is being disclosed or as otherwise permitted by 42 CFR part 2. A general authorization for the release of medical or other information is NOT sufficient for this purpose (see § 2.31). The federal rules restrict any use of the information to investigate or prosecute with regard to a crime any patient with a substance use disorder, except as provided at § § 2.12(c)(5) and 2.65; or (2) 42 CFR part 2 prohibits unauthorized disclosure of these records. https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/42/2.32\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Example of marking requirement from SAMHSA FAQ Response to question 13:\r\n\r\nWould a logon or splash page notification on an HIO's portal that contains the Part 2 notice prohibiting redisclosure be sufficient to meet Part 2's requirement that disclosures made with patient consent be accompanied by such a statement?\r\n\r\nNo. Part 2 requires each disclosure made with written patient consent to be accompanied by a written statement that the information disclosed is protected by federal law and that the recipient cannot make any further disclosure of it unless permitted by the regulations (42 CFR § 2.32). A logon page is the page where a user logs onto a computer system; a splash page is an introductory page to a web site. A logon or splash page notification on a HIO's portal including the statement as required by § 2.32 would not be sufficient notification regarding prohibitions on redisclosure since it would not accompany a specific disclosure. The notification must be tied to the Part 2 information being disclosed in order to ensure that the recipient of that information knows that specific information is protected by Part 2 and cannot be redisclosed except as authorized by the express written consent of the person to whom it pertains or as otherwise permitted by Part 2. https://www.samhsa.gov/about-us/who-we-are/laws-regulations/confidentiality-regulations-faqs","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24049"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"RestrictedConfidentialityMark","display":"restricted confidentiality mark","definition":"A displayed mark rendered to end users as \"Restricted Confidentiality\", which indicates that the electronic or hardcopy information they are viewing, must be protected at a restricted level of confidentiality protection as defined by HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted). Examples: Includes information that is additionally protected such as sensitive conditions mental health, HIV, substance abuse, domestic violence, child abuse, genetic disease, and reproductive health; or sensitive demographic information such as a patient's standing as an employee or a celebrity. Use cases include a display to alert authorized EHR users that they are viewing additionally protected health information deemed sensitive by an applicable jurisdictional, organizational, or personal privacy policy.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* The definition is based on HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\" (restricted), which is described as:\r\n\r\nPrivacy metadata indicating highly sensitive, potentially stigmatizing information, which presents a high risk to the information subject if disclosed without authorization. May be pre-empted by jurisdictional law, e.g., for public health reporting or emergency treatment. Foundational definitions of Confidentiality: From HL7 Confidentiality Concept Domain: Types of privacy metadata classifying an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) according to its level of sensitivity, which is based on an analysis of applicable privacy policies and the risk of financial, reputational, or other harm to an individual or entity that could result if made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.\r\n\r\nUsage Note from HL7 Confidentiality code \"R\": Confidentiality codes may be used in security labels and privacy markings to classify IT resources based on sensitivity to indicate the obligation of a custodian or receiver to ensure that the protected resource is not made available or disclosed to individuals, entities, or processes (security principals) unless authorized per applicable policies. Confidentiality codes may also be used in the clearances of initiators requesting access to protected resources.\r\n\r\nThis metadata indicates that the receiver may be obligated to comply with applicable, prevailing (default) jurisdictional privacy law or disclosure authorization.\r\n\r\nMap: Definition aligns with ISO 7498-2:1989 - Confidentiality is the property that information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes. Map: Partial Map to ISO 13606-4 Sensitivity Level (3) Clinical Care: Default for normal clinical care access (i.e. most clinical staff directly caring for the patient should be able to access nearly all of the EHR). Maps to normal confidentiality for treatment information but not to ancillary care, payment and operations.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24047"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"DRAFTMark","display":"Draft Mark","definition":"A displayed mark indicating that the electronic or hard-copy information is still under development and is not yet considered to be ready for normal use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24150"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityLabelMark"}]},{"code":"AUTHPOL","display":"authorization policy","definition":"Authorisation policies are essentially security policies related to access-control and specify what activities a subject is permitted or forbidden to do, to a set of target objects. They are designed to protect target objects so are interpreted by access control agents or the run-time systems at the target system.\r\n\r\nA positive authorisation policy defines the actions that a subject is permitted to perform on a target. A negative authorisation policy specifies the actions that a subject is forbidden to perform on a target. Positive authorisation policies may also include filters to transform the parameters associated with their actions. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23934"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"DELEPOL","display":"delegation policy","definition":"Delegation policies specify which actions subjects are allowed to delegate to others. A delegation policy thus specifies an authorisation to delegate. Subjects must already possess the access rights to be delegated.\r\n\r\nDelegation policies are aimed at subjects delegating rights to servers or third parties to perform actions on their behalf and are not meant to be the means by which security administrators would assign rights to subjects. A negative delegation policy identifies what delegations are forbidden.\r\n\r\nA Delegation policy specifies the authorisation policy from which delegated rights are derived, the grantors, which are the entities which can delegate these access rights, and the grantees, which are the entities to which the access rights can be delegated. There are two types of delegation policy, positive and negative. (Based on PONDERS)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23933"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"ObligationPolicy","display":"obligation policy","definition":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Per ISO 22600-2, ObligationPolicy instances 'are event-triggered and define actions to be performed by manager agent'. Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: This value set refers to the action required to receive the permission specified in the privacy rule. Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23372"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"PrivacyMark","display":"privacy mark","definition":"An abstract code for human readable marks indicating, e.g., the level of confidentiality protection, an authorized compartment, the integrity, or the handling instruction required by applicable policy. Such markings must be displayed as directed by applicable policy on electronically rendered information content and any electronic transmittal envelope or container; or on hardcopy information and any physical transmittal envelope or container.\r\n\r\nExamples of protocols for marking displays on electronic or hardcopy rendered content: Across the top or \"banner\" of each page ; as a watermark placed diagonally cross each page; at the bottom or \"footer\" of each page; and may be displayed at the beginning of any portion within the content that required markings different than other portions of the content. The banner or top of page marking typically acts as a \"high watermark\" by including all of the markings made on any marked portions within the entirety of the information content.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* A \"Privacy Mark\" is a Security Control Observation (SECCONOBS) named tag set as specified by the HL7 Privacy and Security Classification System (HCS). A Privacy Mark Named Tag Set is valued with a Privacy Mark leaf code \"tag\", which is a member of the Security Control Observation Value (\\_SecurityObservationValue) tag set. Related Security Control Observation named tag sets are Purpose of Use, Obligation Policy, and Refrain Policy, each with their own Security Control Observation Value tag sets.\r\n\r\nFoundational standard definitions: ISO 22600-3 Section A.3.4.3 - If present, the privacy-mark is not used for access control. The content of the privacy-mark may be defined by the security policy in force (identified by the security-policy-identifier) which may define a list of values to be used. Alternately, the value may be determined by the originator of the security-label. IEEE Security Glossary Compendium 93- CESG Memorandum No.1 Issue 1.2 Oct 1992 - Human readable word or phrase acting as an indicator of all or part of the security constraints that apply to a document so marked. NOTE: A machine readable representation of a marking.\r\n\r\n*Comment:* While policies requiring creators, processors, custodians, senders or recipients apply, enforce, and persist applicable Privacy Marks may be dictated by a jurisdiction, organization or personal privacy, security, or integrity policy, those required to comply may be governed under different policies, so compliance may need to be enforced through trust contracts. For example, information content marked with GDPR related policies may require adherence by processors or recipients outside of the European Union. For this reason, this code system is likely to evolve with the inclusion of multiple policy domains needing to communicate encoded policies in a standard, interoperable manner.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24045"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"RefrainPolicy","display":"refrain policy","definition":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"ISO 22600-2 species that a Refrain Policy \"defines actions the subjects must refrain from performing\". Per HL7 Composite Security and Privacy Domain Analysis Model: May be used to indicate that a specific action is prohibited based on specific access control attributes e.g., purpose of use, information type, user role, etc."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23393"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SecurityPolicy"}]},{"code":"BH","display":"behavioral health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to behavioral and emotional disturbances affecting social adjustment and physical health, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23894"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"MH","display":"mental health information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to psychological disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Mental health information may be deemed specifically sensitive and distinct from physical health, substance use disorders, and behavioral disabilities and disorders in some jurisdictions.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23893"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSY","display":"psychiatry disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychiatry psychiatric disorder information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23341"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"PSYTHPN","display":"psychotherapy note information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling psychotherapy note information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* In some jurisdiction, disclosure of psychotherapy notes requires patient consent.\r\n\r\nIf there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23932"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUD","display":"substance use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol or drug use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23890"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SPI"}]},{"code":"SUBSIDMC","display":"subsidized managed care program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage through managed care contracts for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized managed care program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22139"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"SUBSUPP","display":"subsidized supplemental health program","definition":"**Definition:** A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria for a supplemental health policy or program such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.\r\n\r\n**Example:** Supplemental health coverage program may cover the cost of a health program or policy financial participations, such as the copays and the premiums, and may provide coverage for services in addition to those covered under the supplemented health program or policy. In the U.S., Medicaid programs may pay the premium for a covered party who is also covered under the Medicare program or a private health policy.\r\n\r\n*Discussion:* The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized supplemental retiree health program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22140"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUBSIDIZ"}]},{"code":"ETHUD","display":"alcohol use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to alcohol use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23891"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"OPIOIDUD","display":"opioid use disorder information sensitivity","definition":"Policy for handling information related to opioid use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23892"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"SUD"}]},{"code":"TBS","display":"trial balance partial strength","definition":"A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21823"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TB"}]},{"code":"ALRTENDLATE","display":"end too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the end of administration is too close to another planned therapy.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22837"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"ALRTSTRTLATE","display":"start too late alert","definition":"**Definition:**Proposed therapy may be inappropriate or ineffective because the start of administration is too late after the onset of the condition.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22838"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIME"}]},{"code":"INTERVAL","display":"outside requested time","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed outside the bounds of the time period requested","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22846"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"MINFREQ","display":"too soon within frequency based on the usage","definition":"**Definition:**The therapy action is being performed too soon after the previous occurrence based on the requested frequency","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22845"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TIMING"}]},{"code":"DRG","display":"Drug Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with an existing or recent drug therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16660"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NHP","display":"Natural Health Product Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with existing or recent natural health product therapy","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16661"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"NONRX","display":"Non-Prescription Interaction Alert","definition":"Proposed therapy may interact with a non-prescription drug (e.g. alcohol, tobacco, Aspirin)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16663"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TPROD"}]},{"code":"SALE","display":"Sale","definition":"Transfer of ownership for a product for financial compensation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17960"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"TRANSFER"}]},{"code":"BUS","display":"business constraint violation","definition":"**Description:**A local business rule relating multiple elements has been violated.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21665"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"CODE_INVAL","display":"code is not valid","definition":"**Description:**The specified code is not valid against the list of codes allowed for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21659"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"FORMAT","display":"invalid format","definition":"**Description:**The element does not follow the formatting or type rules defined for the field.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21655"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"ILLEGAL","display":"illegal","definition":"**Description:**The request is missing elements or contains elements which cause it to not meet the legal standards for actioning.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21652"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"LEN_RANGE","display":"length out of range","definition":"**Description:**The length of the data specified falls out of the range defined for the element.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21656"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"VALIDAT"}]},{"code":"MISSCOND","display":"conditional element missing","definition":"**Description:**The specified element must be specified with a non-null value under certain conditions. 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reasons, regardless of whether or not they were paid for the time off or were seeking other jobs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23920"}]},{"code":"NotInLaborForce","display":"Not In Labor Force","definition":"Persons not classified as employed or unemployed, meaning those who have no job and are not looking for one.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23922"}]},{"code":"Unemployed","display":"Unemployed","definition":"Persons who currently have no employment, but are available for work and have made specific efforts to find employment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23921"}]}]},{"code":"_GeneticObservationValue","display":"GeneticObservationValue","definition":"**Description:** The domain contains genetic analysis specific observation values, e.g. Homozygote, Heterozygote, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22648"}],"concept":[{"code":"Homozygote","display":"HOMO","definition":"**Description:** An individual having different alleles at one or more loci regarding a specific character","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22649"}]}]},{"code":"_MeasurementImprovementNotation","display":"Measurement Improvement Notation","definition":"Observation values that indicate what change in a measurement value or score is indicative of an improvement in the measured item or scored issue.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"24042"}],"concept":[{"code":"DecrIsImp","display":"Decreased score indicates improvement","definition":"Improvement is indicated as a decrease in the score or measurement (e.g. Lower score indicates better 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characteristics (e.g., Male smokers between the ages of 40 and 50 years, exposure to treatment, exposure duration).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23553"}]},{"code":"CONTVAR","display":"continuous variable measure scoring","definition":"A measure score in which each individual value for the measure can fall anywhere along a continuous scale (e.g., mean time to thrombolytics which aggregates the time in minutes from a case presenting with chest pain to the time of administration of thrombolytics).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23038"}]},{"code":"PROPOR","display":"proportion measure scoring","definition":"A score derived by dividing the number of cases that meet a criterion for quality (the numerator) by the number of eligible cases within a given time frame (the denominator) where the numerator cases are a subset of the denominator cases (e.g., percentage of eligible women with a mammogram performed in the last year).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23039"}]},{"code":"RATIO","display":"ratio measure scoring","definition":"A score that may have a value of zero or greater that is derived by dividing a count of one type of data by a count of another type of data (e.g., the number of patients with central lines who develop infection divided by the number of central line days).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23040"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationMeasureType","display":"ObservationMeasureType","definition":"Observation values used to indicate what kind of health quality measure is used.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23041"}],"concept":[{"code":"COMPOSITE","display":"composite measure type","definition":"A measure that is composed from one or more other measures and indicates an overall summary of those measures.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23650"}]},{"code":"EFFICIENCY","display":"efficiency measure type","definition":"A measure related to the efficiency of medical treatment.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23652"}]},{"code":"EXPERIENCE","display":"experience measure type","definition":"A measure related to the level of patient engagement or patient experience of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23653"}]},{"code":"OUTCOME","display":"outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that indicates the result of the performance (or non-performance) of a function or process.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23042"}],"concept":[{"code":"INTERM-OM","display":"intermediate outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that evaluates the change over time of a physiologic state observable that is associated with a specific long-term health outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23862"}]},{"code":"PRO-PM","display":"patient reported outcome measure type","definition":"A measure that is a comparison of patient reported outcomes for a single or multiple patients collected via an instrument specifically designed to obtain input directly from patients.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23861"}]}]},{"code":"PROCESS","display":"process measure type","definition":"A measure which focuses on a process which leads to a certain outcome, meaning that a scientific basis exists for believing that the process, when executed well, will increase the probability of achieving a desired outcome.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23043"}],"concept":[{"code":"APPROPRIATE","display":"appropriate use process measure","definition":"A measure that assesses the use of one or more processes where the expected health benefit exceeds the expected negative consequences.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23863"}]}]},{"code":"RESOURCE","display":"resource use measure type","definition":"A measure related to the extent of use of clinical resources or cost of care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23651"}]},{"code":"STRUCTURE","display":"structure measure type","definition":"A measure related to the structure of patient care.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23654"}]}]},{"code":"_ObservationPopulationInclusion","display":"ObservationPopulationInclusion","definition":"Observation values used to assert various populations that a subject falls into.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23044"}],"concept":[{"code":"DENEX","display":"denominator exclusions","definition":"Patients who should be removed from the eMeasure population and denominator before determining if numerator criteria are met. Denominator exclusions are used in proportion and ratio measures to help narrow the denominator.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23442"}]},{"code":"DENEXCEP","display":"denominator exceptions","definition":"Denominator exceptions are those conditions that should remove a patient, procedure or unit of measurement from the denominator only if the numerator criteria are not met. Denominator exceptions allow for adjustment of the calculated score for those providers with higher risk populations. Denominator exceptions are used only in proportion eMeasures. They are not appropriate for ratio or continuous variable eMeasures. Denominator exceptions allow for the exercise of clinical judgment and should be specifically defined where capturing the information in a structured manner fits the clinical workflow. Generic denominator exception reasons used in proportion eMeasures fall into three general categories:\r\n\r\n * Medical reasons\r\n * Patient reasons\r\n * System reasons","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23046"}]},{"code":"DENOM","display":"denominator","definition":"It can be the same as the initial patient population or a subset of the initial patient population to further constrain the population for the purpose of the eMeasure. Different measures within an eMeasure set may have different Denominators. 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Details often include information based upon specific age groups, diagnoses, diagnostic and procedure codes, and enrollment periods.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23047"}]}]},{"code":"MSRPOPL","display":"measure population","definition":"Measure population is used only in continuous variable eMeasures. It is a narrative description of the eMeasure population. (e.g., all patients seen in the Emergency Department during the measurement period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23048"}]},{"code":"NUMER","display":"numerator","definition":"Numerators are used in proportion and ratio eMeasures. In proportion measures the numerator criteria are the processes or outcomes expected for each patient, procedure, or other unit of measurement defined in the denominator. In ratio measures the numerator is related, but not directly derived from the denominator (e.g., a numerator listing the number of central line blood stream infections and a denominator indicating the days per thousand of central line usage in a specific time period).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23049"}]},{"code":"NUMEX","display":"numerator exclusions","definition":"Numerator Exclusions are used only in ratio eMeasures to define instances that should not be included in the numerator data. (e.g., if the number of central line blood stream infections per 1000 catheter days were to exclude infections with a specific bacterium, that bacterium would be listed as a numerator exclusion.)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"deprecated"},{"code":"deprecationDate","valueDateTime":"2013-07-26"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23443"}]}]},{"code":"_PartialCompletionScale","display":"PartialCompletionScale","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21099"}],"concept":[{"code":"G","display":"Great extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 81-99% completion","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"18126"}]},{"code":"LE","display":"Large extent","definition":"Value for Act.partialCompletionCode attribute that implies 61-80% 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metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Confidentiality Codes","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23484"}]},{"code":"_SECCONOBV","display":"security control","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security control metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying dissemination controls, information handling caveats, purpose of use, refrain policies, and obligations to which custodians and information receivers must comply.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23486"}]},{"code":"_SECINTOBV","display":"security integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate security integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying integrity status, integrity confidence, and provenance.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23487"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECALTINTOBV","display":"alteration integrity","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation values used to indicate mechanism used for authorized alteration of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23497"}],"concept":[{"code":"ABSTRED","display":"abstracted","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of a more abstract version of the content, e.g., replacing exact value of an age or date field with a range, or remove the left digits of a credit card number or SSN.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23498"}]},{"code":"AGGRED","display":"aggregated","definition":"Security metadata observation values used to indicate the use of an algorithmic combination of actual values with the result of an aggregate function, e.g., average, sum, or count in order to limit disclosure of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to the minimum necessary.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23499"}]},{"code":"ANONYED","display":"anonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. No key to relink the data is retained.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23500"}]},{"code":"MAPPED","display":"mapped","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource semantic content has been transformed from one encoding to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MAP\" code does not indicate the semantic fidelity of the transformed content.\r\n\r\nTo indicate semantic fidelity for maps of HL7 to other code systems, this security alteration integrity observation may be further specified using an Act valued with Value Set: MapRelationship (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11052).\r\n\r\nSemantic fidelity of the mapped IT Resource may also be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23501"}]},{"code":"MASKED","display":"masked","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can make data unintelligible (that is, as unreadable and unusable by algorithmically transforming plaintext into ciphertext) such that it can only be accessed or used by authorized users. An authorized user may be provided a key to decrypt per license or \"shared secret\".\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"MASKED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has been further encrypted, and may be accessed only by an authorized user or receiver to which a decryption key is provided.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23502"}]},{"code":"PSEUDED","display":"pseudonymized","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability), by indicating the mechanism by which software systems can strip portions of the resource that could allow the identification of the source of the information or the information subject. Custodian may retain a key to relink data necessary to reidentify the information subject.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* Personal data which has been processed to make it impossible to know whose data it is. Used particularly for secondary use of health data. In some cases, it may be possible for authorized individuals to restore the identity of the individual, e.g.,for public health case management. Based on ISO/TS 25237:2008 Health informatics-Pseudonymization","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23503"}]},{"code":"REDACTED","display":"redacted","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can filter an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) to remove any portion of the resource that is not authorized to be access, used, or disclosed.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"REDACTED\" may be used, per applicable policy, as a flag to indicate to a user or receiver that some portion of an IT resource has filtered and not included in the content accessed or received.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23504"}]},{"code":"SUBSETTED","display":"subsetted","definition":"Metadata observation used to indicate that some information has been removed from the source object when the view this object contains was constructed because of configuration options when the view was created. The content may not be suitable for use as the basis of a record update\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* This is not suitable to be used when information is removed for security reasons - see the code REDACTED for this use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23730"}]},{"code":"SYNTAC","display":"syntactic transform","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource syntax has been transformed from one syntactical representation to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"SYNTAC\" code does not indicate the syntactical correctness of the syntactically transformed IT resource.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23505"}]},{"code":"TRSLT","display":"translated","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the IT resource has been translated from one human language to another.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* \"TRSLT\" does not indicate the fidelity of the translation or the languages translated.\r\n\r\nThe fidelity of the IT Resource translation may be indicated using a SecurityIntegrityConfidenceObservation.\r\n\r\nTo indicate languages, use the Value Set:HumanLanguage (2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.11526)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23506"}]},{"code":"VERSIONED","display":"versioned","definition":"Security metadata observation value conveying the alteration integrity of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) which indicates that the resource only retains versions of an IT resource for access and use per applicable policy\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* When this code is used, expectation is that the system has removed historical versions of the data that falls outside the time period deemed to be the effective time of the applicable version.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23507"}]}]},{"code":"_SECDATINTOBV","display":"data integrity","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate data integrity metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the mechanism used to preserve the accuracy and consistency of an IT resource such as a digital signature and a cryptographic hash function.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23494"}],"concept":[{"code":"CRYTOHASH","display":"cryptographic hash function","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems can establish that data was not modified in transit.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.19 definition of cryptographic checkvalue: Information which is derived by performing a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) on the data unit. The derivation of the checkvalue may be performed in one or more steps and is a result of a mathematical function of the key and a data unit. It is usually used to check the integrity of a data unit.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** \r\n\r\n * SHA-1\r\n * SHA-2 (Secure Hash Algorithm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23495"}]},{"code":"DIGSIG","display":"digital signature","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate the mechanism by which software systems use digital signature to establish that data has not been modified.\r\n\r\n*Rationale:* This definition is intended to align with the ISO 22600-2 3.3.26 definition of digital signature: Data appended to, or a cryptographic transformation (see cryptography) of, a data unit that allows a recipient of the data unit to prove the source and integrity of the data unit and protect against forgery e.g., by the recipient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23496"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTCONOBV","display":"integrity confidence","definition":"Abstract security observation value used to indicate integrity confidence metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the level of reliability and trustworthiness of an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23489"}],"concept":[{"code":"HRELIABLE","display":"highly reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be very high.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23490"}]},{"code":"RELIABLE","display":"reliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be adequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23491"}]},{"code":"UNCERTREL","display":"uncertain reliability","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be uncertain.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23492"}]},{"code":"UNRELIABLE","display":"unreliable","definition":"Security metadata observation value used to indicate that the veracity or trustworthiness of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) for a specified purpose of use is perceived to be or deemed by policy to be inadequate.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23493"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVOBV","display":"provenance","definition":"Abstract security metadata observation value used to indicate the provenance of an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23508"}],"concept":[{"code":"_SECINTPRVABOBV","display":"provenance asserted by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that asserted an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity asserting the resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23518"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINAST","display":"clinician asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23519"}]},{"code":"DEVAST","display":"device asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23523"}]},{"code":"HCPAST","display":"healthcare professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23520"}]},{"code":"PACQAST","display":"patient acquaintance asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23526"}]},{"code":"PATAST","display":"patient asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23524"}]},{"code":"PAYAST","display":"payer asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23522"}]},{"code":"PROAST","display":"professional asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23521"}]},{"code":"SDMAST","display":"substitute decision maker asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was asserted by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23525"}]},{"code":"AIAST","display":"Artificial Intelligence asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Artificial Intelligence (e.g. Clinical Decision Support, Machine Learning, Algorithm).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"123525"}]},{"code":"DICTAST","display":"Dictation asserted","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, or information object) was asserted by a Dictation algorithm transforming human communications (e.g. speech).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"223525"}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTPRVRBOBV","display":"provenance reported by","definition":"Abstract security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate the entity that reported the resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes conveying the provenance metadata about the entity reporting an IT resource.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23509"}],"concept":[{"code":"CLINRPT","display":"clinician reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a clinician.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23510"}]},{"code":"DEVRPT","display":"device reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a device.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23514"}]},{"code":"HCPRPT","display":"healthcare professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a healthcare professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23511"}]},{"code":"PACQRPT","display":"patient acquaintance reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient acquaintance.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23517"}]},{"code":"PATRPT","display":"patient reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a patient.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23515"}]},{"code":"PAYRPT","display":"payer reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a payer.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23513"}]},{"code":"PRORPT","display":"professional reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a professional.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23512"}]},{"code":"SDMRPT","display":"substitute decision maker reported","definition":"Security provenance metadata observation value used to indicate that an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability) was reported by a substitute decision maker.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23516"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SECINTSTOBV","display":"integrity status","definition":"Abstract security observation values used to indicate integrity status metadata.\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Codes, such as those in the HL7 DocumentClassification code system conveying the workflow status of resource as authenticated, legally authenticated, and in progress.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23488"}]}]},{"code":"SECTRSTOBV","display":"security trust observation","definition":"Observation value used to indicate aspects of trust applicable to an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23672"}],"concept":[{"code":"TRSTACCRDOBV","display":"trust accreditation observation","definition":"Values for security trust accreditation metadata observation made about the formal declaration by an authority or neutral third party that validates the technical, security, trust, and business practice conformance of Trust Agents to facilitate security, interoperability, and trust among participants within a security domain or trust framework.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23673"}]},{"code":"TRSTAGREOBV","display":"trust agreement observation","definition":"Values for security trust agreement metadata observation made about privacy and security requirements with which a security domain must comply. \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\] \\[ISO IEC 10181-1\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23674"}]},{"code":"TRSTCERTOBV","display":"trust certificate observation","definition":"Values for security trust certificate metadata observation made about a set of security-relevant data issued by a security authority or trusted third party, together with security information which is used to provide the integrity and data origin authentication services for an IT resource (data, information object, service, or system capability). \\[Based on ISO IEC 10181-1\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, a Certificate Policy (CP), which is a named set of rules that indicates the applicability of a certificate to a particular community and/or class of application with common security requirements. A particular Certificate Policy might indicate the applicability of a type of certificate to the authentication of electronic data interchange transactions for the trading of goods within a given price range. Another example is Cross Certification with Federal Bridge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23675"}]},{"code":"TRSTFWKOBV","display":"none supplied 5","definition":"Values for security trust framework metadata observation made about a complete set of contracts, regulations or commitments that enable participating actors to rely on certain assertions by other actors to fulfill their information security requirements. \\[Kantara Initiative\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23717"}]},{"code":"TRSTLOAOBV","display":"trust assurance observation","definition":"Values for security trust assurance metadata observation made about the digital quality or reliability of a trust assertion, activity, capability, information exchange, mechanism, process, or protocol.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23676"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN","display":"authentication level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nFor example, the degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23677"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAN1","display":"low authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have little or no confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 1 requires little or no confidence in the asserted identity. No identity proofing is required at this level, but the authentication mechanism should provide some assurance that the same claimant is accessing the protected transaction or data. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed and any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4, including Personal Identification Numbers (PINs), may be used. To be authenticated, the claimant must prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. At Level 1, long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23678"}]},{"code":"LOAAN2","display":"basic authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of basic digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have some confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 2 requires confidence that the asserted identity is accurate. Level 2 provides for single-factor remote network authentication, including identity-proofing requirements for presentation of identifying materials or information. A wide range of available authentication technologies can be employed, including any of the token methods of Levels 3 or 4, as well as passwords. Successful authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, and online guessing attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23679"}]},{"code":"LOAAN3","display":"medium authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of medium digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of verification and validation of the process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 3 is appropriate for transactions that need high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 3 provides multifactor remote network authentication. At this level, identity-proofing procedures require verification of identifying materials and information. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key or password through a cryptographic protocol. Cryptographic strength mechanisms should protect the primary authentication token (a cryptographic key) against compromise by the protocol threats, including eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks. A minimum of two authentication factors is required. Three kinds of tokens may be used:\r\n\r\n * \"soft\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a general-purpose computer,\r\n * \"hard\" cryptographic token, which has the key stored on a special hardware device, and\r\n * \"one-time password\" device token, which has symmetric key stored on a personal hardware device that is a cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 1 or higher. Validation testing of cryptographic modules and algorithms for conformance to Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, is managed by NIST.\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the claimant prove control of the token through a secure authentication protocol. The token must be unlocked with a password or biometric representation, or a password must be used in a secure authentication protocol, to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. Assertions issued about claimants as a result of a successful authentication are either cryptographically authenticated by relying parties (using approved methods) or are obtained directly from a trusted party via a secure authentication protocol. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23680"}]},{"code":"LOAAN4","display":"high authentication level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability of the digital reliability of the verification and validation process used to verify the claimed identity of an entity by securely associating an identifier and its authenticator. \\[Based on ISO 7498-2\\]\r\n\r\nThe degree of confidence in the vetting process used to establish the identity of the individual to whom the credential was issued, and 2) the degree of confidence that the individual who uses the credential is the individual to whom the credential was issued. \\[OMB M-04-04 E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication level of assurance indicates that the relying party may have very high confidence in the asserted identity's validity. Level 4 is for transactions that need very high confidence in the accuracy of the asserted identity. Level 4 provides the highest practical assurance of remote network authentication. Authentication is based on proof of possession of a key through a cryptographic protocol. This level is similar to Level 3 except that only “hardâ€? cryptographic tokens are allowed, cryptographic module validation requirements are strengthened, and subsequent critical data transfers must be authenticated via a key that is bound to the authentication process. The token should be a hardware cryptographic module validated at FIPS 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. This level requires a physical token, which cannot readily be copied, and operator authentication at Level 2 and higher, and ensures good, two-factor remote authentication.\r\n\r\nLevel 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that the claimant controls the token. Eavesdropper, replay, online guessing, verifier impersonation, and man-in-the-middle attacks are prevented. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the claimant and verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by the CSP. Strong approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23681"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAP","display":"authentication process level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23682"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAP1","display":"low authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nLow authentication process level of assurance indicates that (1) long-term shared authentication secrets may be revealed to verifiers; and (2) assertions and assertion references require protection from manufacture/modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23683"}]},{"code":"LOAAP2","display":"basic authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nBasic authentication process level of assurance indicates that long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any other party except Credential Service Provider (CSP). Sessions (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent verifiers by CSP. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any other party except Verifiers operated by the Credential Service Provider (CSP); however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 1 requirements, assertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23684"}]},{"code":"LOAAP3","display":"medium authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nMedium authentication process level of assurance indicates that the token can be unlocked with password, biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication. Long-term shared authentication secrets are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Credential Service Provider (CSP).\r\n\r\nAuthentication requires that the Claimant prove, through a secure authentication protocol, that he or she controls the token. The Claimant unlocks the token with a password or biometric, or uses a secure multi-token authentication protocol to establish two-factor authentication (through proof of possession of a physical or software token in combination with some memorized secret knowledge). Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. In addition to Level 2 requirements, assertions are protected against repudiation by the Verifier.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23685"}]},{"code":"LOAAP4","display":"high authentication process level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of a defined sequence of messages between a Claimant and a Verifier that demonstrates that the Claimant has possession and control of a valid token to establish his/her identity, and optionally, demonstrates to the Claimant that he or she is communicating with the intended Verifier. \\[Based on NIST SP 800-63-2\\]\r\n\r\nHigh authentication process level of assurance indicates all sensitive data transfer are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. Level 4 requires strong cryptographic authentication of all communicating parties and all sensitive data transfers between the parties. Either public key or symmetric key technology may be used. Authentication requires that the Claimant prove through a secure authentication protocol that he or she controls the token. All protocol threats at Level 3 are required to be prevented at Level 4. Protocols shall also be strongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. Long-term shared authentication secrets, if used, are never revealed to any party except the Claimant and Verifiers operated directly by the CSP; however, session (temporary) shared secrets may be provided to independent Verifiers by the CSP. Approved cryptographic techniques are used for all operations. All sensitive data transfers are cryptographically authenticated using keys bound to the authentication process. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23686"}]}]},{"code":"LOAAS","display":"assertion level of assurance value","definition":"The value assigned as the indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23687"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAAS1","display":"low assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions and assertion references require protection from modification and reuse attacks. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23688"}]},{"code":"LOAAS2","display":"basic assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are resistant to disclosure, redirection, capture and substitution attacks. Approved cryptographic techniques are required for all assertion protocols. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23689"}]},{"code":"LOAAS3","display":"medium assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nAssertions are protected against repudiation by the verifier. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23690"}]},{"code":"LOAAS4","display":"high assertion level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high quality or reliability of the statement from a Verifier to a Relying Party (RP) that contains identity information about a Subscriber. Assertions may also contain verified attributes.\r\n\r\nStrongly resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks. \"Bearer\" assertions are not used. \"Holder-of-key\" assertions may be used. RP maintains records of the assertions. \\[Summary of the technical requirements specified in NIST SP 800-63 for the four levels of assurance defined by the December 2003, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Memorandum M-04-04, E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies.\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23691"}]}]},{"code":"LOACM","display":"token and credential management level of assurance value)","definition":"Indicator of the digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23712"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOACM1","display":"low token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the low digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Little or no confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include weak identity binding to tokens and plaintext passwords or secrets not transmitted across a network. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23713"}]},{"code":"LOACM2","display":"basic token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and its binding to an identity. Some confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verification must prove claimant controls the token; token resists online guessing, replay, session hijacking, and eavesdropping attacks; and token is at least weakly resistant to man-in-the middle attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23714"}]},{"code":"LOACM3","display":"medium token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. High confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Ownership of token verifiable through security authentication protocol and credential management protects against verifier impersonation attacks. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23715"}]},{"code":"LOACM4","display":"high token and credential management level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of the activities performed by the Credential Service Provider (CSP) subsequent to electronic authentication registration, identity proofing and issuance activities to manage and safeguard the integrity of an issued credential and it's binding to an identity. Very high confidence that an individual has maintained control over a token that has been entrusted to him or her and that that token has not been compromised. Characteristics include: Verifier can prove control of token through a secure protocol; credential management supports strong cryptographic authentication of all communication parties. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23716"}]}]},{"code":"LOAID","display":"identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23692"}],"concept":[{"code":"LOAID1","display":"low identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of low digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Requires identity proofing via presentation of identifying material or information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23694"}]},{"code":"LOAID3","display":"medium identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. Requires identity proofing procedures for verification of identifying materials and information. \\[Based on Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23695"}]},{"code":"LOAID4","display":"high identity proofing level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of high digital quality or reliability in the process of ascertaining that an individual is who he or she claims to be. 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Permits the use of any of the token methods of Levels 2, 3, or 4. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23708"}]},{"code":"LOATK2","display":"basic token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the basic digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires single factor authentication using memorized secret tokens, pre-registered knowledge tokens, look-up secret tokens, out of band tokens, or single factor one-time password devices. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23709"}]},{"code":"LOATK3","display":"medium token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the medium digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires two authentication factors. Provides multi-factor remote network authentication. Permits multi-factor software cryptographic token. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23710"}]},{"code":"LOATK4","display":"high token level of assurance","definition":"Indicator of the high digital quality or reliability of single and multi-token authentication. Requires token that is a hardware cryptographic module validated at validated at Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2 Level 2 or higher overall with at least FIPS 140-2 Level 3 physical security. Level 4 token requirements can be met by using the PIV authentication key of a FIPS 201 compliant Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Card. \\[Electronic Authentication Guideline - Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Dec 2011\\]","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23711"}]}]}]},{"code":"TRSTMECOBV","display":"none supplied 6","definition":"Values for security trust mechanism metadata observation made about a security architecture system component that supports enforcement of security policies.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23718"}]}]}]},{"code":"_SeverityObservation","display":"SeverityObservation","definition":"Potential values for observations of severity.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21100"}],"concept":[{"code":"H","display":"High","definition":"Indicates the condition may be life-threatening or has the potential to cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16644"}]},{"code":"L","display":"Low","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in some adverse consequences but is unlikely to substantially affect the situation of the subject.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16646"}]},{"code":"M","display":"Moderate","definition":"Indicates the condition may result in noticable adverse adverse consequences but is unlikely to be life-threatening or cause permanent injury.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"16645"}]}]},{"code":"_SubjectBodyPosition","display":"_SubjectBodyPosition","definition":"Contains codes for defining the observed, physical position of a subject, such as during an observation, assessment, collection of a specimen, etc. ECG waveforms and vital signs, such as blood pressure, are two examples where a general, observed position typically needs to be noted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22917"}],"concept":[{"code":"LLD","display":"left lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the left side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22918"}]},{"code":"PRN","display":"prone","definition":"Lying with the front or ventral surface downward; lying face down.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22919"}]},{"code":"RLD","display":"right lateral decubitus","definition":"Lying on the right side.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22920"}]},{"code":"SFWL","display":"Semi-Fowler's","definition":"A semi-sitting position in bed with the head of the bed elevated approximately 45 degrees.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22921"}]},{"code":"SIT","display":"sitting","definition":"Resting the body on the buttocks, typically with upper torso erect or semi erect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22922"}]},{"code":"STN","display":"standing","definition":"To be stationary, upright, vertical, on one's legs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22923"}]},{"code":"SUP","display":"supine","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22924"}],"concept":[{"code":"RTRD","display":"reverse trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees with head raised and feet lowered.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22925"}]},{"code":"TRD","display":"trendelenburg","definition":"Lying on the back, on an inclined plane, typically about 30-45 degrees, with head lowered and feet raised.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22926"}]}]}]},{"code":"_VerificationOutcomeValue","display":"verification outcome","definition":"Values for observations of verification act results\r\n\r\n**Examples:** Verified, not verified, verified with warning.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21906"}],"concept":[{"code":"ACT","display":"active coverage","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22213"}]},{"code":"ACTPEND","display":"active - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22214"}]},{"code":"ELG","display":"eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22211"}]},{"code":"INACT","display":"inactive","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22215"}]},{"code":"INPNDINV","display":"inactive - pending investigation","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Investigation.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22217"}]},{"code":"INPNDUPD","display":"inactive - pending eligibility update","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) - Pending Eligibility Update.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22216"}]},{"code":"NELG","display":"not eligible","definition":"**Definition:** Coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). May optionally include reasons for the ineligibility.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22212"}]}]},{"code":"_WorkSchedule","display":"_WorkSchedule","definition":"Concepts that describe an individual's typical arrangement of working hours for an occupation.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23907"}],"concept":[{"code":"DS","display":"daytime shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during daytime hours (for example between 6am and 6pm) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23908"}]},{"code":"EMS","display":"early morning shift","definition":"Consistent Early morning schedule of 13 hours or less per shift (between 2 am and 2 pm)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23911"}]},{"code":"ES","display":"evening shift","definition":"A person who is scheduled for work during evening hours (for example between 2pm and midnight) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23909"}]},{"code":"NS","display":"night shift","definition":"Scheduled for work during nighttime hours (for example between 9pm and 8am) on a regular basis.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23910"}]},{"code":"RSWN","display":"rotating shift with nights","definition":"Scheduled for work times that change periodically between days, and/or evenings, and includes some night shifts.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23912"}]},{"code":"RSWON","display":"rotating shift without nights","definition":"Scheduled for work days/times that change periodically between days, but does not include night or evening work.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23913"}]},{"code":"SS","display":"split shift","definition":"Shift consisting of two distinct work periods each day that are separated by a break of a few hours (for example 2 to 4 hours)","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23914"}]},{"code":"VLS","display":"very long shift","definition":"Shifts of 17 or more hours.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23915"}]},{"code":"VS","display":"variable shift","definition":"Irregular, unpredictable hours scheduled on a short notice (for example, less than 2 day notice): inconsistent schedule, on-call, as needed, as available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23916"}]}]},{"code":"_AnnotationValue","display":"AnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21095"}],"concept":[{"code":"_ECGAnnotationValue","display":"ECGAnnotationValue","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21097"}]}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationValue","display":"common clinical observation","definition":"**Description:**Used in a patient care message to value simple clinical (non-lab) observations.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21945"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationAssertionValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-DI (diagnostic imaging) coded observation if no value is also required to convey the full meaning of the observation. This may be a single concept code or a complex expression.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22262"}]},{"code":"_CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","display":"CommonClinicalObservationResultValue","definition":"**Definition:** The non-laboratory, non-diagnostic imaging coded result of the coded observable or \"question\" represented by the paired concept from the the NonLabDICodedObservationType domain.\r\n\r\n\\]\r\n\r\n**Examples:**An APGAR result, a functional assessment, etc. The value must not require a specific unit of measure.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22263"}]}]},{"code":"_CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","display":"CoverageChemicalDependencyValue","definition":"**Definition:** The category of addiction used for coverage purposes that may refer to a substance, the consumption of which may result in physical or emotional harm.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22242"}]},{"code":"_IndividualCaseSafetyReportValueDomains","display":"Individual Case Safety Report Value Domains","definition":"This domain is established as a parent to a variety of value domains being defined to support the communication of Individual Case Safety Reports to regulatory bodies. Arguably, this aggregation is not taxonomically pure, but the grouping will facilitate the management of these domains.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21397"}],"concept":[{"code":"_CaseSeriousnessCriteria","display":"CaseSeriousnessCriteria","definition":"A code that provides information on the overall effect or outcome of the adverse reaction/adverse event reported in the ICSR. Note the criterion applies to the case as a whole and not to an individual reaction.\r\n\r\nExample concepts are: death, disability, hospitalization, congenital anomaly/ birth defect, and other medically important condition.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21398"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationInterpretation","definition":"A code set that includes codes that are used to characterize the outcome of the device evaluation process. The code defines the manufacturer's conclusions following the evaluation.\r\n\r\nExamples include: inadequate alarms, device maintenance contributed to event, device failed just prior to use, user error caused event","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21405"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationMethod","definition":"Code assigned to indicate a relevant fact within the context of the evaluation of a reported product. There are a number of concept types including the status of the evaluation, the type of evaluation findings, and the type of activity carried out as part of the evaluation process.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Actual device involved in incident was evaluated, electrical tests performed, visual examination.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21406"}]},{"code":"_DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","display":"DeviceManufacturerEvaluationResult","definition":"Code assigned to indicate an outcome of the manufacturer's investigation of a product for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include:.component/subassembly failure: air cleaner, computer-, imaging system-, microprocessor-controlled device problem: cache memory, design -- not fail safe.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21404"}]},{"code":"_PertinentReactionRelatedness","display":"Pertinent Reaction Relatedness","definition":"A code to capture the reporter's assessment of the extent to which the reaction is related to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include: related, not related, possibly related and unlikely related.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21401"}]},{"code":"_ProductCharacterization","display":"Product Characterization","definition":"A code that characterizes the role that the primary reporter felt that the suspect intervention -- either a substance administration or a device related procedure - played in the incident being reported. This code will capture the primary reporter's assessment of the role that the suspect product played in the incident reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Suspect, Concomitant, Interacting, Re-challenge.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21400"}]},{"code":"_ReactionActionTaken","display":"ReactionActionTaken","definition":"Code used to indicate the action taken by practitioner in response to the problem (whether drug or device related) that is reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: failing device replaced, medication stopped, medication dose adjusted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21407"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReaction","display":"Subject Reaction","definition":"A code to capture the kind of reaction that was suffered by the investigated subject, and that is being reported in the ICSR. At this point, SNOMED or MedDRA have been suggested as code systems to be used for providing this information.\r\n\r\nExample concepts include hives, swelling, rash, anaphylactic shock.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21399"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionEmphasis","display":"SubjectReactionEmphasis","definition":"Code that captures the emphasis that the reporter placed on this reaction.\r\n\r\nExamples include: highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Not highlighted by the reporter, NOT serious, Highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS, Not highlighted by the reporter, SERIOUS.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21403"}]},{"code":"_SubjectReactionOutcome","display":"SubjectReactionOutcome","definition":"Code that captures the type of outcome from an individual outcome of a reaction to the suspect product reported in the ICSR.\r\n\r\nExamples include: Recovered/resolved. Recovering/resolving, Not recovered/not resolved, Recovered/resolved with sequelae, Fatal.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21402"}]}]},{"code":"_InjuryObservationValue","display":"InjuryObservationValue","definition":"Values for observations of injuries.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21098"}]},{"code":"_IntoleranceValue","display":"IntoleranceValue","definition":"Codes identifying pariticular groupings of allergens and other agents which cause allergies and intolerances. E.g. the drug, allergen group, food or environmental agent which triggers the intolerance","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21495"}]},{"code":"_IssueTriggerObservationValue","display":"IssueTriggerObservationValue","definition":"The combined domain for different types of coded observation issue triggers, such as diagnoses, allergies, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21528"}]},{"code":"_OtherIndicationValue","display":"OtherIndicationValue","definition":"Indicates an observed reason for a medical action other than an indication or symptom. E.g. Need for a contrast agent prior to a diagnostic image, need for anesthesia prior to surgery, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21544"}]},{"code":"_IndicationValue","display":"IndicationValue","definition":"Indicates the specific observation result which is the reason for the action (prescription, lab test, etc.). E.g. Headache, Ear infection, planned diagnostic image (requiring contrast agent), etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21542"}],"concept":[{"code":"_DiagnosisValue","display":"DiagnosisValue","definition":"Diagnosis Value","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21096"}]},{"code":"_SymptomValue","display":"SymptomValue","definition":"Indicates an observed abnormality in the patientaTMs condition, but does not assert causation. E.g. Runny nose, swelling, flaky skin, etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21543"}]}]}]}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityControlObservationValue","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20471"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityControlObservationValue","title":"SecurityControlObservationValue","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Security observation values used to indicate security control metadata. V:SecurityControl is the union of V:SecurityPolicy, V:ObligationPolicy, V:RefrainPolicy, V:PurposeOfUse, and V:GeneralPurpose of Use, V:PrivacyMark, V:SecurityLabelMark, and V:ControlledUnclassifiedInformation used to populate the SecurityControlObservationValue attribute in order to convey one or more nonhierarchical security control metadata dictating handling caveats including, purpose of use, obligation policy, refrain policy, dissemination controls and privacy marks to which a custodian or receiver is required to comply.","immutable":true,"copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse"]},{"valueSet":["http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-GeneralPurposeOfUse"]},{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ObservationValue"}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-SecurityPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-SecurityPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20444"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"SecurityPolicy","title":"SecurityPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Types of security policies that further specify the ActClassPolicy value set.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"SecurityPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-ObligationPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
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"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-ObligationPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20445"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"ObligationPolicy","title":"ObligationPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys the mandated workflow action that an information custodian, receiver, or user must perform.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * encrypt\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Per OASIS XACML, an obligation is an operation specified in a policy or policy that is performed in conjunction with the enforcement of an access control decision.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"ObligationPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-RefrainPolicy","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-RefrainPolicy","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20446"}],"version":"3.0.0","name":"RefrainPolicy","title":"RefrainPolicy","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2014-03-26","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Conveys prohibited actions which an information custodian, receiver, or user is not permitted to perform unless otherwise authorized or permitted under specified circumstances.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\r\n\r\n * prohibit redisclosure without consent directive","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActCode","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"RefrainPolicy"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"ValueSet","id":"v3-PurposeOfUse","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/ValueSet/v3-PurposeOfUse","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.1.11.20448"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"PurposeOfUse","title":"PurposeOfUse","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"Supports communication of purpose of use at a general level.","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","compose":{"include":[{"system":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","filter":[{"property":"concept","op":"is-a","value":"PurposeOfUse"}]}]}}},{"name":"tx-resource","resource":{"resourceType":"CodeSystem","id":"v3-ActReason","language":"en","text":{"status":"generated","div":"
!-- Narrative removed -->
"},"url":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/v3-ActReason","identifier":[{"system":"urn:ietf:rfc:3986","value":"urn:oid:2.16.840.1.113883.5.8"}],"version":"3.1.0","name":"ActReason","title":"ActReason","status":"active","experimental":false,"date":"2024-02-28","publisher":"Health Level Seven International","contact":[{"telecom":[{"system":"url","value":"http://hl7.org"},{"system":"email","value":"hq@HL7.org"}]}],"description":"A set of codes specifying the motivation, cause, or rationale of an Act, when such rationale is not reasonably represented as an ActRelationship of type \"has reason\" linking to another Act.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* Example reasons that might qualify for being coded in this field might be: \"routine requirement\", \"infectious disease reporting requirement\", \"on patient request\", \"required by law\".","copyright":"This material derives from the HL7 Terminology THO. THO is copyright ©1989+ Health Level Seven International and is made available under the CC0 designation. For more licensing information see: https://terminology.hl7.org/license.html","caseSensitive":true,"hierarchyMeaning":"is-a","content":"complete","property":[{"code":"internalId","uri":"http://terminology.hl7.org/CodeSystem/utg-concept-properties#v3-internal-id","description":"The internal identifier for the concept in the HL7 Access database repository.","type":"code"},{"code":"status","uri":"http://hl7.org/fhir/concept-properties#status","description":"Designation of a concept's state. 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May be used to convey reasons pertaining to coverage contractual provisions, including criteria for eligibility, coverage limitations, coverage maximums, or financial participation required of covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22164"}]},{"code":"_ActInformationManagementReason","display":"ActInformationManagementReason","definition":"**Description:**The rationale or purpose for an act relating to information management, such as archiving information for the purpose of complying with an enterprise data retention policy.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22675"}]},{"code":"_ActInvalidReason","display":"ActInvalidReason","definition":"**Description:** Types of reasons why a substance is invalid for use.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23235"}]},{"code":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason","display":"ActInvoiceCancelReason","definition":"Domain specifies the codes used to describe reasons why a Provider is cancelling an Invoice or Invoice Grouping.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20941"}]},{"code":"_ActNoImmunizationReason","display":"ActNoImmunizationReason","definition":"A coded description of the reason for why a patient did not receive a scheduled immunization.\r\n\r\n(important for public health strategy","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21529"}]},{"code":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","display":"ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason","definition":"Indicates why a fulfiller refused to fulfill a supply order, and considered it important to notify other providers of their decision. E.g. \"Suspect fraud\", \"Possible abuse\", \"Contraindicated\".\r\n\r\n(used when capturing 'refusal to fill' annotations)","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21530"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason","display":"ClinicalResearchEventReason","definition":"**Definition:**Specifies the reason that an event occurred in a clinical research study.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22391"}]},{"code":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason","display":"ClinicalResearchObservationReason","definition":"**Definition:**SSpecifies the reason that a test was performed or observation collected in a clinical research study.\r\n\r\n**Note:**This set of codes are not strictly reasons, but are used in the currently Normative standard. Future revisions of the specification will model these as ActRelationships and thes codes may subsequently be retired. Thus, these codes should not be used for new specifications.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22392"}]},{"code":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","display":"CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Indicates why the prescription should be suspended.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22393"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ControlActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22809"}]},{"code":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","display":"ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType","definition":"**Description:** Reasons to refuse a transaction to be undone.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23277"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReason","display":"ControlActReason","definition":"Identifies why a specific query, request, or other trigger event occurred.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21491"}]},{"code":"_GenericUpdateReasonCode","display":"GenericUpdateReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies why a change is being made to a record.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22395"}]},{"code":"_PatientProfileQueryReasonCode","display":"patient profile query reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts identifying why the patient's profile is being queried.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21715"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"PharmacySupplyRequestFulfillerRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the request to transfer a prescription from one dispensing facility to another has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22863"}]},{"code":"_RefusalReasonCode","display":"RefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Description:** Identifies why a request to add (or activate) a record is being refused. Examples include the receiving system not able to match the identifier and find that record in the receiving system, having no permission, or a detected issue exists which precludes the requested action.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22906"}]},{"code":"_SchedulingActReason","display":"SchedulingActReason","definition":"Reasons for cancelling or rescheduling an Appointment","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20942"}]},{"code":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","display":"StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"Indicates why the act revision (status update) is being refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23014"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","display":"SubstanceAdministrationPermissionRefusalReasonCode","definition":"**Definition:**Indicates why the requested authorization to prescribe or dispense a medication has been refused.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22856"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason","definition":"Reasons why substitution of a substance administration request is not permitted.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21531"}]},{"code":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","display":"SubstanceAdminSubstitutionReason","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20943"}]},{"code":"_TransferActReason","display":"TransferActReason","definition":"The explanation for why a patient is moved from one location to another within the organization","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20944"}]},{"code":"_ActAdjudicationReason","display":"ActAdjudicationReason","definition":"Explanatory codes that describe reasons why an Adjudicator has financially adjusted an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nA companion domain (ActAdjudicationInformationCode) includes information reasons which do not have a financial impact on an invoice (claim).\r\n\r\nExample adjudication reason code is AA-CLAIM-0011 - Only Basic Procedure/Test Eligible.\r\n\r\nCodes from this domain further rationalizes ActAdjudicationCodes (e.g. AA - Adjudicated with Adjustment), which are used to describe the process of adjudicating an invoice. For AS - Adjudicated as Submitted, there should be no specification of ActAdjudicationReason codes, as there are no financial adjustments against the invoice.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20938"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableServiceReason","display":"ActBillableServiceReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document reasons for providing a billable service; the billable services may include both clinical services and social services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22209"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","display":"ActCoverageLevelRasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Represents the reason for the level of coverage provided under the policy or program in terms of the types of entities that may play covered parties based on their personal relationships or employment status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22081"}]},{"code":"_ActImmunizationReason","display":"ActImmunizationReason","definition":"**Description:**A coded description of the reason for why a patient was administered an immunization.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**Post Exposure - Reason, Universal Immunization Program, Outbreak Control, Universal School Program","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22077"}]},{"code":"_ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","display":"ConrolActNullificationReasonCode","definition":"**Description:**Identifies reasons for nullifying (retracting) a particular control act.\r\n\r\n**Examples:**\"Entered in error\", \"altered decision\", etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22394"}]},{"code":"_NonPerformanceReasonCode","display":"NonPerformanceReasonCode","definition":"The reason the action wasn't performed, e.g. why the medication was not taken. If an action wasn\"t performed, it is often clinically important to know why the action wasn\"t taken.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Patient refused, clinically inappropriate, absolute contraindication etc.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21569"}]},{"code":"_ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","display":"ReasonForNotEvaluatingDevice","definition":"Code assigned to indicate the rationale for not performing an evaluation investigation on a device for which a defect has been reported.\r\n\r\nExamples include: device received in a condition that made analysis impossible, device evaluation anticipated but not yet begun, device not made by company.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21408"}]},{"code":"_ReferralReasonCode","display":"ReferralReasonCode","definition":"The reason a referral was made.\r\n\r\n*Examples:*Specialized Medical Assistance, Other Care Requirements.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21568"}]},{"code":"BONUS","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17436"}]},{"code":"CHD","display":"Children only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22082"}]},{"code":"DEP","display":"Dependents only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscriber's dependents.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22083"}]},{"code":"ECH","display":"Employee and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her children.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22084"}]},{"code":"EDU","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17438"}]},{"code":"EMP","display":"Employee only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to an employee.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22085"}]},{"code":"ESP","display":"Employee and spouse","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an employee and his or her spouse.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22086"}]},{"code":"FAM","display":"Family","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's family.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22087"}]},{"code":"IND","display":"Individual","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to an individual.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22088"}]},{"code":"INVOICE","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19726"}]},{"code":"PROA","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17435"}]},{"code":"RECOV","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17437"}]},{"code":"RETRO","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17434"}]},{"code":"SPC","display":"Spouse and children","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available to a subscriber's spouse and children","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22089"}]},{"code":"SPO","display":"Spouse only","definition":"**Description:**The level of coverage under the policy or program is available only to a subscribers spouse","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22090"}]},{"code":"TRAN","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19727"}]},{"code":"ACCREQNA","display":"Accommodation Requested Not Available","definition":"Accommodation requested is not available.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17429"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"FLRCNV","display":"Floor Convenience","definition":"Accommodation is assigned for floor convenience.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17430"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDNEC","display":"Medical Necessity","definition":"Required for medical reasons(s).","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"17428"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"}]},{"code":"PAT","display":"Patient request","definition":"The Patient requested the action","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"14880"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActAccommodationReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SchedulingActReason"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_SubstanceAdminSubstitutionNotAllowedReason"}]},{"code":"_MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","display":"MedicallyNecessaryDuplicateProcedureReason","definition":"**Definition:** This domain is used to document why the procedure is a duplicate of one ordered/charged previously for the same patient within the same date of service and has been determined to be medically necessary.\r\n\r\n**Example:** A doctor needs a different view in a chest X-Ray.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22210"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason"}]},{"code":"_ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","display":"ActBillableClinicalServiceReason","definition":"Reason for Clinical Service being performed.\r\n\r\nThis domain excludes reasons specified by diagnosed conditions.\r\n\r\nExamples of values from this domain include duplicate therapy and fraudulent prescription.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"20939"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActBillableServiceReason"}]},{"code":"OVRER","display":"emergency treatment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented by authorized entities for treating a condition which poses an immediate threat to the patient's health and which requires immediate medical intervention.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient is unable to provide consent, but the provider determines they have an urgent healthcare related reason to access the record."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22194"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRINCOMP","display":"incompetency override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented because deemed incompetent to provide consent.\r\n\r\n*Usage Note:* Maps to v2 CON-16 Subject Competence Indicator (ID) 01791 Definition: Identifies whether the subject was deemed competent to provide consent. Refer to table HL7 Table 0136 - Yes/No Indicator and CON-23 Non-Subject Consenter Reason User-defined Table 0502 - Non-Subject Consenter Reason code NC \"Subject is not competent to consent\".","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23877"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPJ","display":"professional judgment override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient declined to consent for providing health care.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However the provider believes it is in the patient's interest to access the record without patient consent."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22197"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRPS","display":"public safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for public safety reasons.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to public safety."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22195"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"OVRTPS","display":"third party safety override","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented for third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"The patient, while able to give consent, has not. However, the provider believes that access to masked patient information is justified because of concerns related to the health and safety of one or more third parties."},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22196"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason"}]},{"code":"_EligibilityActReasonCode","display":"EligibilityActReasonCode","definition":"Identifies the reason or rational for why a person is eligibile for benefits under an insurance policy or progam.\r\n\r\n*Examples:* A person is a claimant under an automobile insurance policy are client deceased & adopted client has been given a new policy identifier. A new employee is eligible for health insurance as an employment benefit. A person meets a government program eligibility criteria for financial, age or health status.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21493"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageProviderReason","display":"ActCoverageProviderReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on characteristics of the provider, e.g., contractual relationship to payor, such as in or out-of-network; relationship of the covered party to the provider.\r\n\r\n**Example:**In closed managed care plan, a covered party is assigned a primary care provider who provides primary care services and authorizes referrals and ancillary and non-primary care services.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22168"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActCoverageServiceReason","display":"ActCoverageServiceReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on clinical efficacy criteria or practices prescribed by the payor.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22169"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageExclusionReason","display":"CoverageExclusionReason","definition":"**Definition:** Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on coverage exclusions related to the risk of adverse selection by covered parties.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22165"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","display":"CoverageFinancialParticipationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for coverage of a service or product based on financial participation responsibilities of the covered party.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22166"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_CoverageLimitationReason","display":"CoverageLimitationReason","definition":"**Description:**Identifies the reason or rationale for limitations on the coverage of a service or product based on coverage contract provisions.\r\n\r\n**Example:**The maximum cost per unit; or the maximum number of units per period, which is typically the policy or program effective time.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22167"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActCoverageReason"}]},{"code":"_ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","display":"ActConsentInformationAccessOverrideReason","definition":"To perform one or more operations on information to which the patient has not consented as deemed necessary by authorized entities for providing care in the best interest of the patient; providing immediately needed health care for an emergent condition; or for protecting public or third party safety.\r\n\r\n*Usage Notes:* Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. Typically, this involves overriding the subject's consent directives.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"HL7usageNotes","valueString":"Used to convey the reason that a provider or other entity may or has accessed personal healthcare information. 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This could include incorrect costing for items included in the Invoice.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19735"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPOLICY","display":"incorrect policy","definition":"The policy specified with the Invoice is not correct. For example, it may belong to another Adjudicator or Covered Party.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19734"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"INCPROV","display":"incorrect provider","definition":"The provider specified with the Invoice is not correct.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"19736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActInvoiceCancelReason"}]},{"code":"IMMUNE","display":"immunity","definition":"**Definition:**Testing has shown that the patient already has immunity to the agent targeted by the immunization.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21745"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"MEDPREC","display":"medical precaution","definition":"**Definition:**The patient currently has a medical condition for which the vaccine is contraindicated or for which precaution is warranted.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21747"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"OSTOCK","display":"product out of stock","definition":"**Definition:**There was no supply of the product on hand to perform the service.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21744"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PATOBJ","display":"patient objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21740"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"PHILISOP","display":"philosophical objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of philosophical beliefs.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21742"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"RELIG","display":"religious objection","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine on religious grounds.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21741"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACEFF","display":"vaccine efficacy concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The intended vaccine has expired or is otherwise believed to no longer be effective.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Due to temperature exposure.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21746"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"VACSAF","display":"vaccine safety concerns","definition":"**Definition:**The patient or their guardian objects to receiving the vaccine because of concerns over its safety.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21743"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActNoImmunizationReason"}]},{"code":"FRR01","display":"order stopped","definition":"**Definition:**The order has been stopped by the prescriber but this fact has not necessarily captured electronically.\r\n\r\n**Example:**A verbal stop, a fax, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21748"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR02","display":"stale-dated order","definition":"**Definition:**Order has not been fulfilled within a reasonable amount of time, and may not be current.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21749"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR03","display":"incomplete data","definition":"**Definition:**Data needed to safely act on the order which was expected to become available independent of the order is not yet available\r\n\r\n**Example:**Lab results, diagnostic imaging, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21750"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR04","display":"product unavailable","definition":"**Definition:**Product not available or manufactured. Cannot supply.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21751"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR05","display":"ethical/religious","definition":"**Definition:**The dispenser has ethical, religious or moral objections to fulfilling the order/dispensing the product.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21752"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"FRR06","display":"unable to provide care","definition":"**Definition:**Fulfiller not able to provide appropriate care associated with fulfilling the order.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Therapy requires ongoing monitoring by fulfiller and fulfiller will be ending practice, leaving town, unable to schedule necessary time, etc.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21753"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ActSupplyFulfillmentRefusalReason"}]},{"code":"RET","display":"retest","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred so that a test or observation performed at a prior event could be performed again due to conditions set forth in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21623"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"SCH","display":"scheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred due to it being scheduled in the research protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21622"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"TRM","display":"termination","definition":"**Definition:**The event occurred in order to terminate the subject's participation in the study.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21624"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"UNS","display":"unscheduled","definition":"**Definition:**The event that occurred was initiated by a study participant (e.g. the subject or the investigator), and did not occur for protocol reasons.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21625"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchEventReason"}]},{"code":"NPT","display":"non-protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test was neither defined or scheduled in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21628"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"PPT","display":"per protocol","definition":"**Definition:**The observation or test occurred due to it being defined in the research protocol, and during an activity or event that was scheduled in the protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21626"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"UPT","display":"per definition","definition":"**:**The observation or test occurred as defined in the research protocol, but at a point in time not specified in the study protocol.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21627"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ClinicalResearchObservationReason"}]},{"code":"ALTCHOICE","display":"try another treatment first","definition":"**Description:**This therapy has been ordered as a backup to a preferred therapy. This order will be released when and if the preferred therapy is unsuccessful.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21691"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"CLARIF","display":"prescription requires clarification","definition":"**Description:**Clarification is required before the order can be acted upon.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21689"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"DRUGHIGH","display":"drug level too high","definition":"**Description:**The current level of the medication in the patient's system is too high. The medication is suspended to allow the level to subside to a safer level.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21694"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"HOSPADM","display":"admission to hospital","definition":"**Description:**The patient has been admitted to a care facility and their community medications are suspended until hospital discharge.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21684"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"LABINT","display":"lab interference issues","definition":"**Description:**The therapy would interfere with a planned lab test and the therapy is being withdrawn until the test is completed.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21687"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NON-AVAIL","display":"patient not-available","definition":"**Description:**Patient not available for a period of time due to a scheduled therapy, leave of absence or other reason.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21695"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"PREG","display":"parent is pregnant/breast feeding","definition":"**Description:**The patient is pregnant or breast feeding. The therapy will be resumed when the pregnancy is complete and the patient is no longer breastfeeding.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21692"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SALG","display":"allergy","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to be allergic to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21685"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDDI","display":"drug interacts with another drug","definition":"**Description:**The drug interacts with a short-term treatment that is more urgently required. This order will be resumed when the short-term treatment is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21690"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SDUPTHER","display":"duplicate therapy","definition":"**Description:**Another short-term co-occurring therapy fulfills the same purpose as this therapy. This therapy will be resumed when the co-occuring therapy is complete.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21688"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SINTOL","display":"suspected intolerance","definition":"**Description:**The patient is believed to have an intolerance to a substance that is part of the therapy and the therapy is being temporarily withdrawn to confirm.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21686"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"SURG","display":"patient scheduled for surgery","definition":"**Description:**The drug is contraindicated for patients receiving surgery and the patient is scheduled to be admitted for surgery in the near future. The drug will be resumed when the patient has sufficiently recovered from the surgery.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21696"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"WASHOUT","display":"waiting for old drug to wash out","definition":"**Description:**The patient was previously receiving a medication contraindicated with the current medication. The current medication will remain on hold until the prior medication has been cleansed from their system.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21693"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CombinedPharmacyOrderSuspendReasonCode"}]},{"code":"ALTD","display":"altered decision","definition":"**Description:**The decision on which the recorded information was based was changed before the decision had an effect.\r\n\r\n**Example:**Aborted prescription before patient left office, released prescription before suspend took effect.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22024"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"EIE","display":"entered in error","definition":"**Description:**The information was recorded incorrectly or was recorded in the wrong record.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22023"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NORECMTCH","display":"no record match","definition":"**Description:** There is no match for the record in the database.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"22908"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"NOMATCH"}]},{"code":"INRQSTATE","display":"in requested state","definition":"The record is already in the requested state.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"23015"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActNullificationRefusalReasonType"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_StatusRevisionRefusalReasonCode"}]},{"code":"NOMATCH","display":"no 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medication.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21721"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_PharmacySupplyRequestRenewalRefusalReasonCode","display":"pharmacy supply request renewal refusal reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies why a renewal prescription has been refused.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21727"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_SupplyOrderAbortReasonCode","display":"supply order abort reason","definition":"**Definition:**A collection of concepts that indicates why the prescription should no longer be allowed to be dispensed (but can still administer what is already being dispensed).","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21736"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"_ControlActReasonConditionNullify","display":"ControlActReasonConditionNullify","definition":"Indicates why the ConditionaTMs status was changed to Nullified. *Examples* administrative error, diagnostic error.","property":[{"code":"notSelectable","valueBoolean":true},{"code":"status","valueCode":"retired"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21492"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_ControlActReason"}]},{"code":"AGE","display":"age eligibility","definition":"A person becomes eligible for a program based on age.\r\n\r\n*Example:* In the U.S., a person who is 65 years of age or older is eligible for Medicare.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21565"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"CRIME","display":"crime victim","definition":"A person becomes eligible for insurance or a program because of crime related health condition or injury.\r\n\r\n*Example:* A person is a claimant under the U.S. Crime Victims Compensation program.","property":[{"code":"status","valueCode":"active"},{"code":"internalId","valueCode":"21558"},{"code":"subsumedBy","valueCode":"_CoverageEligibilityReason"}]},{"code":"DIS","display":"disability","definition":"A person becomes a claimant under a disability income insurance policy or a disability rehabilitation program because of a health condition or injury which limits the person's ability to earn an income or function without 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The expansion worker assembles the result by driving this loop. + +For SQL-backed providers like RxNorm and LOINC, this creates two performance +problems: + +1. **Per-code overhead.** The worker calls 8–10 methods per code. If contexts aren't + self-sufficient, each call can trigger a SQL query. For RxNorm, expanding 1100 + codes originally cost 3301 SQL queries (1 filter + 1100 × 3 per-code status + lookups). This was fixed independently by making contexts carry all attributes + at creation time — zero interface changes required. + +2. **No paging push-down.** To return page 11 (offset=1000, count=100), the worker + processes all 1100 codes, then discards the first 1000. It can't tell the + provider to skip ahead because paging is a ValueSet-level concern (multiple + includes, excludes, dedup across code systems). A SQL provider could do + `LIMIT 100 OFFSET 1000` and return in ~1ms instead of ~200ms. + +Similarly, excludes and `activeOnly` filtering happen code-by-code in the worker. +A SQL provider could handle all of these in the WHERE clause. + +We briefly considered adding `{ offset, count, activeOnly }` options to the +existing `executeFilters()` method, but this creates awkward partially-resolved +states — the provider handles some post-filters but not others, and the worker +has to know which. Piecemeal push-down doesn't compose well. + +## The Interface Change + +One new optional method on `CodeSystemProvider`: + +```js +async expandForValueSet(spec) { + // Returns an AsyncIterable or null (can't handle → fall back) + return null; +} +``` + +Instead of threading individual parameters through the 10-call-per-code loop, +**give the provider the full hull of includes and excludes that apply to its code +system** and let it handle everything in one shot. + +### Input + +The worker groups compose entries by code system and builds: + +```js +{ + includes: [ // compose.include blocks for this CS + { concepts: [{code, display?}], // explicit code list (may be null) + filters: [{property, op, value}] // property filters (may be empty) + }, ... + ], + excludes: [ // compose.exclude blocks for this CS + { concepts: [{code}], + filters: [{property, op, value}] + }, ... + ], + activeOnly: boolean, // exclude inactive codes + searchText: string | null, // expansion 'filter' parameter + includeDesignations: boolean, // whether designations are needed + properties: string[], // which properties to include + languages: Languages, // requested display languages + + // Paging — non-null only when safe (single code system); must apply if present + offset: number | null, + count: number | null, +} +``` + +### Output + +`AsyncIterable` where each entry is a fully-resolved code: + +```js +{ + code: string, + display: string, + isAbstract: boolean, + isInactive: boolean, + isDeprecated: boolean, + status: string | null, + definition: string | null, + designations: [{language, use, value}], + properties: [{code, valueType, value}], + extensions: [...] | null, +} +``` + +The worker iterates these entries via `includeCode()`, which still handles dedup +across code systems, import filtering, expansion limits, and FHIR object construction. + +### Paging contract + +`offset` and `count` are **non-null only when the worker can verify they're +safe** (currently: single code system in the compose). When provided: + +- The provider **must apply them** (via SQL `LIMIT/OFFSET`). The worker zeros + its own offset after a successful `expandForValueSet` call, so the provider's + SQL is the sole paging authority. +- If the provider can handle filters and excludes but **not** paging, it should + return `null` to fall back to the framework's iterator path, which applies + offset/count during finalization. + +When `null` (multi-system compose, or offset/count not requested): + +- The provider returns all matching codes. The framework accumulates them into + `fullList` and applies paging during finalization. Still faster than baseline + because the provider handles filters, excludes, and activeOnly in SQL — just + without the LIMIT/OFFSET shortcut. + +Each expansion request is fully stateless — there is no cross-request memory of +previous pages. A request for offset=1000 re-derives the full ordered result set +and skips the first 1000 entries. SQL `LIMIT/OFFSET` lets the provider do this skip in +the B-tree index instead of iterating through rows. + +### Why the provider gets excludes + +With paging push-down, SQL-side excludes are **15x faster** than JS-side filtering +(1.1ms vs 15.9ms at offset=10000). The B-tree index handles seek + exclude together. +The provider needs excludes to make paging accurate. + +### Fallback protocol + +1. Provider returns `null` → worker falls back to the existing iterator-oracle + pattern, completely unchanged. SNOMED and any provider that doesn't implement + this method are unaffected. +2. Provider returns an iterable → worker iterates entries, skips the framework's + manual `excludeCodes()` and `includeCodes()` paths for that code system. +3. `this.offset = 0` after expansion — the provider's SQL handled OFFSET; prevents + the framework's finalization from double-skipping. + +### Why `better-sqlite3` + +The async `sqlite3` package can't support this pattern: `db.each()` can't abort +early, so there's no way to stop after N rows. `better-sqlite3` provides +synchronous lazy cursors via `stmt.iterate()` — the provider can break after the +page is filled. It's also 2x faster for bulk loads. + +The sync API is fine here — SQLite operations are inherently single-threaded and +in-process. The async wrappers add overhead for no concurrency benefit. + +--- + +## RxNorm Implementation + +### SQL strategies + +The RxNorm provider maps each filter/option to SQL: + +| Filter | SQL | Index used | +|--------|-----|------------| +| TTY (e.g., SBD) | `WHERE TTY IN (...)` | `(SAB, TTY, RXCUI)` — covers ORDER BY | +| STY (semantic type) | `JOIN rxnsty ON rxnsty.RXCUI = rxnconso.RXCUI WHERE TUI = ?` | `X_RXNSTY_2(TUI)` drives, probes `X_RXNCONSO_1(RXCUI)` | +| Concepts | `WHERE RXCUI IN (...)` with `+SAB = @sab` (unary `+` suppresses SAB index) | `X_RXNCONSO_1(RXCUI)` | +| Excludes | `AND RXCUI NOT IN (@p1, @p2, ...)` | — | +| activeOnly | `AND SUPPRESS <> '1'` | — | +| searchText | `AND UPPER(STR) LIKE @pattern` | — | + +**GROUP BY for JOINs**: When STY joins are present, rxnconso has 1–8 rows per RXCUI +(different TTY values). `GROUP BY RXCUI` deduplicates at the SQL level so +LIMIT/OFFSET counts unique codes, not raw rows. + +**Index lesson**: Adding indexes can *hurt* SQLite — a composite `rxnsty(TUI, RXCUI)` +index caused the planner to switch to a worse strategy. Prefer query shaping (JOIN +order, unary `+`) over explicit index hints. + +### Results (13 tests) + +``` +Test | Opt (ms) | Base (ms) | Speedup | Result +------------------------------|----------|----------|---------|------- +filter-tty-sbd-10 | 6.8 | 248.7 | 36.5x | ✅ exact +concept-5 | 2.5 | 3.8 | 1.5x | ✅ exact +exclude-concepts-3 | 3.2 | 235.2 | 73.8x | ✅ exact +multi-include-2 | 63.9 | 471.0 | 7.4x | ✅ sets equal (40k) +activeonly-sbd | 2.2 | 194.9 | 82.3x | ✅ exact +filter-tty-in-multi | 1.4 | 476.0 | 341.6x | ✅ exact +filter-sty-t200 | 217.1 | 1521.6 | 7.0x | ✅ exact +paged-offset-100 | 1.3 | 228.2 | 177.4x | ✅ exact +text-aspirin | 1.8 | TIMEOUT | ∞ | ✅ opt works +exclude-filter | 3.9 | 320.5 | 83.2x | ✅ exact +multi-include-concept+filter | 140.2 | 189.5 | 1.4x | ✅ sets equal (23k) +combo-active-text-paged | 1.4 | TIMEOUT | ∞ | ✅ opt works +multi-include-multi-exclude | 99.7 | 673.7 | 6.8x | ✅ sets equal (40k) +``` + +**All 13 pass.** Median speedup ~37x. Best case 342x (multi-value IN with index). + +--- + +## LOINC Implementation + +### Baseline problem + +LOINC's existing provider loads **all 240k codes into memory** at startup. Filter +queries run SQL to find matching CodeKeys, then **materialize the entire result +set** into an array before iterating. For large filters this takes 2–5 seconds: +STATUS=ACTIVE materializes 163k rows, CLASSTYPE=Lab materializes 73k rows. + +The LOINC database is more normalized than RxNorm: +- `Codes` (240k) — CodeKey PK, Code, Type (1=Code, 2=Part, 3=AnswerList, 4=Answer), StatusKey +- `Relationships` (1.2M) — links codes to parts (COMPONENT, CLASS, SYSTEM, SCALE_TYP, etc.) +- `Properties` (347k) + `PropertyValues` — key-value attributes (CLASSTYPE, ORDER_OBS) + +### SQL strategies + +| Filter | SQL | Notes | +|--------|-----|-------| +| Relationship (COMPONENT, CLASS, etc.) | `JOIN Relationships r ON r.TargetKey = (SELECT CodeKey FROM Codes WHERE Code = ?) AND r.RelationshipTypeKey = ? AND r.SourceKey = c.CodeKey` | Naturally scopes to Type=1 codes | +| STATUS | `WHERE c.StatusKey = ?` | Direct column match | +| CLASSTYPE | `JOIN Properties p ... JOIN PropertyValues pv ... AND pv.Value = ?` | Value "1" → "Laboratory class" via lookup | +| LIST (answers-for) | `JOIN Relationships r ON r.SourceKey = (SELECT ...) AND r.RelationshipTypeKey = 40 AND r.TargetKey = c.CodeKey` | Reversed direction — list is source, answers are targets | +| activeOnly | `WHERE c.StatusKey = 1` | — | + +**Multi-include via UNION**: Each compose include becomes a separate SELECT. Multiple +includes are `UNION ALL`'d, with the outer query applying `GROUP BY Code` for dedup: + +```sql +SELECT Code, Description FROM ( + SELECT c.Code, c.CodeKey, d.Description FROM Codes c + JOIN Descriptions d ON d.CodeKey = c.CodeKey AND d.DescriptionTypeKey = 1 + JOIN Relationships r1 ON ... -- include 1 filters + UNION ALL + SELECT c.Code, c.CodeKey, d.Description FROM Codes c + JOIN Descriptions d ON d.CodeKey = c.CodeKey AND d.DescriptionTypeKey = 1 + JOIN Relationships r2 ON ... -- include 2 filters +) GROUP BY Code ORDER BY CodeKey LIMIT ? OFFSET ? +``` + +This avoids AND-semantics where JOINs from different includes would all need to +match simultaneously. + +**Key decisions:** +- **ORDER BY CodeKey** (not Code string) matches baseline iteration order +- **No blanket Type=1 filter** — relationship JOINs scope naturally; a Type=1 + restriction would break LIST queries (answers are Type=4) +- **Existing indexes sufficient** — `RelationshipsTarget`, `PropertiesCode1`, + `CodesCode` cover all patterns without new indexes +- **Concept-only includes fall back** — `expandForValueSet` returns `null`, lets + the framework handle via `locate()` (efficient for small lists) + +### Results (14 tests) + +``` +Test | Opt (ms) | Base (ms) | Speedup | Result +------------------------------|----------|-----------|---------|--------------------------- +filter-component-bacteria | 11.3 | 31.4 | 2.7x | ✅ exact +filter-class-chem | 13.8 | 941.0 | 68.2x | ✅ exact +filter-scale-qn | 50.8 | 2611.3 | 51.4x | ✅ exact +filter-system-ser | 21.0 | 680.4 | 32.4x | ✅ exact +concept-5 | 2.8 | 1.9 | 0.6x | ✅ sets equal (5) +exclude-concepts | 2.3 | 57.4 | 24.9x | ✅ exact +activeonly-class | 14.0 | 119.4 | 8.7x | ✅ exact +filter-list-ll150 | 2.3 | 14.7 | 6.4x | ✅ sets equal (255) +filter-classtype-lab | 82.2 | 2020.7 | 24.6x | ✅ exact +paged-class-offset-100 | 14.0 | 102.8 | 7.5x | ✅ exact +multi-filter-comp-scale | 2.4 | 80.0 | 34.6x | ✅ exact +filter-status-active | 50.1 | 5324.6 | 106.4x | ✅ exact +text-glucose | 1.3 | 1.4 | 1.1x | ✅ exact +multi-include-2-components | 4.2 | 87.6 | 25.0x | ✅ sets equal (743) +``` + +**All 14 pass.** Median speedup ~25x. Biggest wins: STATUS=ACTIVE 5.3s → 50ms, +SCALE_TYP=Qn 2.6s → 51ms, CLASSTYPE=Lab 2.0s → 82ms. + +--- + +## Validation + +**Unit tests:** LOINC 37/37 pass, RxNorm 45/45 skip (require raw import data). + +**Replay tests** (18 captured production queries): +- RxNorm: 3/3 ✅ (validate-code, all 200) +- LOINC: 4/4 functionally correct (1 exact match, 3 now return 200 where production + returned 422 — we handle queries production rejected) +- SNOMED: 5/5 expected failures (not loaded) +- Other: 6/6 ✅ (batch-validate, multi-system expansions) + +## Summary + +The entire interface change is **one optional method** — `expandForValueSet`. It's +additive: providers that don't implement it are completely unaffected. The method +gives SQL-backed providers the information they need (the full compose hull, +activeOnly, excludes, paging) to push everything into a single query with +LIMIT/OFFSET. + +| What | RxNorm | LOINC | +|------|--------|-------| +| Tests | 13/13 pass | 14/14 pass | +| Median speedup | ~37x | ~25x | +| Best speedup | 342x | 106x | +| Biggest absolute win | text+combo: TIMEOUT → <2ms | STATUS=ACTIVE: 5.3s → 50ms | +| New indexes needed | None | None | +| Existing tests broken | None | None | diff --git a/docs/SQLITE_MICROBENCHMARK_PLAN.md b/docs/SQLITE_MICROBENCHMARK_PLAN.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..cee82d3 --- /dev/null +++ b/docs/SQLITE_MICROBENCHMARK_PLAN.md @@ -0,0 +1,157 @@ +# SQLite Microbenchmark Plan + +## Motivation + +We're designing a new `expandForValueSet(spec)` method on `CodeSystemProvider` +that lets SQL-backed providers (RxNorm, LOINC, future generic-sqlite) handle +entire include/exclude blocks in a single call. Key design questions: + +1. **Lazy vs eager iteration** — should the provider return a lazy iterable + (cursor-backed) or a materialized array? This determines whether the worker + can benefit from early termination (stop after offset+count rows). + +2. **Package choice** — the codebase uses async `sqlite3` (`db.all()` loads + everything into memory). `better-sqlite3` offers synchronous `stmt.iterate()` + with lazy cursors. Is migration worth it? + +3. **SQL-level optimizations** — should multi-include ValueSets become one + UNION/IN query? Should excludes be pushed into SQL? Does LIMIT/OFFSET + actually help given SQLite's scan behavior? + +4. **Cost breakdown** — where is time spent: in SQLite I/O, JS object + construction, or the async callback overhead? + +## Test Database + +RxNorm Feb 2025 (`rxnorm_02032025-a.db`, 1.8GB). + +Key table: `rxnconso` with indexes on `(SAB, TTY, RXCUI)`. + +Representative TTY counts (SAB='RXNORM', TTY<>'SY'): +- SBD: 23,254 rows +- SCD: 39,161 rows +- IN: 14,503 rows + +## Benchmarks + +### B1: `db.all()` full materialization — baseline + +```sql +SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso +WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' +``` + +Loads all ~23k rows into a JS array. This is what the current provider does +in `#executeFilter()`. Measures total wall time and peak memory. + +**Design question:** What's the floor cost of getting filter results today? + +### B2: `db.all()` with LIMIT/OFFSET + +Same query + `LIMIT 100 OFFSET N` for N = 0, 100, 1000, 10000. + +**Design question:** If we stay on async `sqlite3`, can we push paging to SQL? +Does it actually help, or does SQLite scan to OFFSET anyway? + +### B3: `db.each()` with early abort + +Same query via `db.each(sql, callback)`. Count rows in the callback; after N +rows, stop processing (check if `db.interrupt()` or completion callback work +for early exit). + +**Design question:** Can `db.each()` serve as a lazy iterator with the +current `sqlite3` package? What's the per-callback overhead? Can we abort +early without loading all rows? + +### B4: `better-sqlite3` `stmt.iterate()` — lazy cursor + +Same query via `better-sqlite3`'s synchronous `stmt.iterate()`. Break out +of the loop after N rows (100, 1100). + +**Design question:** How fast is the ideal lazy cursor? Is it worth +migrating packages? Does break actually avoid reading remaining rows? + +### B5: `better-sqlite3` `stmt.all()` vs `stmt.iterate()` for full results + +Both approaches for the complete ~23k result set. No early termination. + +**Design question:** When we need ALL results, does `iterate()` add +per-row overhead vs `all()`? + +### B6: `better-sqlite3` prepared statement reuse + +Prepare statement once, run `.iterate()` with different TTY params across +multiple calls. + +**Design question:** How much does statement compilation cost? Relevant for +the `expandForValueSet` path which would prepare queries once and reuse. + +### B7: UNION vs multiple queries vs IN() + +- A: `SELECT ... WHERE TTY='SBD' UNION ALL SELECT ... WHERE TTY='SCD'` +- B: Two separate queries, merge arrays in JS +- C: `SELECT ... WHERE TTY IN ('SBD','SCD')` + +All return ~62k rows (SBD+SCD). + +**Design question:** For multi-include ValueSets (TTY=SBD + TTY=SCD), should +the provider combine into one SQL query? We found IN() was slow for +locateMany (individual RXCUI lookups) — is it also slow for filter-style +queries where the IN set is tiny (2-3 TTY values)? + +### B8: NOT IN for excludes + +- A: `SELECT ... WHERE TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN ('12345','67890',...50 codes)` +- B: `SELECT ... WHERE TTY='SBD'` then filter out 50 codes in JS + +**Design question:** Should the provider push excludes into SQL? For small +exclude lists this should be fine, but at what size does NOT IN degrade? + +### B9: Row construction cost + +Iterate all ~23k SBD rows from `stmt.iterate()`: +- A: Just count rows (no object construction) +- B: Build a minimal JS object per row: `{ code, display, suppress }` +- C: Build a rich object mimicking FHIR expansion entry (code, display, + system, version, inactive flag, status, designations array) + +**Design question:** Where is time actually spent — SQL cursor stepping +or JS object construction? If construction dominates, lazy iteration +saves nothing for offset-skipped rows unless we can also skip construction. + +### B10: OFFSET scan cost + +`SELECT ... WHERE TTY<>'SY' AND SAB='RXNORM' LIMIT 100 OFFSET N` +for N = 0, 100, 1000, 10000, 50000, 100000. + +Uses the full ~250k row result set (all TTYs except SY). + +**Design question:** Is SQLite OFFSET O(N)? If so, pushing OFFSET to +SQL only saves JS-side work, not DB scan time. + +## Decision Matrix + +| Benchmark | Design question | +|-----------|----------------| +| B1 vs B2 | Is LIMIT/OFFSET worth pushing to SQL? | +| B3 | Can we do lazy iteration with current `sqlite3` package? | +| B4 vs B1 | Is `better-sqlite3` migration worth it? | +| B5 | Overhead of lazy iteration when all rows needed? | +| B6 | Statement compilation cost (amortized)? | +| B7 | Merge multi-include into one query? | +| B8 | Push excludes into SQL? | +| B9 | SQL vs JS cost breakdown per row? | +| B10 | OFFSET scan cost — O(1) or O(N)? | + +## Expected Outcomes → Interface Design + +- If **B4 shows big wins** → migrate to `better-sqlite3`, design around lazy + iterables, paging push-down becomes "nice to have" not "essential" +- If **B3 is viable** → lazy iteration possible without package migration +- If **B10 shows OFFSET is O(N)** → paging push-down only saves JS object + construction, not DB work. Still useful but less critical. +- If **B7 shows UNION/IN is efficient** → `expandForValueSet` should merge + all includes for one CS into a single query +- If **B9 shows JS construction dominates** → the lazy iterable must also + skip object construction for offset rows (return raw row, let worker decide + whether to construct) diff --git a/scripts/perf-new-paths.js b/scripts/perf-new-paths.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a557711 --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/perf-new-paths.js @@ -0,0 +1,492 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +/** + * Performance comparison script for incremental provider enhancements. + * + * Usage: + * node scripts/perf-new-paths.js [--branch=incremental|main|both] [--iterations=5] [--warmup=2] + * + * Measures HTTP latency for requests exercising the new code paths: + * - locateMany (inline concept[] lists in ValueSet) + * - filterPage (is-a filters with large result sets) + * - display fast path (workingLanguages only) + * - property skip (no property[] requested) + * - provider cache (repeated CodeSystem resolution) + * + * On the incremental branch, also reads /debug/perf-counters to verify path coverage. + * Runs serially (one server at a time) to avoid RAM contention. + */ + +const { execSync, spawn } = require('child_process'); +const http = require('http'); +const path = require('path'); + +// --- Configuration --- +const INCREMENTAL_DIR = '/home/jmandel/hobby/FHIRsmith-incremental'; +const MAIN_DIR = '/home/jmandel/hobby/FHIRsmith-main'; +const CONFIG = 'tx/tx.test-lite.yml'; +const PORT = 8099; +const BASE = `http://localhost:${PORT}/r4`; +const DEBUG_BASE = `http://localhost:${PORT}`; + +const args = process.argv.slice(2).reduce((m, a) => { + const [k, v] = a.replace(/^--/, '').split('='); + m[k] = v || true; + return m; +}, {}); +const BRANCH = args.branch || 'both'; +const ITERATIONS = parseInt(args.iterations) || 5; +const WARMUP = parseInt(args.warmup) || 2; + +// --- Test cases --- +// Each test targets a specific new code path at meaningful scale. + +// 1000 RxNorm ingredient codes — SQL IN(...) vs 1000 individual queries +const RXNORM_CODES = require('./perf-rxnorm-codes.json'); + +// 200 SNOMED codes for batch locate (in-memory binary search; less impact than RxNorm) +const SNOMED_CODES = [ + '404684003','38341003','73211009','386661006','84114007','233604007','49727002','25064002', + '128462008','44054006','267036007','68566005','13645005','22298006','233615004','195967001', + '43878008','271807003','56018004','40930008','22253000','70582006','64859006','10509002', + '73430006','414545008','82423001','3723001','29857009','86299006','59282003','197480006', + '65966004','409622000','126485001','301011002','62315008','39579001','41006004','26929004', + '50043002','60046008','75570004','118601006','95417003','73595000','47505003','78648007', + '309557009','399068003','84757009','271737000','161891005','3424008','13213009','44695005', + '36971009','111056004','2776000','87433001','23986001','302866003','33737001','59455009', + '239873007','26079004','55342001','127295002','185903001','312608009','225728007','386692008', + '44465007','43116000','254837009','372086001','128477000','23685000','128053003','74400008', + '36989005','118599009','128462008','44054006','267036007','68566005','13645005','22298006', + '233615004','195967001','43878008','271807003','56018004','40930008','22253000','70582006', + '64859006','10509002','73430006','414545008','82423001','3723001','29857009','86299006', + '59282003','197480006','65966004','409622000','126485001','301011002','62315008','39579001', + '41006004','26929004','50043002','60046008','75570004','118601006','95417003','73595000', + '47505003','78648007','309557009','399068003','84757009','271737000','161891005','3424008', + '13213009','44695005','36971009','111056004','2776000','87433001','23986001','302866003', + '33737001','59455009','239873007','26079004','55342001','127295002','185903001','312608009', + '225728007','386692008','44465007','43116000','254837009','372086001','128477000','23685000', + '128053003','74400008','36989005','118599009','84757009','271737000','161891005','3424008', + '13213009','44695005','36971009','111056004','2776000','87433001','23986001','302866003', + '33737001','59455009','239873007','26079004','55342001','127295002','185903001','312608009', + '225728007','386692008','44465007','43116000','254837009','372086001','128477000','23685000', + '128053003','74400008','36989005','118599009','404684003','38341003','73211009','386661006', + '84114007','233604007','49727002','25064002','128462008','44054006','267036007','68566005', +]; + +const TESTS = [ + { + name: 'locateMany-rxnorm-1k', + desc: 'RxNorm 1000 codes: 1 SQL IN(...) vs 1000 individual queries', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [{ + name: 'valueSet', + resource: { + resourceType: 'ValueSet', + status: 'active', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: 'http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm', + concept: RXNORM_CODES.map(c => ({ code: c })) + }] + } + } + }] + }) + }, + { + name: 'locateMany-snomed-200', + desc: 'SNOMED 200 codes: batch binary search', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [{ + name: 'valueSet', + resource: { + resourceType: 'ValueSet', + status: 'active', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: 'http://snomed.info/sct', + concept: SNOMED_CODES.map(c => ({ code: c })) + }] + } + } + }] + }) + }, + { + name: 'filterPage-snomed-5k', + desc: 'SNOMED is-a filter, 5000 results: paged vs one-at-a-time', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'url', valueUri: 'http://hl7.org/fhir/ValueSet/device-kind' }, + { name: 'count', valueInteger: 5000 }, + ] + }) + }, + { + name: 'filterPage-snomed-uncapped', + desc: 'SNOMED is-a filter, uncapped: full iteration stress test', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'url', valueUri: 'http://hl7.org/fhir/ValueSet/device-kind' }, + ] + }) + }, + { + name: 'propSkip-large', + desc: 'Large expansion without property[]: skip N getProperties() calls', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'url', valueUri: 'http://hl7.org/fhir/ValueSet/device-kind' }, + { name: 'count', valueInteger: 2000 }, + ] + }) + }, + { + name: 'propLoad-large', + desc: 'Large expansion WITH property[]: load properties for comparison', + body: () => ({ + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'url', valueUri: 'http://hl7.org/fhir/ValueSet/device-kind' }, + { name: 'count', valueInteger: 2000 }, + { name: 'property', valueString: 'inactive' }, + ] + }) + }, +]; + +// --- HTTP helpers --- +function httpPost(url, body) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const u = new URL(url); + const data = JSON.stringify(body); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname, + method: 'POST', + headers: { 'Content-Type': 'application/fhir+json', 'Content-Length': Buffer.byteLength(data) }, + timeout: 120000, + }, res => { + let body = ''; + res.on('data', d => body += d); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body })); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.on('timeout', () => { req.destroy(); reject(new Error('timeout')); }); + req.write(data); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpGet(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const u = new URL(url); + http.get({ hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname, timeout: 10000 }, res => { + let body = ''; + res.on('data', d => body += d); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body })); + }).on('error', reject); + }); +} + +function httpPostSimple(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const u = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname, + method: 'POST', + headers: { 'Content-Length': 0 }, + timeout: 10000, + }, res => { + let body = ''; + res.on('data', d => body += d); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body })); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.write(''); + req.end(); + }); +} + +// --- Server lifecycle --- +function patchConfig(dir) { + const configPath = path.join(dir, 'data', 'config.json'); + const config = JSON.parse(require('fs').readFileSync(configPath, 'utf8')); + const origSource = config.modules.tx.librarySource; + config.modules.tx.librarySource = CONFIG; + config.modules.tx.host = `localhost:${PORT}`; + config.modules.tx.baseUrl = `http://localhost:${PORT}`; + require('fs').writeFileSync(configPath, JSON.stringify(config, null, 2)); + return origSource; +} + +function restoreConfig(dir, origSource) { + const configPath = path.join(dir, 'data', 'config.json'); + const config = JSON.parse(require('fs').readFileSync(configPath, 'utf8')); + config.modules.tx.librarySource = origSource; + config.modules.tx.host = config.modules.tx.host; // leave as-is + require('fs').writeFileSync(configPath, JSON.stringify(config, null, 2)); +} + +function startServer(dir) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const child = spawn('node', ['server.js'], { + cwd: dir, + env: { ...process.env, PORT: String(PORT), NODE_ENV: 'test' }, + stdio: ['ignore', 'pipe', 'pipe'], + }); + + let output = ''; + const onData = (chunk) => { + output += chunk.toString(); + // Wait for server ready + if (output.includes('Server running on') || output.includes('Terminology module loaded')) { + child.stdout.removeListener('data', onData); + child.stderr.removeListener('data', onData); + resolve(child); + } + }; + child.stdout.on('data', onData); + child.stderr.on('data', onData); + child.on('error', reject); + child.on('exit', (code) => { + if (code) reject(new Error(`Server exited with code ${code}\n${output}`)); + }); + + // Fallback: poll health + const poll = setInterval(async () => { + try { + const r = await httpGet(`http://localhost:${PORT}/health`); + if (r.status === 200) { + clearInterval(poll); + child.stdout.removeListener('data', onData); + child.stderr.removeListener('data', onData); + resolve(child); + } + } catch { /* not ready */ } + }, 2000); + + // Timeout + setTimeout(() => { + clearInterval(poll); + reject(new Error(`Server start timeout.\nOutput: ${output}`)); + }, 300000); + }); +} + +function stopServer(child) { + return new Promise((resolve) => { + if (!child || child.killed) { resolve(); return; } + child.on('exit', () => resolve()); + child.kill('SIGTERM'); + setTimeout(() => { + if (!child.killed) child.kill('SIGKILL'); + resolve(); + }, 10000); + }); +} + +async function waitReady() { + // Give the server a moment to finish any lazy init + for (let i = 0; i < 30; i++) { + try { + const r = await httpGet(`http://localhost:${PORT}/health`); + if (r.status === 200) return; + } catch { /* not ready */ } + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 1000)); + } + throw new Error('Server not ready after 30s'); +} + +// --- Measurement --- +async function runTest(test) { + const body = test.body(); + const url = `${BASE}/ValueSet/$expand`; + const t0 = performance.now(); + const result = await httpPost(url, body); + const elapsedMs = performance.now() - t0; + return { elapsedMs, status: result.status }; +} + +async function runSuite(label, dir, isIncremental) { + console.log(`\n${'='.repeat(60)}`); + console.log(` ${label}`); + console.log(` dir: ${dir}`); + console.log(`${'='.repeat(60)}\n`); + + // Patch config to use lite library + console.log('Patching config to use lite library...'); + const origSource = patchConfig(dir); + + const results = {}; + for (const test of TESTS) { + results[test.name] = { times: [], statuses: [] }; + } + let counters = null; + let child; + + try { + console.log('Starting server...'); + child = await startServer(dir); + console.log('Server started, waiting for ready...'); + await waitReady(); + console.log('Server ready.'); + + // Enable perf counters on incremental branch + if (isIncremental) { + try { + await httpPostSimple(`${DEBUG_BASE}/debug/perf-counters/enable`); + console.log('Perf counters enabled.'); + } catch (e) { + console.log('(perf counters endpoint not available)'); + } + } + + // Warm-up + console.log(`\nWarm-up (${WARMUP} iterations)...`); + for (let w = 0; w < WARMUP; w++) { + for (const test of TESTS) { + await runTest(test); + } + } + + // Reset counters after warmup + if (isIncremental) { + try { await httpPostSimple(`${DEBUG_BASE}/debug/perf-counters/reset`); } catch { /* ok */ } + } + + // Measured runs + console.log(`\nMeasuring (${ITERATIONS} iterations)...`); + for (let i = 0; i < ITERATIONS; i++) { + for (const test of TESTS) { + const r = await runTest(test); + results[test.name].times.push(r.elapsedMs); + results[test.name].statuses.push(r.status); + } + } + + // Read perf counters + if (isIncremental) { + try { + const r = await httpGet(`${DEBUG_BASE}/debug/perf-counters`); + counters = JSON.parse(r.body); + } catch { /* ok */ } + } + + await stopServer(child); + } finally { + // Ensure server is stopped even on error + if (child && !child.killed) { + try { await stopServer(child); } catch { /* ok */ } + } + // Restore original config + restoreConfig(dir, origSource); + console.log('Config restored.'); + } + + // Small delay to ensure port is released + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 2000)); + + return { results, counters }; +} + +function stats(arr) { + const sorted = [...arr].sort((a, b) => a - b); + const sum = sorted.reduce((a, b) => a + b, 0); + const mean = sum / sorted.length; + const median = sorted[Math.floor(sorted.length / 2)]; + const p95 = sorted[Math.floor(sorted.length * 0.95)]; + const min = sorted[0]; + const max = sorted[sorted.length - 1]; + return { mean: +mean.toFixed(1), median: +median.toFixed(1), p95: +p95.toFixed(1), min: +min.toFixed(1), max: +max.toFixed(1) }; +} + +function printResults(label, data) { + console.log(`\n--- ${label} ---`); + console.log(`${'Test'.padEnd(30)} ${'Mean'.padStart(9)} ${'Median'.padStart(9)} ${'P95'.padStart(9)} ${'Min'.padStart(9)} ${'Max'.padStart(9)} Status`); + console.log('-'.repeat(90)); + for (const test of TESTS) { + const d = data.results[test.name]; + const s = stats(d.times); + const statusOk = d.statuses.every(x => x === 200) ? '✓ 200' : `✗ ${[...new Set(d.statuses)]}`; + console.log(`${test.name.padEnd(30)} ${(s.mean + 'ms').padStart(9)} ${(s.median + 'ms').padStart(9)} ${(s.p95 + 'ms').padStart(9)} ${(s.min + 'ms').padStart(9)} ${(s.max + 'ms').padStart(9)} ${statusOk}`); + } +} + +function printCounters(counters) { + if (!counters) { console.log('\n(no perf counters available)'); return; } + console.log('\n--- Code Path Coverage (incremental) ---'); + console.log('Counts:'); + for (const [k, v] of Object.entries(counters.counts || {}).sort()) { + console.log(` ${k}: ${v}`); + } + console.log('Timings:'); + for (const [k, v] of Object.entries(counters.timings || {}).sort()) { + console.log(` ${k}: ${v.calls} calls, ${v.totalMs}ms total, ${(v.totalMs / v.calls).toFixed(2)}ms avg`); + } +} + +function printComparison(mainData, incrData) { + console.log('\n--- Comparison (incremental vs main) ---'); + console.log(`${'Test'.padEnd(30)} ${'Main (ms)'.padStart(12)} ${'Incr (ms)'.padStart(12)} ${'Δ'.padStart(10)} ${'%'.padStart(8)}`); + console.log('-'.repeat(75)); + for (const test of TESTS) { + const mainMean = stats(mainData.results[test.name].times).mean; + const incrMean = stats(incrData.results[test.name].times).mean; + const delta = incrMean - mainMean; + const pct = mainMean > 0 ? ((delta / mainMean) * 100).toFixed(1) : 'N/A'; + const sign = delta < 0 ? '' : '+'; + console.log(`${test.name.padEnd(30)} ${(mainMean + '').padStart(12)} ${(incrMean + '').padStart(12)} ${(sign + delta.toFixed(1)).padStart(10)} ${(sign + pct + '%').padStart(8)}`); + } +} + +// --- Main --- +async function main() { + console.log('Performance comparison: incremental provider enhancements'); + console.log(`Iterations: ${ITERATIONS}, Warmup: ${WARMUP}`); + + let mainData = null; + let incrData = null; + + if (BRANCH === 'main' || BRANCH === 'both') { + mainData = await runSuite('BASELINE (upstream/main)', MAIN_DIR, false); + printResults('Baseline (upstream/main)', mainData); + } + + if (BRANCH === 'incremental' || BRANCH === 'both') { + incrData = await runSuite('INCREMENTAL (enhanced)', INCREMENTAL_DIR, true); + printResults('Incremental (enhanced)', incrData); + printCounters(incrData.counters); + } + + if (mainData && incrData) { + printComparison(mainData, incrData); + } + + // Verify code path coverage on incremental + if (incrData?.counters) { + console.log('\n--- Path Coverage Verification ---'); + const c = incrData.counters.counts || {}; + // display.fastPath requires workingLanguages to be English-only without + // implicit wildcard, which fromAcceptLanguage always adds — so it won't + // trigger via HTTP requests. Track it as informational, not required. + const expected = ['locate.batched', 'filter.paged', 'props.skipped', 'cache.hit']; + const informational = ['display.fastPath', 'display.fullPath']; + let allHit = true; + for (const name of expected) { + const hit = (c[name] || 0) > 0; + console.log(` ${hit ? '✓' : '✗'} ${name}: ${c[name] || 0}`); + if (!hit) allHit = false; + } + console.log(allHit ? '\n✓ All required code paths were exercised.' : '\n✗ Some required code paths were NOT exercised — check test cases.'); + console.log('Informational:'); + for (const name of informational) { + console.log(` ℹ ${name}: ${c[name] || 0}`); + } + } +} + +main().catch(e => { console.error(e); process.exit(1); }); diff --git a/scripts/perf-rxnorm-codes.json b/scripts/perf-rxnorm-codes.json new file mode 100644 index 0000000..f085462 --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/perf-rxnorm-codes.json @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +["1000082", "1000492", "1000577", "1000581", "1001", "10014", "100213", "100272", "100278", "10030", "10032", "10046", "1005921", "1006258", "1006297", "1006310", "1006340", "1006371", "1006397", "1006469", "1006495", "1006506", "1006510", "1006619", "1006654", "10079", "1009", "1009342", "1009447", "1009451", "10098", "10104", "10106", "1010879", "10109", "1010915", "1010926", "1010932", "1010954", "1010965", "1010971", "1010999", "1011", "1011017", "1011021", "1011027", "1011033", "1011043", "1011049", "1011060", "1011066", "10114", "1011404", "1011412", "1011418", "1011426", "1011450", "1011627", "1011633", "1011650", "1012026", "1012134", "1012140", "1012179", "1012183", "1012190", "10122", "1012534", "1012890", "1012892", "1013913", "1013944", "1014191", "1014340", "1014360", "1014385", "1014391", "1014395", "1014399", "1014447", "1014690", "1014707", "1014711", "1014721", "1014731", "1014735", "1014739", "1014743", "1014749", "1014755", "1014762", "1014766", "1014774", "10154", "10156", "10159", "10167", "10168", "10169", "10171", "10172", "10173", "10174", "10175", "10176", "10178", "10179", "10180", "10181", "10183", "10184", "10188", "10193", "10205", "10206", "10207", "10212", "10223", "10231", "10237", "10239", "10240", "10245", "10255", "10256", "102792", "102846", "102848", "10288", "1029", "103", "10318", "10322", "10323", "10324", "10328", "10337", "10355", "10362", "10368", "1037042", "10378", "10379", "10390", "1039062", "10391", "10395", "1040004", "1040005", "1040028", "10402", "104125", "104129", "1043", "1043181", "10432", "1043631", "10437", "10438", "1044269", "1044584", "104486", "1044975", "1044977", "10450", "10454", "1045453", "10463", "10464", "1047072", "10471", "10472", "10473", "10485", "10493", "10498", "10502", "10510", "10517", "10524", "10528", "1054", "10553", "1056", "10561", "10562", "10565", "105655", "105669", "105673", "105694", "105695", "10572", "10579", "10580", "10582", "10588", "10591", "10594", "10597", "10600", "10603", "10612", "106212", "10627", "10633", "10634", "10635", "10636", "10637", "10638", "10639", "10689", "10691", "107056", "10734", "10735", "10737", "10753", "10756", "10757", "10759", "10763", "10767", "10772", "107770", "107771", "107784", "10795", "10798", "10800", "10803", "10804", "10805", "108074", "108088", "108091", "10811", "108118", "10814", "10819", "10824", "10825", "10826", "10827", "10828", "10829", "10834", "10844", "10847", "10849", "1085787", "1085955", "10864", "10865", "1086769", "10869", "10878", "1088438", "1088591", "10890", "10898", "10908", "1091", "1091643", "10917", "1091836", "1091919", "1092437", "10938", "1094060", "1094116", "1094193", "1094833", "10958", "10960", "10962", "10968", "1098", "1098118", "1098130", "1098183", "1098189", "1098200", "1098232", "1098247", "1098257", "1098274", "1098353", "1098413", "1098455", "1098619", "10991", "10995", "10996", "1099660", "10999", "1099933", "1099937", "110", "1100072", "11002", "1100699", "11017", "1102129", "1102188", "1102261", "1102270", "11055", "1110783", "1111", "1111024", "1111103", "11115", "11121", "11124", "1112973", "1112990", "11131", "1113697", "1114112", "1114195", "1114326", "1114345", "1114883", "11149", "1116238", "1116632", "1116977", "1116979", "11170", "1117083", "11194", "11196", "11198", "1119986", "11201", "11202", "11204", "11232", "11246", "11248", "11251", "11253", "11256", "11258", "11274", "11289", "11291", "11295", "11327", "113373", "113374", "11359", "113608", "11363", "11371", "11377", "11378", "113831", "114052", "11413", "11416", "114176", "114200", "114202", "114203", "11422", "11423", "114289", "11431", "114464", "114477", "1144960", "11454", "1145945", "11469", "1147220", "11473", "1147320", "11476", "1148138", "114817", "1148495", "114934", "114970", "114979", "1150096", "1151", "11516", "115238", "115243", "115264", "115552", "1156", "115698", "1157", "11636", "11645", "1169", "117055", "117466", "117896", "1182", "118886", "1191", "1191668", "119246", "1192621", "1192729", "1192968", "1192987", "1192992", "1192997", "1193003", "1193326", "119565", "119771", "1202", "120608", "12062", "121047", "121069", "121070", "121191", "121243", "12166", "1218", "1223", "1227", "1232150", "1232311", "1232405", "1232604", "1232630", "1232637", "1236136", "124150", "1242127", "1242806", "1242987", "1242999", "1243041", "124323", "1244014", "124427", "124431", "1244607", "12449", "1246101", "12473", "124848", "1248798", "1250203", "1251", "1251576", "1256", "12574", "125918", "125921", "125929", "125933", "126291", "1266", "1272", "1291", "1291301", "1291425", "1291609", "1292", "1292422", "1293254", "1293719", "1294580", "1294628", "1294630", "1294632", "1294634", "1297525", "1297527", "1297529", "1297531", "1297533", "1297535", "1297537", "1298944", "1299884", "1299981", "1300701", "1300786", "1301854", "1302966", "1303098", "1304974", "1305515", "1305516", "1305517", "1305530", "1305532", "1305536", "1305545", "1305547", "1305548", "1305549", "1305550", "1305551", "1305552", "1305553", "1305554", "1305555", "1305556", "1305559", "1305560", "1305564", "1305567", "1305574", "1305576", "1305578", "1305579", "1305581", "1305582", "1305585", "1305600", "1305601", "1305608", "1305630", "1305631", "1305633", "1305634", "1305635", "1305636", "1305638", "1305639", "1305640", "1305641", "1305642", "1305643", "1305648", "1305649", "1305650", "1305651", "1305652", "1305653", "1305654", "1305655", "1305656", "1305657", "1305658", "1305659", "1305660", "1305661", "1305662", "1305663", "1305664", "1305665", "1305669", "1305670", "1305715", "1305716", "1305719", "1305720", "1305724", "1305725", "1305727", "1305728", "1305738", "1305739", "1305743", "1305744", "1305745", "1305748", "1305749", "1305751", "1305758", "1305761", "1305762", "1305763", "1305896", "1305899", "1306057", "1306058", "1306059", "1306060", "1306061", "1306063", "1306066", "1306068", "1306094", "1306095", "1306096", "1306097", "1306098", "1306100", "1306107", "1306108", "1306111", "1306112", "1306115", "1306117", "1306118", "1306119", "1306120", "1306122", "1306124", "1306125", "1306128", "1306130", "1306131", "1306132", "1306133", "1306134", "1306135", "1306136", "1306137", "1306138", "1306144", "1306145", "1306146", "1306148", "1306149", "1306150", "1306151", "1306152", "1306153", "1306154", "1306155", "1306156", "1306157", "1306158", "1306159", "1306160", "1306161", "1306162", "1306163", "1306164", "1306165", "1306166", "1306167", "1306168", "1306169", "1306170", "1306171", "1306172", "1306173", "1306174", "1306175", "1306178", "1306179", "1306180", "1306181", "1306182", "1306183", "1306184", "1306185", "1306188", "1306189", "1306190", "1306191", "1306192", "1306193", "1306194", "1306195", "1306197", "1306198", "1306199", "1306200", "1306201", "1306203", "1306204", "1306205", "1306206", "1306207", "1306208", "1306209", "1306210", "1306211", "1306212", "1306235", "1306284", "1306286", "1306351", "1306881", "1306882", "1306883", "1306885", "1306886", "1306933", "1306935", "1306937", "1306938", "1306940", "1306941", "1306942", "1306943", "1306944", "1306945", "1306946", "1306947", "1306948", "1307035", "1307037", "1307038", "1307039", "1307040", "1307041", "1307042", "1307043", "1307044", "1307045", "1307046", "1307048", "1307049", "1307050", "1307079", "1307080", "1307081", "1307083", "1307085", "1307086", "1307087", "1307088", "1307090", "1307091", "1307092", "1307093", "1307094", "1307096", "1307097", "1307098", "1307099", "1307100", "1307101", "1307102", "1307106", "1307141", "1307142", "1307143", "1307144", "1307145", "1307148", "1307149", "1307150", "1307151", "1307152", "1307153", "1307154", "1307155", "1307156", "1307157", "1307262", "1307263", "1307298", "1307310", "1307312", "1307313", "1307314", "1307404", "1307539", "1307540", "1307541", "1307542", "1307543", "1307544", "1307545", "1307547", "1307548", "1307549", "1307550", "1307553", "1307554", "1307555", "1307556", "1307557", "1307558", "1307560", "1307561", "1307562", "1307563", "1307564", "1307565", "1307566", "1307567", "1307568", "1307569", "1307570", "1307571", "1307572", "1307573", "1307574", "1307575", "1307576", "1307577", "1307578", "1307579", "1307580", "1307581", "1307582", "1307585", "1307586", "1307587", "1307589", "1307590", "1307591", "1307592", "1307593", "1307594", "1307595", "1307596", "1307597", "1307598", "1307599", "1307600", "1307601", "1307602", "1307603", "1307604", "1307605", "1307606", "1307607", "1307609", "1307610", "1307611", "1307612", "1307613", "1307614", "1307617", "1307618", "1307619", "1307631", "1307636", "1307637", "1307638", "1307639", "1307640", "1307641", "1307642", "1307643", "1307644", "1307645", "1307646", "1307647", "1307648", "1307649", "1307653", "1307655", "1307658", "1307659", "1307660", "1307661", "1307663", "1307664", "1307665", "1307667", "1307668", "1307669", "1307670", "1307671", "1307672", "1307673", "1307674", "1307675", "1307676", "1307677", "1307678", "1307679", "1307680", "1307681", "1307682", "1307683", "1307684", "1307685", "1307686", "1307687", "1307688", "1307689", "1307690", "1307691", "1307692", "1307693", "1307694", "1307695", "1307696", "1307697", "1307698", "1307699", "1307700", "1307701", "1307702", "1307703", "1307704", "1307705", "1307706", "1307707", "1307708", "1307709", "1307710", "1307711", "1307712", "1307713", "1307714", "1307715", "1307716", "1307717", "1307718", "1307719", "1307720", "1307721", "1307722", "1307723", "1307724", "1307726", "1307727", "1307729", "1307730", "1307731", "1307732", "1307733", "1307735", "1307736", "1307737", "1307738", "1307739", "1307740", "1307741", "1307742", "1307743", "1307744", "1307745", "1307746", "1307747", "1307748", "1307749", "1307750", "1307752", "1307753", "1307754", "1307755", "1307756", "1307757", "1307758", "1307759", "1307760", "1307761", "1307762", "1307763", "1307764", "1307766", "1307767", "1307768", "1307769", "1307770", "1307772", "1307773", "1307775", "1307777", "1307778", "1307779", "1307780", "1307781", "1307782", "1307783", "1307784", "1307787", "1307788", "1307789", "1307790", "1307791", "1307792", "1307794", "1307797", "1307800", "1307801", "1307802", "1307803", "1307804", "1307805", "1307806", "1307807", "1307808", "1307809", "1307810", "1307812", "1307814", "1307815", "1307816", "1307817", "1307818", "1307819", "1307820", "1307822", "1307824", "1307825", "1307826", "1307827", "1307828", "1307829", "1307830", "1307831", "1307832", "1307833"] \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/scripts/replay-sampled-terminology.js b/scripts/replay-sampled-terminology.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..45879c5 --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/replay-sampled-terminology.js @@ -0,0 +1,381 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +'use strict'; + +const fs = require('fs'); +const path = require('path'); +const express = require('express'); +const TXModule = require('../tx/tx.js'); +const ServerStats = require('../stats'); + +function parseArgs(argv) { + const out = { + input: 'captured/snomed.ndjson', + out: 'captured/snomed-replay-intended-results.json', + port: 9400, + endpointPath: '/r4', + librarySource: 'tx/tx.snomed-v0.yml', + intendedSource: 'prod', + compare: null, + }; + + for (let i = 0; i < argv.length; i++) { + const a = argv[i]; + if (a === '--input' && argv[i + 1]) out.input = argv[++i]; + else if (a === '--out' && argv[i + 1]) out.out = argv[++i]; + else if (a === '--port' && argv[i + 1]) out.port = Number(argv[++i]); + else if (a === '--path' && argv[i + 1]) out.endpointPath = argv[++i]; + else if (a === '--library' && argv[i + 1]) out.librarySource = argv[++i]; + else if (a === '--intended-source' && argv[i + 1]) out.intendedSource = argv[++i]; + else if (a === '--compare' && argv[i + 1]) out.compare = argv[++i]; + } + + if (!['prod', 'dev'].includes(out.intendedSource)) { + throw new Error(`--intended-source must be prod|dev (got "${out.intendedSource}")`); + } + if (!Number.isFinite(out.port) || out.port <= 0) { + throw new Error(`Invalid --port: ${out.port}`); + } + + return out; +} + +function readNdjson(filePath) { + const abs = path.resolve(filePath); + if (!fs.existsSync(abs)) { + throw new Error(`Input NDJSON not found: ${abs}`); + } + const lines = fs.readFileSync(abs, 'utf8').split('\n').filter(Boolean); + return lines.map((line, i) => { + try { + return JSON.parse(line); + } catch (error) { + throw new Error(`Invalid JSON at ${abs}:${i + 1} (${error.message})`); + } + }); +} + +function parseResourceType(body) { + if (!body || typeof body !== 'object' || Array.isArray(body)) return null; + return typeof body.resourceType === 'string' ? body.resourceType : null; +} + +function isJsonObject(value) { + return !!value && typeof value === 'object' && !Array.isArray(value); +} + +function intendedStatusFromSample(sample, intendedSource) { + if (intendedSource === 'dev') return sample.devStatus; + return sample.prodStatus; +} + +async function startServer(port, endpointPath, librarySource) { + const app = express(); + app.use(express.raw({ type: 'application/fhir+json', limit: '50mb' })); + app.use(express.raw({ type: 'application/fhir+xml', limit: '50mb' })); + app.use(express.json({ limit: '50mb' })); + + const config = { + enabled: true, + consoleErrors: false, + host: 'local.host', + librarySource, + endpoints: [{ path: endpointPath, fhirVersion: endpointPath === '/r5' ? '5.0' : '4.0', context: null }], + }; + + const stats = new ServerStats(); + const txModule = new TXModule(stats); + await txModule.initialize(config, app); + + const server = await new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const s = app.listen(port, (err) => (err ? reject(err) : resolve(s))); + }); + + return { app, server, txModule, stats }; +} + +async function stopServer(ctx) { + if (ctx.txModule && typeof ctx.txModule.shutdown === 'function') { + await ctx.txModule.shutdown(); + } + if (ctx.stats && typeof ctx.stats.finishStats === 'function') { + ctx.stats.finishStats(); + } + await new Promise((resolve) => { + ctx.server.closeAllConnections?.(); + ctx.server.close(() => resolve()); + }); +} + +function summarizeResults(results) { + const byActual = {}; + const byIntendedPair = {}; + const topMismatches = {}; + + let intendedPass = 0; + let intendedFail = 0; + let prodMatch = 0; + let devMatch = 0; + let noActual = 0; + let postTotal = 0; + let postWithBody = 0; + let postMissingBody = 0; + let totalDuration = 0; + let maxDuration = 0; + + for (const r of results) { + const statusKey = r.actualStatus == null ? 'ERR' : String(r.actualStatus); + byActual[statusKey] = (byActual[statusKey] || 0) + 1; + + const pair = `${r.intendedStatus}->${statusKey}`; + byIntendedPair[pair] = (byIntendedPair[pair] || 0) + 1; + + if (r.statusMatch.intended === true) intendedPass += 1; + else intendedFail += 1; + + if (r.statusMatch.prod === true) prodMatch += 1; + if (r.statusMatch.dev === true) devMatch += 1; + if (r.actualStatus == null) noActual += 1; + + if (r.method === 'POST') { + postTotal += 1; + if (r.hadBody) postWithBody += 1; + else postMissingBody += 1; + } + + totalDuration += r.durationMs; + if (r.durationMs > maxDuration) maxDuration = r.durationMs; + + if (r.statusMatch.intended !== true) { + const sig = r.signature || `${r.method} ${r.url}`; + topMismatches[sig] = (topMismatches[sig] || 0) + 1; + } + } + + const topPairs = Object.entries(byIntendedPair).sort((a, b) => b[1] - a[1]).slice(0, 12); + const topFailSigs = Object.entries(topMismatches).sort((a, b) => b[1] - a[1]).slice(0, 12); + + return { + total: results.length, + intendedPass, + intendedFail, + prodMatch, + devMatch, + noActual, + postTotal, + postWithBody, + postMissingBody, + avgDurationMs: results.length ? Math.round(totalDuration / results.length) : 0, + maxDurationMs: maxDuration, + byActual, + topPairs, + topFailSigs, + }; +} + +function actualStatusFromPrior(record) { + if (typeof record?.actualStatus === 'number') return record.actualStatus; + if (typeof record?.actual === 'number') return record.actual; + return null; +} + +function compareAgainstPrior(currentResults, priorResults, sampleById) { + const priorById = new Map(); + for (const r of priorResults || []) { + if (r && r.id) priorById.set(r.id, r); + } + + const classifications = []; + const summary = { + compared: 0, + noPrior: 0, + improved: 0, + regressed: 0, + unchangedPass: 0, + unchangedFail: 0, + changedStatus: 0, + }; + + for (const cur of currentResults) { + const sample = sampleById.get(cur.id); + const prior = priorById.get(cur.id); + if (!sample || !prior) { + summary.noPrior += 1; + continue; + } + + const priorActual = actualStatusFromPrior(prior); + if (priorActual == null) { + summary.noPrior += 1; + continue; + } + + const priorIntendedMatch = priorActual === cur.intendedStatus; + const currentIntendedMatch = cur.statusMatch.intended === true; + let classification = 'unchanged-fail'; + + if (!priorIntendedMatch && currentIntendedMatch) classification = 'improved'; + else if (priorIntendedMatch && !currentIntendedMatch) classification = 'regressed'; + else if (priorIntendedMatch && currentIntendedMatch) classification = 'unchanged-pass'; + + summary.compared += 1; + if (classification === 'improved') summary.improved += 1; + else if (classification === 'regressed') summary.regressed += 1; + else if (classification === 'unchanged-pass') summary.unchangedPass += 1; + else summary.unchangedFail += 1; + + if (priorActual !== cur.actualStatus) summary.changedStatus += 1; + + classifications.push({ + id: cur.id, + url: cur.url, + signature: cur.signature, + intendedStatus: cur.intendedStatus, + priorActualStatus: priorActual, + currentActualStatus: cur.actualStatus, + priorIntendedMatch, + currentIntendedMatch, + classification, + }); + } + + const topChanged = classifications + .filter((c) => c.priorActualStatus !== c.currentActualStatus) + .slice(0, 25); + const regressed = classifications.filter((c) => c.classification === 'regressed').slice(0, 25); + const improved = classifications.filter((c) => c.classification === 'improved').slice(0, 25); + + return { summary, improved, regressed, topChanged }; +} + +async function main() { + const args = parseArgs(process.argv.slice(2)); + const samples = readNdjson(args.input); + const sampleById = new Map(samples.map((s) => [s.id, s])); + + const outAbs = path.resolve(args.out); + fs.mkdirSync(path.dirname(outAbs), { recursive: true }); + + const serverCtx = await startServer(args.port, args.endpointPath, args.librarySource); + const results = []; + + try { + for (const sample of samples) { + const started = Date.now(); + const isPost = String(sample.method || '').toUpperCase() === 'POST'; + const body = isJsonObject(sample.requestBody) ? sample.requestBody : null; + const hadBody = !!body; + + let actualStatus = null; + let responseResourceType = null; + let responseBytes = 0; + let error = null; + + try { + const req = { + method: sample.method || 'GET', + headers: { accept: 'application/fhir+json, application/json' }, + }; + if (hadBody) { + req.headers['content-type'] = 'application/fhir+json'; + req.body = JSON.stringify(body); + } + + const resp = await fetch(`http://localhost:${args.port}${sample.url}`, req); + actualStatus = resp.status; + const text = await resp.text(); + responseBytes = text ? Buffer.byteLength(text, 'utf8') : 0; + if (text) { + try { + responseResourceType = parseResourceType(JSON.parse(text)); + } catch (_error) { + responseResourceType = null; + } + } + } catch (e) { + error = String(e?.message || e); + } + + const intendedStatus = intendedStatusFromSample(sample, args.intendedSource); + const prodStatus = sample.prodStatus; + const devStatus = sample.devStatus; + + results.push({ + id: sample.id, + ts: sample.ts, + method: sample.method, + url: sample.url, + signature: sample.signature, + prodStatus, + devStatus, + intendedSource: args.intendedSource, + intendedStatus, + actualStatus, + error, + statusMatch: { + intended: typeof actualStatus === 'number' && typeof intendedStatus === 'number' ? actualStatus === intendedStatus : false, + prod: typeof actualStatus === 'number' && typeof prodStatus === 'number' ? actualStatus === prodStatus : false, + dev: typeof actualStatus === 'number' && typeof devStatus === 'number' ? actualStatus === devStatus : false, + }, + hadBody, + requestBodyMissing: !!sample.requestBodyMissing, + requestBodyParseError: !!sample.requestBodyParseError, + durationMs: Date.now() - started, + responseBytes, + responseResourceType, + }); + } + } finally { + await stopServer(serverCtx); + } + + const overall = summarizeResults(results); + const r4 = summarizeResults(results.filter((r) => String(r.url).startsWith('/r4/'))); + const r5 = summarizeResults(results.filter((r) => String(r.url).startsWith('/r5/'))); + + let comparison = null; + if (args.compare) { + const compareAbs = path.resolve(args.compare); + const priorJson = JSON.parse(fs.readFileSync(compareAbs, 'utf8')); + const priorResults = Array.isArray(priorJson.results) ? priorJson.results : []; + comparison = { + against: compareAbs, + ...compareAgainstPrior(results, priorResults, sampleById), + }; + } + + const payload = { + generatedAt: new Date().toISOString(), + input: path.resolve(args.input), + port: args.port, + endpointPath: args.endpointPath, + librarySource: args.librarySource, + intendedSource: args.intendedSource, + overall, + r4, + r5, + comparison, + results, + }; + + fs.writeFileSync(outAbs, JSON.stringify(payload, null, 2)); + + const cliSummary = { + out: outAbs, + intendedSource: args.intendedSource, + overall: { + total: overall.total, + intendedPass: overall.intendedPass, + intendedFail: overall.intendedFail, + prodMatch: overall.prodMatch, + devMatch: overall.devMatch, + }, + comparison: comparison ? comparison.summary : null, + }; + console.log(JSON.stringify(cliSummary, null, 2)); +} + +main().catch((error) => { + console.error(error); + process.exit(1); +}); + diff --git a/scripts/sqlite-exclude-bench.js b/scripts/sqlite-exclude-bench.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..54d8dde --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/sqlite-exclude-bench.js @@ -0,0 +1,151 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +'use strict'; + +const path = require('path'); +const Database = require('better-sqlite3'); + +const DB_PATH = process.argv[2] || path.join(__dirname, '..', 'data', 'terminology-cache', 'rxnorm_02032025-a.db'); +const db = new Database(DB_PATH, { readonly: true }); + +// Get real exclude codes +const all50 = db.prepare("SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' LIMIT 50").all().map(r => r.RXCUI); +const all500 = db.prepare("SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' LIMIT 500").all().map(r => r.RXCUI); +const all2000 = db.prepare("SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' LIMIT 2000").all().map(r => r.RXCUI); + +function bench(name, fn, n = 7) { + fn(); fn(); // warmup + const times = []; + let result; + for (let i = 0; i < n; i++) { const t = performance.now(); result = fn(); times.push(performance.now() - t); } + times.sort((a, b) => a - b); + const rows = typeof result === 'number' ? result : '?'; + console.log(` ${name}: ${times[3].toFixed(3)}ms median [${times[0].toFixed(3)}–${times[6].toFixed(3)}] (${rows} rows)`); +} + +const BASE = "SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' ORDER BY RXCUI"; + +// --- Query plans --- +console.log('=== Query plans ==='); +const plans = [ + ["Baseline", BASE], + ["NOT IN literal", "SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN ('12345') ORDER BY RXCUI"], + ["NOT IN subquery", "SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='IN') ORDER BY RXCUI"], + ["NOT EXISTS", "SELECT r.RXCUI, r.STR, r.SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso r WHERE r.SAB='RXNORM' AND r.TTY='SBD' AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnconso x WHERE x.RXCUI=r.RXCUI AND x.SAB='RXNORM' AND x.TTY='IN') ORDER BY r.RXCUI"], + ["EXCEPT", "SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' EXCEPT SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='IN'"], +]; +for (const [label, sql] of plans) { + console.log(`\n ${label}:`); + const plan = db.prepare('EXPLAIN QUERY PLAN ' + sql).all(); + plan.forEach(r => console.log(` ${r.detail}`)); +} + +// --- 50 code excludes --- +console.log('\n\n=== Exclude: 50 codes ==='); +const lit50 = all50.map(c => `'${c}'`).join(','); +const set50 = new Set(all50); + +bench('NOT IN literal(50)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (${lit50}) ORDER BY RXCUI`).iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('JS Set.has(50)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(BASE).iterate()) { if (!set50.has(r.RXCUI)) c++; } + return c; +}); + +bench('NOT IN subquery(IN TTY ~14k)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare("SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='IN') ORDER BY RXCUI").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('NOT EXISTS(IN TTY ~14k)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare("SELECT r.RXCUI, r.STR, r.SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso r WHERE r.SAB='RXNORM' AND r.TTY='SBD' AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnconso x WHERE x.RXCUI=r.RXCUI AND x.SAB='RXNORM' AND x.TTY='IN') ORDER BY r.RXCUI").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('EXCEPT(IN TTY)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare("SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' EXCEPT SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='IN'").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +// --- 500 code excludes --- +console.log('\n=== Exclude: 500 codes ==='); +const lit500 = all500.map(c => `'${c}'`).join(','); +const set500 = new Set(all500); + +bench('NOT IN literal(500)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (${lit500}) ORDER BY RXCUI`).iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('JS Set.has(500)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(BASE).iterate()) { if (!set500.has(r.RXCUI)) c++; } + return c; +}); + +// --- 2000 code excludes --- +console.log('\n=== Exclude: 2000 codes ==='); +const lit2000 = all2000.map(c => `'${c}'`).join(','); +const set2000 = new Set(all2000); + +bench('NOT IN literal(2000)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (${lit2000}) ORDER BY RXCUI`).iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('JS Set.has(2000)', () => { + let c = 0; + for (const r of db.prepare(BASE).iterate()) { if (!set2000.has(r.RXCUI)) c++; } + return c; +}); + +// --- Temp table approach --- +console.log('\n=== Temp table exclude (2000 codes) ==='); + +// Need a writable connection for temp tables +const dbRW = new Database(DB_PATH); + +dbRW.exec('CREATE TEMP TABLE exclude_codes (rxcui TEXT PRIMARY KEY)'); + +bench('Temp table + NOT IN subquery', () => { + dbRW.exec('DELETE FROM exclude_codes'); + const ins = dbRW.prepare('INSERT INTO exclude_codes VALUES (?)'); + const tx = dbRW.transaction(() => { for (const c of all2000) ins.run(c); }); + tx(); + let c = 0; + for (const r of dbRW.prepare("SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (SELECT rxcui FROM exclude_codes) ORDER BY RXCUI").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('Temp table + LEFT JOIN IS NULL', () => { + dbRW.exec('DELETE FROM exclude_codes'); + const ins = dbRW.prepare('INSERT INTO exclude_codes VALUES (?)'); + const tx = dbRW.transaction(() => { for (const c of all2000) ins.run(c); }); + tx(); + let c = 0; + for (const r of dbRW.prepare("SELECT r.RXCUI, r.STR, r.SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso r LEFT JOIN exclude_codes x ON r.RXCUI=x.rxcui WHERE r.SAB='RXNORM' AND r.TTY='SBD' AND x.rxcui IS NULL ORDER BY r.RXCUI").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +bench('Temp table + NOT EXISTS', () => { + dbRW.exec('DELETE FROM exclude_codes'); + const ins = dbRW.prepare('INSERT INTO exclude_codes VALUES (?)'); + const tx = dbRW.transaction(() => { for (const c of all2000) ins.run(c); }); + tx(); + let c = 0; + for (const r of dbRW.prepare("SELECT r.RXCUI, r.STR, r.SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso r WHERE r.SAB='RXNORM' AND r.TTY='SBD' AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM exclude_codes x WHERE x.rxcui=r.RXCUI) ORDER BY r.RXCUI").iterate()) c++; + return c; +}); + +dbRW.close(); +db.close(); +console.log('\n=== Done ==='); diff --git a/scripts/sqlite-microbench.js b/scripts/sqlite-microbench.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..720cc57 --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/sqlite-microbench.js @@ -0,0 +1,464 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +'use strict'; + +/** + * SQLite microbenchmarks for RxNorm provider interface design. + * Run: node scripts/sqlite-microbench.js [path-to-rxnorm.db] + * + * Tests both async `sqlite3` and sync `better-sqlite3` to inform + * whether lazy cursors, LIMIT/OFFSET, UNION, etc. are worth using + * in the expandForValueSet provider interface. + */ + +const path = require('path'); + +// --- Configuration --- +const DB_PATH = process.argv[2] || path.join(__dirname, '..', 'data', 'terminology-cache', 'rxnorm_02032025-a.db'); +const WARMUP = 1; +const ITERATIONS = 5; + +// --- Helpers --- +function median(arr) { + const s = [...arr].sort((a, b) => a - b); + const mid = Math.floor(s.length / 2); + return s.length % 2 ? s[mid] : (s[mid - 1] + s[mid]) / 2; +} + +function stats(arr) { + const med = median(arr); + const min = Math.min(...arr); + const max = Math.max(...arr); + return { median: med.toFixed(2), min: min.toFixed(2), max: max.toFixed(2) }; +} + +async function bench(name, fn, iterations = ITERATIONS, warmup = WARMUP) { + // Warmup + for (let i = 0; i < warmup; i++) await fn(); + + const times = []; + let lastResult; + for (let i = 0; i < iterations; i++) { + const t0 = performance.now(); + lastResult = await fn(); + times.push(performance.now() - t0); + } + const s = stats(times); + const extra = lastResult && typeof lastResult === 'object' && lastResult._rows != null + ? ` (${lastResult._rows} rows)` : ''; + console.log(` ${name}: ${s.median}ms median [${s.min}–${s.max}]${extra}`); + return { name, ...s, ...lastResult }; +} + +// --- Load both sqlite packages --- +let sqlite3Async, BetterSqlite3; +try { sqlite3Async = require('sqlite3').verbose(); } catch (e) { + console.error('sqlite3 package not available'); process.exit(1); +} +try { BetterSqlite3 = require('better-sqlite3'); } catch (e) { + console.warn('better-sqlite3 not available — skipping sync benchmarks'); +} + +// Async sqlite3 helper: promisified db.all +function dbAll(db, sql, params = []) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + db.all(sql, params, (err, rows) => err ? reject(err) : resolve(rows)); + }); +} + +// Async sqlite3 helper: db.each with optional early abort +function dbEach(db, sql, params, rowCb) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + let count = 0; + db.each(sql, params, (err, row) => { + if (err) { reject(err); return; } + count++; + rowCb(row, count); + }, (err, totalRows) => { + if (err) reject(err); + else resolve({ count, totalRows }); + }); + }); +} + +// Open async db +function openAsync(dbPath) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const db = new sqlite3Async.Database(dbPath, sqlite3Async.OPEN_READONLY, (err) => { + if (err) reject(err); else resolve(db); + }); + }); +} + +function closeAsync(db) { + return new Promise((resolve) => db.close(resolve)); +} + +// Base query +const BASE_SQL = `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY<>'SY'`; +const SBD_SQL = `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD'`; + +// --- Benchmark functions --- + +async function runB1(db) { + console.log('\n=== B1: db.all() full materialization (SBD ~23k rows) ==='); + await bench('db.all(SBD)', async () => { + const rows = await dbAll(db, SBD_SQL); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); +} + +async function runB2(db) { + console.log('\n=== B2: db.all() with LIMIT/OFFSET ==='); + for (const offset of [0, 100, 1000, 10000]) { + await bench(`LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`, async () => { + const rows = await dbAll(db, SBD_SQL + ` ORDER BY RXCUI LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + } +} + +async function runB3(db) { + console.log('\n=== B3: db.each() row-at-a-time (SBD) ==='); + + await bench('db.each() all rows', async () => { + let count = 0; + await dbEach(db, SBD_SQL, [], () => { count++; }); + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + // db.each with processing only first N rows (can't truly abort in sqlite3) + for (const n of [100, 1100]) { + await bench(`db.each() process first ${n}`, async () => { + let processed = 0; + await dbEach(db, SBD_SQL, [], (row, count) => { + if (processed < n) { + // Simulate processing + const obj = { code: row.RXCUI, display: row.STR, suppress: row.SUPPRESS }; + processed++; + } + }); + return { _rows: processed }; + }); + } +} + +async function runB4(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B4: better-sqlite3 stmt.iterate() — lazy cursor ==='); + const stmt = bdb.prepare(SBD_SQL); + + await bench('iterate() all rows', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { count++; } + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + for (const n of [100, 1100, 5000]) { + await bench(`iterate() break after ${n}`, () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + count++; + if (count >= n) break; + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); + } +} + +async function runB5(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B5: better-sqlite3 all() vs iterate() — full results ==='); + const stmt = bdb.prepare(SBD_SQL); + + await bench('stmt.all()', () => { + const rows = stmt.all(); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + + await bench('stmt.iterate() → array', () => { + const rows = []; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { rows.push(row); } + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + + await bench('stmt.iterate() count only', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { count++; } + return { _rows: count }; + }); +} + +async function runB6(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B6: better-sqlite3 prepared statement reuse ==='); + const stmt = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY=?` + ); + + // First call includes any implicit caching/compilation + const ttys = ['SBD', 'SCD', 'IN', 'SBDC', 'SCDC']; + + await bench('prepare+iterate SBD (first)', () => { + const s = bdb.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY=?`); + let count = 0; + for (const row of s.iterate('SBD')) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('reuse stmt across 5 TTYs', () => { + let total = 0; + for (const tty of ttys) { + for (const row of stmt.iterate(tty)) total++; + } + return { _rows: total }; + }); + + // Compare: iterate same TTY 5 times (reuse amortization) + await bench('reuse stmt, SBD x5', () => { + let total = 0; + for (let i = 0; i < 5; i++) { + for (const row of stmt.iterate('SBD')) total++; + } + return { _rows: total }; + }); +} + +async function runB7(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B7: UNION vs separate queries vs IN() ==='); + + await bench('UNION ALL (SBD+SCD)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' + UNION ALL + SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SCD'` + ); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('Two separate queries', () => { + const s1 = bdb.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD'`); + const s2 = bdb.prepare(`SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SCD'`); + let count = 0; + for (const row of s1.iterate()) count++; + for (const row of s2.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('IN (SBD, SCD)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY IN ('SBD','SCD')` + ); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); +} + +async function runB8(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B8: NOT IN for excludes ==='); + + // Get 50 real RxCUIs to use as excludes + const sample = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' LIMIT 50` + ).all().map(r => r.RXCUI); + + const excludeList = sample.map(c => `'${c}'`).join(','); + const excludeSet = new Set(sample); + + await bench('SQL NOT IN (50 codes)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (${excludeList})` + ); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('JS filter (50 codes)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare(SBD_SQL); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + if (!excludeSet.has(row.RXCUI)) count++; + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + // Larger exclude: 500 codes + const sample500 = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' LIMIT 500` + ).all().map(r => r.RXCUI); + const excludeList500 = sample500.map(c => `'${c}'`).join(','); + const excludeSet500 = new Set(sample500); + + await bench('SQL NOT IN (500 codes)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare( + `SELECT RXCUI, STR, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD' AND RXCUI NOT IN (${excludeList500})` + ); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('JS filter (500 codes)', () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare(SBD_SQL); + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + if (!excludeSet500.has(row.RXCUI)) count++; + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); +} + +async function runB9(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B9: Row construction cost ==='); + const stmt = bdb.prepare(SBD_SQL); + + await bench('Count only (no construction)', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('Minimal object { code, display, suppress }', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + const obj = { code: row.RXCUI, display: row.STR, suppress: row.SUPPRESS === '1' }; + count++; + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('Rich object (FHIR-like entry)', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + const entry = { + system: 'http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm', + code: row.RXCUI, + display: row.STR, + inactive: row.SUPPRESS === '1', + designation: [{ language: 'en', value: row.STR }], + property: row.SUPPRESS !== '1' + ? [] + : [{ code: 'status', valueCode: 'inactive' }], + }; + count++; + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); + + await bench('Rich object + Map dedup check', () => { + let count = 0; + const map = new Map(); + for (const row of stmt.iterate()) { + const key = `http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm|${row.RXCUI}`; + if (!map.has(key)) { + const entry = { + system: 'http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm', + code: row.RXCUI, + display: row.STR, + inactive: row.SUPPRESS === '1', + designation: [{ language: 'en', value: row.STR }], + property: row.SUPPRESS !== '1' + ? [] + : [{ code: 'status', valueCode: 'inactive' }], + }; + map.set(key, entry); + count++; + } + } + return { _rows: count }; + }); +} + +async function runB10(bdb) { + console.log('\n=== B10: OFFSET scan cost (all TTYs ~250k rows) ==='); + + for (const offset of [0, 100, 1000, 10000, 50000, 100000]) { + await bench(`LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`, () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare(BASE_SQL + ` ORDER BY RXCUI LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`); + const rows = stmt.all(); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + } + + console.log('\n (compare: no ORDER BY)'); + for (const offset of [0, 10000, 50000, 100000]) { + await bench(`no ORDER LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`, () => { + const stmt = bdb.prepare(BASE_SQL + ` LIMIT 100 OFFSET ${offset}`); + const rows = stmt.all(); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + } +} + +// --- Bonus: async vs sync package comparison --- +async function runPackageComparison(asyncDb, syncDb) { + console.log('\n=== BONUS: async sqlite3 vs better-sqlite3 (SBD all rows) ==='); + + await bench('async sqlite3 db.all()', async () => { + const rows = await dbAll(asyncDb, SBD_SQL); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + + await bench('sync better-sqlite3 stmt.all()', () => { + const rows = syncDb.prepare(SBD_SQL).all(); + return { _rows: rows.length }; + }); + + await bench('sync better-sqlite3 stmt.iterate()', () => { + let count = 0; + for (const row of syncDb.prepare(SBD_SQL).iterate()) count++; + return { _rows: count }; + }); +} + +// --- Main --- +async function main() { + console.log(`SQLite Microbenchmarks — RxNorm`); + console.log(`DB: ${DB_PATH}`); + console.log(`Iterations: ${ITERATIONS} (warmup: ${WARMUP})`); + console.log(`Node: ${process.version}`); + + // Open async db + const asyncDb = await openAsync(DB_PATH); + + // Get row count for reference + const countRow = await dbAll(asyncDb, `SELECT COUNT(*) as cnt FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY='SBD'`); + console.log(`SBD rows: ${countRow[0].cnt}`); + const allCount = await dbAll(asyncDb, `SELECT COUNT(*) as cnt FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB='RXNORM' AND TTY<>'SY'`); + console.log(`All non-SY rows: ${allCount[0].cnt}`); + + // --- Async sqlite3 benchmarks --- + await runB1(asyncDb); + await runB2(asyncDb); + await runB3(asyncDb); + + // --- Better-sqlite3 benchmarks --- + let syncDb; + if (BetterSqlite3) { + syncDb = new BetterSqlite3(DB_PATH, { readonly: true }); + + await runB4(syncDb); + await runB5(syncDb); + await runB6(syncDb); + await runB7(syncDb); + await runB8(syncDb); + await runB9(syncDb); + await runB10(syncDb); + + // Package comparison + await runPackageComparison(asyncDb, syncDb); + + syncDb.close(); + } else { + console.log('\n[SKIPPED] better-sqlite3 benchmarks (package not installed)'); + } + + await closeAsync(asyncDb); + + console.log('\n=== Done ==='); +} + +main().catch(err => { + console.error(err); + process.exit(1); +}); diff --git a/scripts/test-expand-cross-system.js b/scripts/test-expand-cross-system.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..1056eaa --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/test-expand-cross-system.js @@ -0,0 +1,588 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +'use strict'; + +/** + * Comprehensive expandForValueSet tests: richer include/exclude combinations + * and cross-system (RxNorm + LOINC) ValueSets. + * + * Tests exercise: + * - Filter-based excludes that fully cover, partially cover, or don't overlap includes + * - Multi-include with multi-exclude using filters on both sides + * - Cross-system ValueSets (RxNorm + LOINC includes, excludes across systems) + * - Edge cases: exclude superset of include, empty result sets, disjoint exclude + * + * Usage: node scripts/test-expand-cross-system.js [--full] + */ + +const http = require('http'); +const fs = require('fs'); +const { spawn } = require('child_process'); +const path = require('path'); + +const PORT = 3000; +const BASE_URL = `http://localhost:${PORT}/r4`; +const SERVER_START_TIMEOUT = 300000; +const LIBRARY_CONFIG = 'tx/tx.rxnorm-loinc.yml'; + +const RXSYS = 'http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm'; +const LNSYS = 'http://loinc.org'; + +// --- Test helpers --- +function makeVS(compose) { + return { + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'valueSet', resource: { resourceType: 'ValueSet', compose } }, + ...(compose._params || []), + ], + }; +} + +// ============================================================ +// RxNorm-only: richer include/exclude patterns +// Includes STY-based excludes which stress-test query planning — +// if these hang, that's a real issue (blocks the event loop). +// ============================================================ +const RXNORM_TESTS = [ + { + name: 'rx-exclude-same-tty', + desc: 'Include TTY=SBD, exclude TTY=SBD (full cover → 0 results)', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-exclude-disjoint-tty', + desc: 'Include TTY=SBD, exclude TTY=IN (disjoint → no effect)', + drainCount: 25000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'IN' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-exclude-partial-tty', + desc: 'Include TTY in SBD,SCD, exclude TTY=SBD (partial → only SCD left)', + drainCount: 25000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: 'in', value: 'SBD,SCD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-sty-exclude-overlapping', + desc: 'Include TTY=SBD, exclude STY=T200 (cross-property partial overlap)', + drainCount: 25000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'STY', op: '=', value: 'T200' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-concepts-exclude-tty-filter', + desc: '10 concepts include, exclude TTY=SBD (removes SBD members)', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, concept: [ + { code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }, + { code: '197384' }, { code: '197385' }, { code: '313782' }, + { code: '312961' }, { code: '312962' }, { code: '310798' }, + { code: '308056' }, + ]}], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-filter-exclude-20-concepts', + desc: 'Include TTY=SCD, exclude 20 specific codes', + drainCount: 20000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SCD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, concept: [ + { code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }, + { code: '197384' }, { code: '197385' }, { code: '197386' }, + { code: '197387' }, { code: '197388' }, { code: '197389' }, + { code: '197390' }, { code: '197391' }, { code: '197392' }, + { code: '197393' }, { code: '197394' }, { code: '197395' }, + { code: '197396' }, { code: '197397' }, { code: '197398' }, + { code: '197399' }, { code: '197400' }, + ]}], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-multi-include-sty+concepts-exclude', + desc: 'SBD+SCD includes, exclude STY=T200 + 5 concepts', + drainCount: 40000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SCD' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'STY', op: '=', value: 'T200' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, concept: [ + { code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }, + { code: '197384' }, { code: '197385' }, + ]}, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-3-tty-include-2-tty-exclude', + desc: 'Include TTY in SBD,SCD,GPCK, exclude TTY in SBD,GPCK', + drainCount: 25000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: 'in', value: 'SBD,SCD,GPCK' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: 'in', value: 'SBD,GPCK' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, +]; + +// ============================================================ +// LOINC-only: richer include/exclude patterns +// ============================================================ +const LOINC_TESTS = [ + { + name: 'ln-exclude-filter-partial', + desc: 'Include CLASS=LP7786-9, exclude COMPONENT=LP14635-4 (partial)', + drainCount: 5000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14635-4' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'ln-exclude-same-filter', + desc: 'Include CLASS=LP7786-9, exclude CLASS=LP7786-9 (full cover → 0)', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'ln-exclude-disjoint', + desc: 'Include CLASS=LP7786-9, exclude CLASS=LP7819-8 (disjoint)', + drainCount: 5000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7819-8' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'ln-concepts-exclude-filter', + desc: '5 LOINC codes include, exclude CLASS=LP7786-9 (removes CHEM)', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: LNSYS, concept: [ + { code: '2339-0' }, { code: '2345-7' }, { code: '718-7' }, + { code: '4548-4' }, { code: '14749-6' }, + ]}], + exclude: [{ system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'ln-multi-include-multi-exclude', + desc: 'CHEM + HEM/BC, exclude COMPONENT=Glucose + 3 concepts', + drainCount: 8000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7803-2' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14635-4' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, concept: [{ code: '2339-0' }, { code: '2345-7' }, { code: '718-7' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, +]; + +// ============================================================ +// Cross-system: RxNorm + LOINC in same ValueSet +// ============================================================ +const CROSS_SYSTEM_TESTS = [ + { + name: 'cross-rx-ln-include', + desc: 'Include RxNorm TTY=SBD + LOINC CLASS=CHEM, count=10', + drainCount: 30000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-rx-include-ln-exclude', + desc: 'Include RxNorm TTY=SBD + LOINC CHEM, exclude LOINC COMPONENT=Glucose', + drainCount: 30000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14635-4' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-ln-include-rx-exclude', + desc: 'Include LOINC CHEM + RxNorm SBD, exclude RxNorm STY=T200', + drainCount: 30000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'STY', op: '=', value: 'T200' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-concepts-both-systems', + desc: 'Include 3 RxNorm concepts + 3 LOINC concepts', + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, concept: [{ code: '2339-0' }, { code: '2345-7' }, { code: '718-7' }] }, + ], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-concepts-exclude-concepts', + desc: '3 RxNorm + 3 LOINC concepts, exclude 1 from each system', + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, concept: [{ code: '2339-0' }, { code: '2345-7' }, { code: '718-7' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, concept: [{ code: '718-7' }] }, + ], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-filter-exclude-cross', + desc: 'Include RxNorm SBD + LOINC CHEM, exclude both RxNorm T200 + LOINC Glucose', + drainCount: 30000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'STY', op: '=', value: 'T200' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14635-4' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'cross-mixed-concepts-filters', + desc: 'RxNorm concepts + LOINC filter, exclude LOINC concepts + RxNorm filter', + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '313782' }] }, + { system: LNSYS, filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7803-2' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: LNSYS, concept: [{ code: '718-7' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + // Unsupported filter property → forces fallback to baseline path (~1.0x) + { + name: 'rx-unsupported-filter-fallback', + desc: 'Include with unsupported filter property → baseline fallback', + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'BOGUS_PROPERTY', op: '=', value: 'XYZ' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'rx-unsupported-exclude-filter-fallback', + desc: 'Supported include + unsupported exclude filter → exclude falls back', + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'BOGUS_PROPERTY', op: '=', value: 'XYZ' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, +]; + +// ============================================================ +// HTTP helpers +// ============================================================ +function postJson(url, body, timeoutMs = 5000) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const data = JSON.stringify(body); + const u = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname, + method: 'POST', + headers: { 'Content-Type': 'application/fhir+json', 'Content-Length': Buffer.byteLength(data) }, + timeout: timeoutMs, + }, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }); + req.on('timeout', () => { req.destroy(); reject(new Error('Request timed out')); }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.write(data); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpPost(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const u = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname + (u.search || ''), + method: 'POST', headers: { 'Content-Length': 0 }, + }, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpGet(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + http.get(url, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }).on('error', reject); + }); +} + +async function waitForServer(url, timeout) { + const start = Date.now(); + while (Date.now() - start < timeout) { + try { + const res = await httpGet(url); + if (res.status === 200) return true; + } catch (_) { /* not ready */ } + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 2000)); + } + throw new Error('Server did not start within timeout'); +} + +function extractCodes(responseBody) { + try { + const json = JSON.parse(responseBody); + if (!json.expansion || !json.expansion.contains) return []; + return json.expansion.contains.map(c => ({ + code: c.code, display: c.display, system: c.system, inactive: c.inactive || false, + })); + } catch (_) { return null; } +} + +function codesEqual(a, b) { + if (a === null || b === null) return { match: false, reason: 'null' }; + if (a.length !== b.length) return { match: false, reason: `count ${a.length} vs ${b.length}` }; + let exact = true; + for (let i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { + if (a[i].code !== b[i].code || a[i].system !== b[i].system) { exact = false; break; } + } + if (exact) return { match: true, reason: 'exact' }; + const key = c => `${c.system}|${c.code}`; + const setA = new Set(a.map(key)); + const setB = new Set(b.map(key)); + const sameSet = setA.size === setB.size && [...setA].every(c => setB.has(c)); + if (sameSet) return { match: true, reason: 'order differs' }; + return { match: false, reason: 'different codes' }; +} + +// ============================================================ +// Main runner +// ============================================================ +function log(msg) { console.log(`[${new Date().toISOString().slice(11,19)}] ${msg}`); } + +async function main() { + const full = process.argv.includes('--full'); + const rxOnly = process.argv.includes('--rx'); + const lnOnly = process.argv.includes('--ln'); + const crossOnly = process.argv.includes('--cross'); + + let testList; + if (rxOnly) testList = RXNORM_TESTS; + else if (lnOnly) testList = LOINC_TESTS; + else if (crossOnly) testList = CROSS_SYSTEM_TESTS; + else testList = [...RXNORM_TESTS, ...LOINC_TESTS, ...CROSS_SYSTEM_TESTS]; + + const serverDir = path.resolve(__dirname, '..'); + + log(`Running ${testList.length} tests`); + log(`Using library: ${LIBRARY_CONFIG}`); + + let server; + try { + log(`Starting server on port ${PORT}...`); + server = spawn('node', ['server.js'], { + cwd: serverDir, + stdio: ['ignore', 'pipe', 'pipe'], + env: { ...process.env, NODE_ENV: 'test', TX_LIBRARY_SOURCE: LIBRARY_CONFIG }, + }); + server.stdout.on('data', () => {}); + server.stderr.on('data', () => {}); + + await waitForServer(`http://localhost:${PORT}/r4/metadata`, SERVER_START_TIMEOUT); + log('Server ready.\n'); + + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters/enable`); + + const results = []; + + for (let ti = 0; ti < testList.length; ti++) { + const test = testList[ti]; + const body = JSON.parse(JSON.stringify(test.body)); + if (body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params) { + body.parameter.push(...body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params); + delete body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params; + } + + log(`[${ti+1}/${testList.length}] ${test.name}: ${test.desc}`); + + // OPTIMIZED + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=false`); + const t0 = performance.now(); + let optRes; + try { optRes = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', body); } + catch (e) { optRes = { status: 'ERROR', body: e.message }; } + const optMs = performance.now() - t0; + const optCodes = typeof optRes.body === 'string' ? extractCodes(optRes.body) : null; + + // BASELINE (skip if test.skipBaseline — query blocks the event loop) + let baseRes, baseTimeout = false, baseMs = 0, baseCodes = null, baseSkipped = false; + if (test.skipBaseline) { + baseSkipped = true; + baseRes = { status: 'SKIP', body: '' }; + } else { + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=true`); + const t1 = performance.now(); + try { baseRes = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', body); } + catch (e) { + baseTimeout = e.message === 'Request timed out'; + baseRes = { status: 'TIMEOUT', body: '' }; + } + baseMs = performance.now() - t1; + baseCodes = typeof baseRes.body === 'string' ? extractCodes(baseRes.body) : null; + } + + const cmp = baseSkipped ? { match: null, reason: 'baseline skipped (blocks event loop)' } + : baseTimeout ? { match: null, reason: 'baseline timeout' } + : codesEqual(optCodes, baseCodes); + const speedup = (baseSkipped || baseTimeout) ? Infinity : baseMs / optMs; + + const matchIcon = cmp.match === true ? '✅' : cmp.match === false ? '❌' : '⏱️'; + const baseLabel = baseSkipped ? 'SKIP' : baseTimeout ? 'TIMEOUT' : `${baseMs.toFixed(0)}ms`; + log(` Opt: ${optMs.toFixed(0)}ms (${optRes.status}) Base: ${baseLabel} (${baseRes.status}) ${speedup === Infinity ? '∞' : speedup.toFixed(1) + 'x'} ${matchIcon} ${cmp.reason} opt:${optCodes?.length ?? '?'} base:${baseCodes?.length ?? '?'}`); + + // Drain for set comparison if needed + let drainResult = null; + if (test.drainCount && !baseTimeout && !baseSkipped && (!cmp.match || cmp.reason === 'order differs')) { + log(` Draining ${test.drainCount} codes...`); + const drainBody = JSON.parse(JSON.stringify(body)); + drainBody.parameter = drainBody.parameter.filter(p => p.name !== 'count' && p.name !== 'offset'); + drainBody.parameter.push({ name: 'count', valueInteger: test.drainCount }); + + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=false`); + const dOpt = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', drainBody, 30000); + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=true`); + const dBase = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', drainBody, 30000); + + if (dOpt.status !== 200 || dBase.status !== 200) { + drainResult = `HTTP error (opt:${dOpt.status} base:${dBase.status})`; + } else { + const key = c => `${c.system}|${c.code}`; + const optAll = (extractCodes(dOpt.body) || []).map(key); + const baseAll = (extractCodes(dBase.body) || []).map(key); + const optSet = new Set(optAll); + const baseSet = new Set(baseAll); + const onlyOpt = [...optSet].filter(c => !baseSet.has(c)); + const onlyBase = [...baseSet].filter(c => !optSet.has(c)); + drainResult = (onlyOpt.length === 0 && onlyBase.length === 0) + ? `sets equal (${optSet.size} codes)` + : `sets differ (opt-only: ${onlyOpt.length}, base-only: ${onlyBase.length})`; + if (onlyOpt.length > 0) log(` opt-only: ${onlyOpt.slice(0,3).join(', ')}`); + if (onlyBase.length > 0) log(` base-only: ${onlyBase.slice(0,3).join(', ')}`); + } + log(` Drain: ${drainResult}`); + } + log(''); + + results.push({ + name: test.name, optMs: optMs.toFixed(1), + baseMs: baseSkipped ? 'SKIP' : baseTimeout ? 'TIMEOUT' : baseMs.toFixed(1), + speedup: speedup === Infinity ? '∞' : speedup.toFixed(1), + match: cmp.match, reason: cmp.reason, drainResult, baseTimeout, baseSkipped, + optCount: optCodes?.length ?? '?', baseCount: baseCodes?.length ?? '?', + }); + } + + // Summary table + const lines = []; + lines.push('=== Cross-system expandForValueSet test results ==='); + lines.push(`Date: ${new Date().toISOString()}`); + lines.push(`Tests: ${testList.length}`); + lines.push(''); + lines.push('Test | Opt (ms) | Base (ms) | Speedup | Codes | Result'); + lines.push('-----------------------------------|----------|-----------|---------|-------|-------'); + for (const r of results) { + const drainOk = r.drainResult && r.drainResult.startsWith('sets equal'); + const pass = r.match === true || drainOk; + const icon = r.baseSkipped ? '⚠️' : r.baseTimeout ? '⏱️' : (pass ? '✅' : '❌'); + const detail = r.baseSkipped ? `baseline skipped — blocks event loop (opt: ${r.optCount} codes)` + : r.baseTimeout ? `baseline timeout (opt OK: ${r.optCount} codes)` + : (drainOk ? `page order differs, ${r.drainResult}` : r.reason); + const speedCol = r.speedup === '∞' ? ' ∞ ' : `${r.speedup.padStart(6)}x`; + lines.push(`${r.name.padEnd(35)}| ${r.optMs.padStart(8)} | ${r.baseMs.padStart(9)} | ${speedCol} | ${String(r.optCount).padStart(5)} | ${icon} ${detail}`); + } + + console.log('\n' + lines.join('\n')); + + const outPath = path.join(serverDir, 'test-cross-system-results.txt'); + fs.writeFileSync(outPath, lines.join('\n') + '\n'); + log(`Results written to ${outPath}`); + + } finally { + if (server) { + server.kill('SIGTERM'); + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 1000)); + } + } +} + +main().catch(err => { + console.error(err); + process.exit(1); +}); diff --git a/scripts/test-expand-for-valueset.js b/scripts/test-expand-for-valueset.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c61eeea --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/test-expand-for-valueset.js @@ -0,0 +1,467 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +'use strict'; + +/** + * Test expandForValueSet correctness and performance. + * + * Starts the server with lite config, runs RxNorm expansion requests with + * and without the expandForValueSet bypass flag, compares results. + * + * Usage: node scripts/test-expand-for-valueset.js + */ + +const http = require('http'); +const fs = require('fs'); +const { spawn } = require('child_process'); +const path = require('path'); + +const PORT = 3000; +const BASE_URL = `http://localhost:${PORT}/r4`; +const SERVER_START_TIMEOUT = 300000; +const LITE_CONFIG = 'tx/tx.rxnorm-only.yml'; + +// --- Test cases --- +function makeVS(compose) { + return { + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'valueSet', resource: { resourceType: 'ValueSet', compose } }, + ...(compose._params || []), + ], + }; +} + +const RXSYS = 'http://www.nlm.nih.gov/research/umls/rxnorm'; + +const TESTS = [ + { + name: 'filter-tty-sbd-10', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'concept-5', + desc: '5 explicit codes', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, + concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }, { code: '197384' }, { code: '197385' }] + }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'exclude-concepts-3', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, 3 concept excludes, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'multi-include-2', + desc: 'TTY=SBD + TTY=SCD, count=10', + drainCount: 40000, // must exceed total SBD+SCD (~37k) for valid set comparison + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SCD' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'activeonly-sbd', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, activeOnly, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }, { name: 'activeOnly', valueBoolean: true }], + }), + }, +]; + +// --- EXTENDED tests (add with --full flag) --- +const EXTENDED_TESTS = [ + { + name: 'filter-tty-in-multi', + desc: 'TTY in SBD,SCD, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: 'in', value: 'SBD,SCD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'filter-sty-t200', + desc: 'STY=T200, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'STY', op: '=', value: 'T200' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'paged-offset-100', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, offset=100, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }, { name: 'offset', valueInteger: 100 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'text-aspirin', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, filter=aspirin, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }, { name: 'filter', valueString: 'aspirin' }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'exclude-filter', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, exclude TTY=SBDC, count=10', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + exclude: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBDC' }] }], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'multi-include-concept+filter', + desc: 'Concepts + TTY=SBD filter, count=10', + drainCount: 25000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, + { + name: 'combo-active-text-paged', + desc: 'TTY=SBD, activeOnly, filter=tablet, offset=10, count=5', + body: makeVS({ + include: [{ system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }], + _params: [ + { name: 'count', valueInteger: 5 }, { name: 'offset', valueInteger: 10 }, + { name: 'activeOnly', valueBoolean: true }, { name: 'filter', valueString: 'tablet' }, + ], + }), + }, + { + name: 'multi-include-multi-exclude', + desc: 'SBD+SCD, exclude 3 concepts + SBDC, count=10', + drainCount: 40000, + body: makeVS({ + include: [ + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBD' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SCD' }] }, + ], + exclude: [ + { system: RXSYS, concept: [{ code: '197381' }, { code: '197382' }, { code: '197383' }] }, + { system: RXSYS, filter: [{ property: 'TTY', op: '=', value: 'SBDC' }] }, + ], + _params: [{ name: 'count', valueInteger: 10 }], + }), + }, +]; + +// --- HTTP helpers --- +function postJson(url, body, timeoutMs = 5000) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const data = JSON.stringify(body); + const u = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname, + method: 'POST', + headers: { 'Content-Type': 'application/fhir+json', 'Content-Length': Buffer.byteLength(data) }, + timeout: timeoutMs, + }, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }); + req.on('timeout', () => { req.destroy(); reject(new Error('Request timed out')); }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.write(data); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpPost(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const u = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: u.hostname, port: u.port, path: u.pathname + (u.search || ''), + method: 'POST', headers: { 'Content-Length': 0 }, + }, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpGet(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + http.get(url, (res) => { + let buf = ''; + res.on('data', c => buf += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve({ status: res.statusCode, body: buf })); + }).on('error', reject); + }); +} + +async function waitForServer(url, timeout) { + const start = Date.now(); + while (Date.now() - start < timeout) { + try { + const res = await httpGet(url); + if (res.status === 200) return true; + } catch (e) { /* not ready */ } + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 2000)); + } + throw new Error('Server did not start within timeout'); +} + +function extractCodes(responseBody) { + try { + const json = JSON.parse(responseBody); + if (!json.expansion || !json.expansion.contains) return []; + return json.expansion.contains.map(c => ({ + code: c.code, + display: c.display, + system: c.system, + inactive: c.inactive || false, + })); + } catch (e) { + return null; + } +} + +function codesEqual(a, b) { + if (a === null || b === null) return { match: false, reason: 'null' }; + if (a.length !== b.length) return { match: false, reason: `count ${a.length} vs ${b.length}` }; + // Check exact positional match + let exact = true; + for (let i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { + if (a[i].code !== b[i].code) { exact = false; break; } + } + if (exact) return { match: true, reason: 'exact' }; + // Check set match (same codes, different order) + const setA = new Set(a.map(c => c.code)); + const setB = new Set(b.map(c => c.code)); + const sameSet = setA.size === setB.size && [...setA].every(c => setB.has(c)); + if (sameSet) return { match: true, reason: 'order differs' }; + return { match: false, reason: 'different codes' }; +} + +// --- Main --- +function log(msg) { + console.log(`[${new Date().toISOString().slice(11,19)}] ${msg}`); +} + +async function main() { + const full = process.argv.includes('--full'); + const testList = full ? [...TESTS, ...EXTENDED_TESTS] : TESTS; + const serverDir = path.resolve(__dirname, '..'); + + log(`Running ${testList.length} tests (${full ? 'full' : 'core'} mode, pass --full for all)`); + log(`Using library: ${LITE_CONFIG}`); + + let server; + try { + log(`Starting server on port ${PORT}...`); + server = spawn('node', ['server.js'], { + cwd: serverDir, + stdio: ['ignore', 'pipe', 'pipe'], + env: { ...process.env, NODE_ENV: 'test', TX_LIBRARY_SOURCE: LITE_CONFIG }, + }); + + let serverOutput = ''; + server.stdout.on('data', d => { serverOutput += d.toString(); }); + server.stderr.on('data', d => { serverOutput += d.toString(); }); + + await waitForServer(`http://localhost:${PORT}/r4/metadata`, SERVER_START_TIMEOUT); + log('Server ready.\n'); + + // Enable perf counters + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters/enable`); + + const results = []; + const ITERS = 2; + + for (let ti = 0; ti < testList.length; ti++) { + const test = testList[ti]; + // Fix up the body: move _params to top level + const body = JSON.parse(JSON.stringify(test.body)); + if (body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params) { + body.parameter.push(...body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params); + delete body.parameter[0].resource.compose._params; + } + + log(`[${ti+1}/${testList.length}] ${test.name}: ${test.desc}`); + + // Run OPTIMIZED (expandForValueSet enabled) + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=false`); + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters/reset`); + + const timesOpt = []; + let optCodes, optStatus; + for (let i = 0; i < ITERS; i++) { + log(` opt iter ${i+1}/${ITERS}...`); + const t0 = performance.now(); + const res = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', body); + const elapsed = performance.now() - t0; + timesOpt.push(elapsed); + log(` opt iter ${i+1}: ${elapsed.toFixed(0)}ms, HTTP ${res.status}`); + if (i === 0) { optCodes = extractCodes(res.body); optStatus = res.status; } + } + const cOpt = JSON.parse((await httpGet(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters`)).body); + + // Run BASELINE (expandForValueSet bypassed) + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=true`); + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters/reset`); + + const timesBase = []; + let baseCodes, baseStatus; + let baseTimeout = false; + for (let i = 0; i < ITERS; i++) { + if (baseTimeout) break; // don't repeat after timeout + log(` base iter ${i+1}/${ITERS}...`); + const t0 = performance.now(); + try { + const res = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', body); + const elapsed = performance.now() - t0; + timesBase.push(elapsed); + log(` base iter ${i+1}: ${elapsed.toFixed(0)}ms, HTTP ${res.status}`); + if (i === 0) { baseCodes = extractCodes(res.body); baseStatus = res.status; } + } catch (e) { + const elapsed = performance.now() - t0; + if (e.message === 'Request timed out') { + timesBase.push(elapsed); + log(` base iter ${i+1}: TIMEOUT after ${elapsed.toFixed(0)}ms`); + baseTimeout = true; + if (i === 0) { baseCodes = null; baseStatus = 'TIMEOUT'; } + } else { + throw e; + } + } + } + const cBase = JSON.parse((await httpGet(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/perf-counters`)).body); + + // Compare + timesOpt.sort((a, b) => a - b); + timesBase.sort((a, b) => a - b); + const medOpt = timesOpt[Math.floor(timesOpt.length / 2)]; + const medBase = timesBase[Math.floor(timesBase.length / 2)]; + const cmp = baseTimeout + ? { match: null, reason: 'baseline timeout' } + : codesEqual(optCodes, baseCodes); + const speedup = medBase / medOpt; + + const statusNote = (optStatus !== 200 || (baseStatus !== 200 && baseStatus !== 'TIMEOUT')) + ? ` [HTTP opt:${optStatus} base:${baseStatus}]` : ''; + + const matchIcon = cmp.match === true ? '✅' : cmp.match === false ? '❌' : '⏱️'; + const baseLabel = baseTimeout ? 'TIMEOUT' : `${medBase.toFixed(1)}ms`; + log(` Optimized: ${medOpt.toFixed(1)}ms | Baseline: ${baseLabel} | Speedup: ${baseTimeout ? '∞' : speedup.toFixed(1) + 'x'}${statusNote}`); + log(` Codes: ${matchIcon} ${cmp.reason} (opt: ${optCodes?.length ?? '?'}, base: ${baseCodes?.length ?? '?'})`); + + if (!cmp.match && optCodes && baseCodes) { + const maxShow = Math.min(5, Math.max(optCodes.length, baseCodes.length)); + for (let i = 0; i < maxShow; i++) { + const o = optCodes[i]; const b = baseCodes[i]; + if (!o || !b || o.code !== b.code || o.display !== b.display) { + log(` [${i}] opt: ${o?.code}/${o?.display?.substring(0,40)} | base: ${b?.code}/${b?.display?.substring(0,40)}`); + } + } + } + + const handled = cOpt.counters?.['expandForValueSet.handled'] || 0; + const fallback = cOpt.counters?.['expandForValueSet.fallback'] || 0; + log(` Counters: handled=${handled}, fallback=${fallback}`); + + // Full-drain set comparison: fetch ALL codes from both paths, compare as sets + let drainResult = null; + if (test.drainCount && !baseTimeout && (!cmp.match || cmp.reason === 'order differs')) { + log(` Draining up to ${test.drainCount} codes for full set comparison...`); + const drainBody = JSON.parse(JSON.stringify(body)); + // Replace count/offset/limit params for full drain + drainBody.parameter = drainBody.parameter.filter(p => + p.name !== 'count' && p.name !== 'offset' && p.name !== 'limit'); + drainBody.parameter.push({ name: 'count', valueInteger: test.drainCount }); + drainBody.parameter.push({ name: 'limit', valueInteger: test.drainCount }); + + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=false`); + const drainOpt = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', drainBody, 120000); + await httpPost(`http://localhost:${PORT}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=true`); + const drainBase = await postJson(BASE_URL + '/ValueSet/$expand', drainBody, 120000); + + if (drainOpt.status !== 200 || drainBase.status !== 200) { + drainResult = `HTTP error (opt:${drainOpt.status} base:${drainBase.status})`; + log(` Drain failed: ${drainResult}`); + } else { + const optCodes2 = extractCodes(drainOpt.body) || []; + const baseCodes2 = extractCodes(drainBase.body) || []; + const optSet = new Set(optCodes2.map(c => c.code)); + const baseSet = new Set(baseCodes2.map(c => c.code)); + const onlyOpt = [...optSet].filter(c => !baseSet.has(c)); + const onlyBase = [...baseSet].filter(c => !optSet.has(c)); + const setsEqual = onlyOpt.length === 0 && onlyBase.length === 0; + drainResult = setsEqual + ? `sets equal (${optSet.size} codes)` + : `sets differ (opt-only: ${onlyOpt.length}, base-only: ${onlyBase.length})`; + log(` Drain: opt=${optSet.size} base=${baseSet.size} → ${drainResult}`); + if (!setsEqual && onlyOpt.length > 0) log(` opt-only sample: ${onlyOpt.slice(0,5).join(', ')}`); + if (!setsEqual && onlyBase.length > 0) log(` base-only sample: ${onlyBase.slice(0,5).join(', ')}`); + } + } + log(''); + + results.push({ name: test.name, medOpt: medOpt.toFixed(1), + medBase: baseTimeout ? 'TIMEOUT' : medBase.toFixed(1), + speedup: baseTimeout ? '∞' : speedup.toFixed(1), + match: cmp.match, reason: cmp.reason, + drainResult, baseTimeout, + optCount: optCodes?.length ?? '?', baseCount: baseCodes?.length ?? '?' }); + } + + // Summary + const lines = []; + lines.push('=== expandForValueSet test results ==='); + lines.push(`Date: ${new Date().toISOString()}`); + lines.push(`Tests: ${testList.length} (${full ? 'full' : 'core'})`); + lines.push(''); + lines.push('Test | New (ms) | Old (ms) | Speedup | Codes | Result'); + lines.push('------------------------------|----------|----------|---------|-------|-------'); + for (const r of results) { + const drainOk = r.drainResult && r.drainResult.startsWith('sets equal'); + const pass = r.match === true || drainOk; + const icon = r.baseTimeout ? '⏱️' : (pass ? '✅' : '❌'); + const detail = r.baseTimeout ? `baseline timeout (opt OK: ${r.optCount} codes)` + : (drainOk ? `page order differs, ${r.drainResult}` : r.reason); + const speedCol = typeof r.speedup === 'string' && r.speedup === '∞' ? ' ∞ ' : `${r.speedup.padStart(5)}x `; + lines.push(`${r.name.padEnd(30)}| ${r.medOpt.padStart(8)} | ${r.medBase.padStart(8)} | ${speedCol} | ${String(r.optCount).padStart(5)} | ${icon} ${detail}`); + } + + console.log('\n' + lines.join('\n')); + + const outPath = path.join(serverDir, 'test-expand-results.txt'); + fs.writeFileSync(outPath, lines.join('\n') + '\n'); + log(`Results written to ${outPath}`); + + } finally { + if (server) { + server.kill('SIGTERM'); + await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 1000)); + } + } +} + +main().catch(err => { + console.error(err); + process.exit(1); +}); diff --git a/scripts/test-loinc-expand.js b/scripts/test-loinc-expand.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..af5c395 --- /dev/null +++ b/scripts/test-loinc-expand.js @@ -0,0 +1,508 @@ +#!/usr/bin/env node +/** + * Benchmark test suite for LOINC expandForValueSet + * Mirrors the RxNorm test harness (scripts/test-expand-for-valueset.js) + * Tests various LOINC filter/concept patterns against baseline + */ + +const http = require('http'); + +const PORT = 3000; +const BASE = `http://localhost:${PORT}`; +const SYSTEM = 'http://loinc.org'; + +// Test cases exercising different LOINC query patterns +const TEST_CASES = [ + // --- Filter: relationship property (COMPONENT = part code) --- + { + name: 'filter-component-bacteria', + description: 'COMPONENT = LP14082-9 (Bacteria, 27 codes)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14082-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- Filter: relationship property (CLASS = class part) --- + { + name: 'filter-class-chem', + description: 'CLASS = LP7786-9 (CHEM, 10707 codes)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- Filter: SCALE_TYP (large: 42k codes) --- + { + name: 'filter-scale-qn', + description: 'SCALE_TYP = LP7753-9 (Qn, 42085 codes)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'SCALE_TYP', op: '=', value: 'LP7753-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- Filter: SYSTEM (medium: 13k codes) --- + { + name: 'filter-system-ser', + description: 'SYSTEM = LP7567-3 (Ser, 13584 codes)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'SYSTEM', op: '=', value: 'LP7567-3' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- Concept list (explicit codes) --- + { + name: 'concept-5', + description: '5 explicit LOINC codes', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + concept: [ + { code: '2160-0' }, // Creatinine + { code: '2345-7' }, // Glucose + { code: '718-7' }, // Hemoglobin + { code: '4548-4' }, // HbA1c + { code: '2951-2' } // Sodium + ] + }] + }, + params: {} + }, + + // --- Exclude: component filter minus specific codes --- + { + name: 'exclude-concepts', + description: 'COMPONENT=LP14082-9 minus 2 specific codes', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14082-9' }] + }], + exclude: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + concept: [ + { code: '100906-7' }, + { code: '11101-3' } + ] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- ActiveOnly: CLASS=CHEM with activeOnly --- + { + name: 'activeonly-class', + description: 'CLASS=LP7786-9 activeOnly=true', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10, activeOnly: true } + }, + + // --- LIST filter (answer list) --- + { + name: 'filter-list-ll150', + description: 'LIST = LL150-4 (255 answers)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'LIST', op: '=', value: 'LL150-4' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 }, + drainCount: 300 + }, + + // --- Property filter (CLASSTYPE = 1 = Laboratory) --- + { + name: 'filter-classtype-lab', + description: 'CLASSTYPE = 1 (Laboratory, ~60k codes)', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'CLASSTYPE', op: '=', value: '1' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- Paged: offset into CLASS filter --- + { + name: 'paged-class-offset-100', + description: 'CLASS=LP7786-9 offset=100 count=10', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'CLASS', op: '=', value: 'LP7786-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10, offset: 100 } + }, + + // --- Multi-filter: COMPONENT + SCALE_TYP --- + { + name: 'multi-filter-component-scale', + description: 'COMPONENT=LP14082-9 AND SCALE_TYP=Qn', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [ + { property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14082-9' }, + { property: 'SCALE_TYP', op: '=', value: 'LP7753-9' } + ] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 } + }, + + // --- STATUS filter --- + { + name: 'filter-status-active', + description: 'STATUS = ACTIVE', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'STATUS', op: '=', value: 'ACTIVE' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10 }, + drainCount: 200000 + }, + + // --- Text search + filter --- + { + name: 'text-glucose', + description: 'Text search "glucose" with count=10', + compose: { + include: [{ + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'SCALE_TYP', op: '=', value: 'LP7753-9' }] + }] + }, + params: { count: 10, filter: 'glucose' } + }, + + // --- Multi-include: two component filters --- + { + name: 'multi-include-2-components', + description: 'COMPONENT=LP14082-9 OR COMPONENT=LP33405-9', + compose: { + include: [ + { + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP14082-9' }] + }, + { + system: SYSTEM, + filter: [{ property: 'COMPONENT', op: '=', value: 'LP33405-9' }] + } + ] + }, + params: { count: 10 }, + drainCount: 1000 + }, +]; + +// --- HTTP helpers --- +function httpPost(url, body, timeout = 30000) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const data = JSON.stringify(body); + const parsed = new URL(url); + const req = http.request({ + hostname: parsed.hostname, + port: parsed.port, + path: parsed.pathname + parsed.search, + method: 'POST', + headers: { 'Content-Type': 'application/json', 'Content-Length': Buffer.byteLength(data) }, + timeout + }, res => { + let chunks = []; + res.on('data', c => chunks.push(c)); + res.on('end', () => { + try { resolve(JSON.parse(Buffer.concat(chunks).toString())); } + catch (e) { reject(new Error('Bad JSON: ' + Buffer.concat(chunks).toString().substring(0, 200))); } + }); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.on('timeout', () => { req.destroy(); reject(new Error('timeout')); }); + req.write(data); + req.end(); + }); +} + +function httpGet(url) { + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + http.get(url, res => { + let d = ''; + res.on('data', c => d += c); + res.on('end', () => { try { resolve(JSON.parse(d)); } catch { resolve(d); } }); + }).on('error', reject); + }); +} + +async function waitForServer(maxWait = 60000) { + const start = Date.now(); + while (Date.now() - start < maxWait) { + try { + await httpGet(`${BASE}/r4/metadata`); + return true; + } catch { await new Promise(r => setTimeout(r, 500)); } + } + throw new Error('Server did not start'); +} + +function buildExpandRequest(tc, bypass = false) { + const vs = { + resourceType: 'ValueSet', + compose: tc.compose + }; + + const params = { + resourceType: 'Parameters', + parameter: [ + { name: 'valueSet', resource: vs } + ] + }; + + if (tc.params.count) params.parameter.push({ name: 'count', valueInteger: tc.params.count }); + if (tc.params.offset) params.parameter.push({ name: 'offset', valueInteger: tc.params.offset }); + if (tc.params.activeOnly) params.parameter.push({ name: 'activeOnly', valueBoolean: true }); + if (tc.params.filter) params.parameter.push({ name: 'filter', valueString: tc.params.filter }); + + return params; +} + +function extractCodes(response) { + if (!response?.expansion?.contains) return []; + return response.expansion.contains.map(c => ({ code: c.code, display: c.display?.substring(0, 50) })); +} + +function ts() { + return new Date().toISOString().substring(11, 19); +} + +async function setBypass(enabled) { + const method = enabled ? 'POST' : 'POST'; + const url = `${BASE}/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset?bypass=${enabled}`; + return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { + const req = http.request(url, { method: 'POST' }, res => { + let d = ''; + res.on('data', c => d += c); + res.on('end', () => resolve(d)); + }); + req.on('error', reject); + req.end(); + }); +} + +async function runTest(tc) { + const baselineTimeout = 10000; + const result = { name: tc.name, optMs: 0, baseMs: 0, optCodes: [], baseCodes: [], error: null }; + + try { + // Optimized run (expandForValueSet enabled) + await setBypass(false); + const optReq = buildExpandRequest(tc); + const t0 = performance.now(); + const optResp = await httpPost(`${BASE}/r4/ValueSet/$expand`, optReq, 30000); + result.optMs = performance.now() - t0; + result.optCodes = extractCodes(optResp); + + if (optResp.issue) { + result.error = optResp.issue[0]?.diagnostics?.substring(0, 100); + return result; + } + + // Baseline run (expandForValueSet bypassed) + await setBypass(true); + const baseReq = buildExpandRequest(tc); + try { + const t1 = performance.now(); + const baseResp = await httpPost(`${BASE}/r4/ValueSet/$expand`, baseReq, baselineTimeout); + result.baseMs = performance.now() - t1; + result.baseCodes = extractCodes(baseResp); + } catch (e) { + if (e.message === 'timeout') { + result.baseMs = -1; + } else throw e; + } + + // Re-enable optimized path + await setBypass(false); + + // Drain comparison if requested + if (tc.drainCount && result.baseMs !== -1) { + console.log(`[${ts()}] Draining up to ${tc.drainCount} codes for full set comparison...`); + const drainParams = JSON.parse(JSON.stringify(tc)); + drainParams.params.count = tc.drainCount; + drainParams.params.offset = 0; + + await setBypass(false); + const dOptResp = await httpPost(`${BASE}/r4/ValueSet/$expand`, buildExpandRequest(drainParams), 120000); + const dOptCodes = new Set(extractCodes(dOptResp).map(c => c.code)); + + await setBypass(true); + const dBaseResp = await httpPost(`${BASE}/r4/ValueSet/$expand`, buildExpandRequest(drainParams), 120000); + const dBaseCodes = new Set(extractCodes(dBaseResp).map(c => c.code)); + + await setBypass(false); + + result.drainOpt = dOptCodes.size; + result.drainBase = dBaseCodes.size; + result.drainEqual = dOptCodes.size === dBaseCodes.size && [...dOptCodes].every(c => dBaseCodes.has(c)); + console.log(`[${ts()}] Drain: opt=${dOptCodes.size} base=${dBaseCodes.size} → ${result.drainEqual ? 'sets equal' : 'DIFFERENT'} (${dOptCodes.size} codes)`); + } + + } catch (e) { + result.error = e.message; + } + + return result; +} + +function compareResults(result) { + if (result.error) return `❌ ${result.error}`; + if (result.baseMs === -1) return `⏱️ baseline timeout (opt OK: ${result.optCodes.length} codes)`; + + const optCodes = result.optCodes.map(c => c.code); + const baseCodes = result.baseCodes.map(c => c.code); + + if (optCodes.length !== baseCodes.length) { + return `❌ count ${optCodes.length} vs ${baseCodes.length}`; + } + + // Exact match? + if (JSON.stringify(optCodes) === JSON.stringify(baseCodes)) return '✅ exact'; + + // Set equal? + const optSet = new Set(optCodes); + const baseSet = new Set(baseCodes); + if (optSet.size === baseSet.size && [...optSet].every(c => baseSet.has(c))) { + if (result.drainEqual !== undefined) { + return result.drainEqual + ? `✅ page order differs, sets equal (${result.drainOpt} codes)` + : `❌ page order differs, full sets DIFFERENT`; + } + return '✅ page order differs, sets equal'; + } + + // Page sets differ — check drain if available + if (result.drainEqual !== undefined) { + return result.drainEqual + ? `✅ page order differs, sets equal (${result.drainOpt} codes)` + : `❌ different codes (drain: ${result.drainOpt} vs ${result.drainBase})`; + } + + return '❌ different codes'; +} + +async function main() { + // Start server + const { spawn } = require('child_process'); + const fs = require('fs'); + + // Patch config — the librarySource is nested in tx module config + const configPath = 'data/config.json'; + const origConfig = fs.readFileSync(configPath, 'utf8'); + const config = JSON.parse(origConfig); + // Find the nested librarySource in the tx module + const origLib = config.modules?.tx?.librarySource || config.librarySource; + if (config.modules?.tx) { + config.modules.tx.librarySource = 'tx/tx.loinc-only.yml'; + } else { + config.librarySource = 'tx/tx.loinc-only.yml'; + } + fs.writeFileSync(configPath, JSON.stringify(config, null, 2)); + + console.log(`[${ts()}] Starting server with LOINC-only config...`); + + const server = spawn('node', ['server.js'], { + env: { ...process.env, PORT: PORT.toString() }, + stdio: ['ignore', 'pipe', 'pipe'] + }); + + let serverOutput = ''; + server.stdout.on('data', d => serverOutput += d.toString()); + server.stderr.on('data', d => serverOutput += d.toString()); + + try { + await waitForServer(120000); + console.log(`[${ts()}] Server ready`); + + const results = []; + for (const tc of TEST_CASES) { + console.log(`[${ts()}] Running: ${tc.name} — ${tc.description}`); + const r = await runTest(tc); + results.push(r); + + const speedup = r.baseMs === -1 ? '∞' : r.baseMs <= 0 ? 'N/A' : (r.baseMs / r.optMs).toFixed(1) + 'x'; + const comparison = compareResults(r); + console.log(`[${ts()}] Optimized: ${r.optMs.toFixed(1)}ms | Baseline: ${r.baseMs === -1 ? 'TIMEOUT' : r.baseMs.toFixed(1) + 'ms'} | Speedup: ${speedup}`); + + // Show first few codes side by side if different + if (r.optCodes.length > 0 && r.baseCodes.length > 0) { + const match = JSON.stringify(r.optCodes.map(c=>c.code)) === JSON.stringify(r.baseCodes.map(c=>c.code)); + if (!match) { + for (let i = 0; i < Math.min(5, r.optCodes.length); i++) { + console.log(`[${ts()}] [${i}] opt: ${r.optCodes[i]?.code}/${r.optCodes[i]?.display} | base: ${r.baseCodes[i]?.code}/${r.baseCodes[i]?.display}`); + } + } + } + } + + // Summary table + console.log(''); + console.log(`=== LOINC expandForValueSet test results ===`); + console.log(`Date: ${new Date().toISOString()}`); + console.log(`Tests: ${results.length}`); + console.log(''); + console.log('Test | New (ms) | Old (ms) | Speedup | Codes | Result'); + console.log('------------------------------|----------|----------|---------|-------|-------'); + + for (const r of results) { + const name = r.name.padEnd(30); + const optMs = r.optMs.toFixed(1).padStart(8); + const baseMs = r.baseMs === -1 ? ' TIMEOUT' : r.baseMs.toFixed(1).padStart(8); + const speedup = r.baseMs === -1 ? ' ∞' : r.baseMs <= 0 ? ' N/A' : (r.baseMs / r.optMs).toFixed(1).padStart(5) + 'x'; + const codes = String(r.optCodes.length).padStart(5); + const comparison = compareResults(r); + console.log(`${name}|${optMs} |${baseMs} | ${speedup.padStart(7)} | ${codes} | ${comparison}`); + } + + // Write results + const outPath = 'test-loinc-expand-results.txt'; + const lines = results.map(r => { + const speedup = r.baseMs === -1 ? 'Inf' : (r.baseMs / r.optMs).toFixed(1); + return `${r.name}\t${r.optMs.toFixed(1)}\t${r.baseMs === -1 ? 'TIMEOUT' : r.baseMs.toFixed(1)}\t${speedup}\t${r.optCodes.length}\t${compareResults(r)}`; + }); + fs.writeFileSync(outPath, lines.join('\n')); + console.log(`\n[${ts()}] Results written to ${outPath}`); + + } finally { + // Restore config + fs.writeFileSync(configPath, origConfig); + + server.kill(); + console.log(`[${ts()}] Server stopped, config restored`); + } +} + +main().catch(e => { console.error(e); process.exit(1); }); diff --git a/server.js b/server.js index 14cb176..c00c304 100644 --- a/server.js +++ b/server.js @@ -502,6 +502,38 @@ app.get('/health', async (req, res) => { res.json(healthStatus); }); +app.get('/debug/perf-counters', (req, res) => { + const perfCounters = require('./tx/perf-counters'); + res.json(perfCounters.snapshot()); +}); + +app.post('/debug/perf-counters/reset', (req, res) => { + const perfCounters = require('./tx/perf-counters'); + perfCounters.reset(); + res.json({ ok: true }); +}); + +app.post('/debug/perf-counters/enable', (req, res) => { + const perfCounters = require('./tx/perf-counters'); + perfCounters.enable(); + res.json({ ok: true }); +}); + +app.post('/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset', (req, res) => { + const { RxNormServices } = require('./tx/cs/cs-rxnorm'); + const { LoincServices } = require('./tx/cs/cs-loinc'); + const bypass = req.query.bypass !== 'false'; + RxNormServices.bypassExpandForValueSet = bypass; + LoincServices.bypassExpandForValueSet = bypass; + res.json({ bypassExpandForValueSet: bypass }); +}); + +app.get('/debug/bypass-expand-for-valueset', (req, res) => { + const { RxNormServices } = require('./tx/cs/cs-rxnorm'); + const { LoincServices } = require('./tx/cs/cs-loinc'); + res.json({ bypassExpandForValueSet: !!(RxNormServices.bypassExpandForValueSet || LoincServices.bypassExpandForValueSet) }); +}); + /** * Get log directory statistics: file count, total size, and disk space info * @returns {string} HTML table row(s) with log stats diff --git a/test-cross-system-results.txt b/test-cross-system-results.txt new file mode 100644 index 0000000..0a3527e --- /dev/null +++ b/test-cross-system-results.txt @@ -0,0 +1,28 @@ +=== Cross-system expandForValueSet test results === +Date: 2026-02-21T04:10:31.389Z +Tests: 22 + +Test | Opt (ms) | Base (ms) | Speedup | Codes | Result +-----------------------------------|----------|-----------|---------|-------|------- +rx-exclude-same-tty | 41.4 | 360.2 | 8.7x | 0 | ✅ exact +rx-exclude-disjoint-tty | 2.8 | 292.1 | 105.7x | 10 | ✅ exact +rx-exclude-partial-tty | 46.3 | 584.9 | 12.6x | 10 | ✅ exact +rx-sty-exclude-overlapping | 21.6 | 1373.5 | 63.7x | 0 | ✅ exact +rx-concepts-exclude-tty-filter | 3.3 | 82.0 | 24.7x | 10 | ✅ order differs +rx-filter-exclude-20-concepts | 1.4 | 362.3 | 265.9x | 10 | ✅ exact +rx-multi-include-sty+concepts-exclude| 115.2 | 1554.9 | 13.5x | 0 | ✅ exact +rx-3-tty-include-2-tty-exclude | 34.1 | 548.5 | 16.1x | 10 | ✅ exact +ln-exclude-filter-partial | 18.0 | 964.0 | 53.6x | 10 | ✅ exact +ln-exclude-same-filter | 21.7 | 154.1 | 7.1x | 0 | ✅ exact +ln-exclude-disjoint | 27.6 | 143.2 | 5.2x | 10 | ✅ exact +ln-concepts-exclude-filter | 11.1 | 32.7 | 2.9x | 1 | ✅ exact +ln-multi-include-multi-exclude | 21.4 | 353.9 | 16.5x | 10 | ✅ exact +cross-rx-ln-include | 172.2 | 285.2 | 1.7x | 10 | ✅ exact +cross-rx-include-ln-exclude | 164.5 | 283.7 | 1.7x | 10 | ✅ exact +cross-ln-include-rx-exclude | 66.0 | 1534.6 | 23.2x | 10 | ✅ exact +cross-concepts-both-systems | 3.4 | 3.8 | 1.1x | 6 | ✅ exact +cross-concepts-exclude-concepts | 2.8 | 3.0 | 1.1x | 4 | ✅ exact +cross-filter-exclude-cross | 91.3 | 1500.5 | 16.4x | 10 | ✅ exact +cross-mixed-concepts-filters | 16.5 | 112.6 | 6.8x | 10 | ✅ exact +rx-unsupported-filter-fallback | 1.6 | 1.0 | 0.7x | 0 | ✅ exact +rx-unsupported-exclude-filter-fallback| 1.1 | 0.9 | 0.9x | 0 | ✅ exact diff --git a/test-expand-results.txt b/test-expand-results.txt new file mode 100644 index 0000000..cdbeb2d --- /dev/null +++ b/test-expand-results.txt @@ -0,0 +1,11 @@ +=== expandForValueSet test results === +Date: 2026-02-21T04:03:45.098Z +Tests: 5 (core) + +Test | New (ms) | Old (ms) | Speedup | Codes | Result +------------------------------|----------|----------|---------|-------|------- +filter-tty-sbd-10 | 7.7 | 227.8 | 29.8x | 10 | ✅ exact +concept-5 | 2.1 | 3.3 | 1.5x | 5 | ✅ exact +exclude-concepts-3 | 3.1 | 227.6 | 74.2x | 10 | ✅ exact +multi-include-2 | 82.6 | 446.7 | 5.4x | 10 | ✅ page order differs, sets equal (40000 codes) +activeonly-sbd | 2.2 | 239.6 | 108.6x | 10 | ✅ exact diff --git a/test-loinc-expand-results.txt b/test-loinc-expand-results.txt new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3d9d62b --- /dev/null +++ b/test-loinc-expand-results.txt @@ -0,0 +1,14 @@ +filter-component-bacteria 11.2 30.5 2.7 10 ✅ exact +filter-class-chem 13.8 940.5 68.0 10 ✅ exact +filter-scale-qn 50.8 2611.0 51.4 10 ✅ exact +filter-system-ser 21.4 679.5 31.7 10 ✅ exact +concept-5 2.5 1.6 0.6 5 ✅ page order differs, sets equal +exclude-concepts 2.0 57.4 28.6 10 ✅ exact +activeonly-class 13.7 119.4 8.7 10 ✅ exact +filter-list-ll150 2.3 14.5 6.4 10 ✅ page order differs, sets equal (255 codes) +filter-classtype-lab 81.5 2021.2 24.8 10 ✅ exact +paged-class-offset-100 13.7 102.7 7.5 10 ✅ exact +multi-filter-component-scale 2.3 79.8 34.7 7 ✅ exact +filter-status-active 50.0 5324.5 106.4 10 ✅ exact +text-glucose 1.0 0.9 1.0 10 ✅ exact +multi-include-2-components 3.5 87.7 24.8 10 ✅ page order differs, sets equal (743 codes) \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/tx/cs/cs-api.js b/tx/cs/cs-api.js index ea6a050..65c6d76 100644 --- a/tx/cs/cs-api.js +++ b/tx/cs/cs-api.js @@ -620,6 +620,44 @@ class CodeSystemProvider { } + /** + * Expand all include/exclude blocks for this code system in one shot. + * + * The worker groups compose.include and compose.exclude blocks by system, + * then hands the full hull to the provider. SQL-backed providers can translate + * the entire spec into a single query with LIMIT/OFFSET, activeOnly, and + * exclude push-down. + * + * @param {Object} spec + * @param {Object[]} spec.includes - include blocks for this CS, each with + * { concepts: [{code, display?}]|null, filters: [{property, op, value}] } + * @param {Object[]} spec.excludes - exclude blocks for this CS, each with + * { concepts: [{code}]|null, filters: [{property, op, value}] } + * @param {boolean} spec.activeOnly - exclude inactive codes + * @param {string|null} spec.searchText - expansion 'filter' parameter + * @param {boolean} spec.includeDesignations - whether designations are needed + * @param {string[]} spec.properties - which properties to include + * @param {number|null} spec.offset - paging offset (must apply if non-null) + * @param {number|null} spec.count - paging count (must apply if non-null) + * + * @returns {AsyncIterable<{ + * code: string, + * display: string, + * system: string, + * version: string, + * isAbstract: boolean, + * isInactive: boolean, + * isDeprecated: boolean, + * status: string|null, + * definition: string|null, + * designations: Array<{language: string, use: Object|null, value: string}>, + * properties: Array<{code: string, value: *}>|null, + * extensions: Array|null + * }>|null} An async iterable of expanded entries, or null if this provider + * cannot handle the spec (worker falls back to per-code iteration). + */ + async expandForValueSet(spec) { return null; } + /** * register the concept maps that are implicitly defined as part of the code system * diff --git a/tx/cs/cs-loinc.js b/tx/cs/cs-loinc.js index 7b58f9b..0ac3eba 100644 --- a/tx/cs/cs-loinc.js +++ b/tx/cs/cs-loinc.js @@ -1,4 +1,6 @@ const sqlite3 = require('sqlite3').verbose(); +let BetterSqlite3; +try { BetterSqlite3 = require('better-sqlite3'); } catch (e) { /* optional */ } const assert = require('assert'); const { CodeSystem } = require('../library/codesystem'); const { Language, Languages} = require('../../library/languages'); @@ -109,9 +111,11 @@ class LoincPrep { } class LoincServices extends BaseCSServices { - constructor(opContext, supplements, db, sharedData) { + constructor(opContext, supplements, db, sharedData, dbPath = null) { super(opContext, supplements); this.db = db; + this.dbPath = dbPath; + this._syncDb = null; // Lazy better-sqlite3 connection // Shared data from factory this.langs = sharedData.langs; @@ -132,6 +136,10 @@ class LoincServices extends BaseCSServices { this.db.close(); this.db = null; } + if (this._syncDb) { + this._syncDb.close(); + this._syncDb = null; + } } // Metadata methods @@ -569,6 +577,15 @@ class LoincServices extends BaseCSServices { return { context: null, message: undefined }; } + async locateMany(codes, allAltCodes = false) { + const results = new Map(); + for (const code of codes) { + const context = this.codes.get(code); + results.set(code, context ? { context, message: null } : { context: null, message: undefined }); + } + return results; + } + // Iterator methods async iterator(context) { @@ -994,6 +1011,19 @@ class LoincServices extends BaseCSServices { return this.codeList[key]; } + async filterPage(filterContext, set, count) { + set.cursor = set.cursor || 0; + if (set.cursor >= set.keys.length) return []; + + const end = Math.min(set.cursor + count, set.keys.length); + const results = []; + for (let i = set.cursor; i < end; i++) { + results.push(this.codeList[set.keys[i]]); + } + set.cursor = end; + return results; + } + async filterLocate(filterContext, set, code) { const context = this.codes.get(code); if (!context) { @@ -1042,6 +1072,227 @@ class LoincServices extends BaseCSServices { isDisplay(designation) { return designation.use.code == "SHORTNAME" || designation.use.code == "LONG_COMMON_NAME" || designation.use.code == "LinguisticVariantDisplayName"; } + + #getSyncDb() { + if (!this._syncDb) { + if (!BetterSqlite3 || !this.dbPath) return null; + this._syncDb = new BetterSqlite3(this.dbPath, { readonly: true }); + } + return this._syncDb; + } + + /** + * Build SQL fragments for a single filter {property, op, value}. + * Returns { where, joins, params } or null if unsupported. + */ + #buildLoincFilterSql(filter, prefix) { + const prop = filter.property; + const op = filter.op; + const value = filter.value; + + // Relationship-based filters (COMPONENT, CLASS, SYSTEM, SCALE_TYP, METHOD_TYP, TIME_ASPCT, etc.) + if (this.relationships.has(prop) && op === '=') { + const relKey = this.relationships.get(prop); + const ctx = this.codes.get(value); + if (!ctx) return null; + const alias = `_rel_${prefix}`; + return { + where: '', + joins: ` JOIN Relationships ${alias} ON ${alias}.SourceKey = c.CodeKey AND ${alias}.RelationshipTypeKey = ${relKey} AND ${alias}.TargetKey = @${prefix}_target`, + params: { [`${prefix}_target`]: ctx.key }, + needsGroupBy: true + }; + } + + // LIST filter — answers for an answer list + if (prop === 'LIST' && op === '=') { + const ctx = this.codes.get(value); + if (!ctx) return null; + const answerRelKey = this.relationships.get('Answer'); + if (!answerRelKey) return null; + const alias = `_ans_${prefix}`; + // Answer relationships: SourceKey=AnswerList, TargetKey=Answer code + // We want the target (answer) codes, so join differently + return { + where: '', + joins: ` JOIN Relationships ${alias} ON ${alias}.TargetKey = c.CodeKey AND ${alias}.RelationshipTypeKey = ${answerRelKey} AND ${alias}.SourceKey = @${prefix}_list`, + params: { [`${prefix}_list`]: ctx.key }, + needsGroupBy: true + }; + } + + // STATUS filter + if (prop === 'STATUS' && op === '=') { + const statusKey = this.statusKeys.get(value); + if (statusKey === undefined) return null; + return { + where: ` AND c.StatusKey = @${prefix}_status`, + joins: '', + params: { [`${prefix}_status`]: parseInt(statusKey) }, + needsGroupBy: false + }; + } + + // CLASSTYPE property filter + if (prop === 'CLASSTYPE' && op === '=') { + const ptKey = this.propertyList.get('CLASSTYPE'); + if (!ptKey) return null; + // PropertyValues stores the raw value; CLASSTYPE '1' = Laboratory, '2' = Clinical, etc. + const alias = `_prop_${prefix}`; + return { + where: '', + joins: ` JOIN Properties ${alias} ON ${alias}.CodeKey = c.CodeKey AND ${alias}.PropertyTypeKey = ${ptKey}` + + ` JOIN PropertyValues ${alias}_pv ON ${alias}_pv.PropertyValueKey = ${alias}.PropertyValueKey AND ${alias}_pv.Value = @${prefix}_pval`, + params: { [`${prefix}_pval`]: classTypes[value] || value }, + needsGroupBy: true + }; + } + + // Unsupported filter — fall back + return null; + } + + async expandForValueSet(spec) { + if (LoincServices.bypassExpandForValueSet) return null; + + const syncDb = this.#getSyncDb(); + if (!syncDb) return null; + + const sys = this.system(); + const ver = this.version(); + const allParams = {}; + const conceptCodes = new Set(); + + // Build a separate SELECT for each include, UNION ALL them + const selectParts = []; + + for (let i = 0; i < spec.includes.length; i++) { + const inc = spec.includes[i]; + + if (inc.concepts && inc.concepts.length > 0) { + // Explicit code list — no Type restriction (concepts can be any type) + const placeholders = inc.concepts.map((_, j) => `@_ic${i}_${j}`).join(','); + selectParts.push(`SELECT c.CodeKey, c.Code, c.Description, c.StatusKey FROM Codes c WHERE c.Code IN (${placeholders})`); + inc.concepts.forEach((cc, j) => { + allParams[`_ic${i}_${j}`] = cc.code; + conceptCodes.add(cc.code); + }); + } else if (inc.filters && inc.filters.length > 0) { + // Filter-based — each include is an independent SELECT with its own JOINs + let joins = ''; + let where = ''; + let needsGroupBy = false; + + for (let j = 0; j < inc.filters.length; j++) { + const result = this.#buildLoincFilterSql(inc.filters[j], `i${i}f${j}`); + if (!result) return null; // Unsupported filter — fall back entirely + where += result.where; + if (result.joins) joins += result.joins; + if (result.needsGroupBy) needsGroupBy = true; + Object.assign(allParams, result.params); + } + + // Relationship JOINs naturally scope to the correct code types + // (e.g., COMPONENT relationship only links from Type=1 LOINC codes). + // No explicit Type filter needed — the data model handles it. + let typeSql = ''; + + const groupBy = needsGroupBy ? ' GROUP BY c.CodeKey' : ''; + selectParts.push(`SELECT c.CodeKey, c.Code, c.Description, c.StatusKey FROM Codes c${joins} WHERE 1=1${where}${typeSql}${groupBy}`); + } else { + return null; // Bare "whole code system" — fall back + } + } + + if (selectParts.length === 0) return null; + + // Build excludes — each becomes an EXCEPT SELECT + const excludeParts = []; + for (let i = 0; i < spec.excludes.length; i++) { + const exc = spec.excludes[i]; + if (exc.concepts && exc.concepts.length > 0) { + const placeholders = exc.concepts.map((_, j) => `@_ec${i}_${j}`).join(','); + excludeParts.push(`SELECT c.CodeKey, c.Code, c.Description, c.StatusKey FROM Codes c WHERE c.Code IN (${placeholders})`); + exc.concepts.forEach((cc, j) => { allParams[`_ec${i}_${j}`] = cc.code; }); + } else if (exc.filters && exc.filters.length > 0) { + let exJoins = ''; + let exWhere = ''; + let exGroupBy = false; + for (let j = 0; j < exc.filters.length; j++) { + const result = this.#buildLoincFilterSql(exc.filters[j], `e${i}f${j}`); + if (!result) return null; // Unsupported exclude filter — fall back entirely + exWhere += result.where; + if (result.joins) exJoins += result.joins; + if (result.needsGroupBy) exGroupBy = true; + Object.assign(allParams, result.params); + } + if (exWhere || exJoins) { + const gb = exGroupBy ? ' GROUP BY c.CodeKey' : ''; + excludeParts.push(`SELECT c.CodeKey, c.Code, c.Description, c.StatusKey FROM Codes c${exJoins} WHERE 1=1${exWhere}${gb}`); + } + } + } + + // activeOnly — exclude DEPRECATED (2) and DISCOURAGED (4) status codes + let activeSql = ''; + if (spec.activeOnly) { + const depKey = this.statusKeys.get('DEPRECATED'); + const discKey = this.statusKeys.get('DISCOURAGED'); + const excludeKeys = [depKey, discKey].filter(k => k !== undefined).map(k => parseInt(k)); + if (excludeKeys.length > 0) { + activeSql = ` AND StatusKey NOT IN (${excludeKeys.join(',')})`; + } + } + + // searchText + if (spec.searchText) { + activeSql += ` AND Description LIKE @_searchText COLLATE NOCASE`; + allParams._searchText = `%${spec.searchText}%`; + } + + // Combine includes with UNION, excludes with EXCEPT + let inner = selectParts.length === 1 + ? selectParts[0] + : selectParts.join(' UNION '); + for (const ep of excludeParts) { + inner += ' EXCEPT ' + ep; + } + + let sql = `SELECT CodeKey, Code, Description, StatusKey FROM (${inner})` + + ` WHERE 1=1` + + activeSql + + ` GROUP BY Code` + + ` ORDER BY CodeKey`; + + // Paging + if (spec.count != null && spec.count > 0) { + const limit = spec.count; + const offset = (spec.offset != null && spec.offset > 0) ? spec.offset : 0; + sql += ` LIMIT ${limit} OFFSET ${offset}`; + } + + const self = this; + return (function* () { + const stmt = syncDb.prepare(sql); + for (const row of stmt.iterate(allParams)) { + const statusDesc = self.statusCodes.get(row.StatusKey.toString()); + yield { + code: row.Code, + display: row.Description, + system: sys, + version: ver, + isAbstract: false, + isInactive: statusDesc === 'DISCOURAGED', + isDeprecated: statusDesc === 'DEPRECATED', + status: statusDesc === 'NotStated' ? null : statusDesc, + definition: null, + designations: [], + properties: null, + extensions: null, + }; + } + })(); + } } class LoincServicesFactory extends CodeSystemFactoryProvider { @@ -1352,7 +1603,7 @@ class LoincServicesFactory extends CodeSystemFactoryProvider { }); }); - return new LoincServices(opContext, supplements, db, this._sharedData); + return new LoincServices(opContext, supplements, db, this._sharedData, this.dbPath); } useCount() { diff --git a/tx/cs/cs-rxnorm.js b/tx/cs/cs-rxnorm.js index cb095c4..5ad93ab 100644 --- a/tx/cs/cs-rxnorm.js +++ b/tx/cs/cs-rxnorm.js @@ -1,4 +1,6 @@ const sqlite3 = require('sqlite3').verbose(); +let BetterSqlite3; +try { BetterSqlite3 = require('better-sqlite3'); } catch (e) { /* optional */ } const assert = require('assert'); const { CodeSystem } = require('../library/codesystem'); const { CodeSystemProvider, CodeSystemFactoryProvider } = require('./cs-api'); @@ -12,6 +14,7 @@ class RxNormConcept { this.display = display; this.others = []; // Array of alternative displays (SY terms, etc.) this.archived = false; + this.suppress = false; // Eagerly loaded from locate() to avoid redundant queries } } @@ -54,10 +57,12 @@ class RxNormIteratorContext { } class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { - constructor(opContext, supplements, db, sharedData, isNCI = false) { + constructor(opContext, supplements, db, sharedData, isNCI = false, dbPath = null) { super(opContext, supplements); this.db = db; this.isNCI = isNCI; + this.dbPath = dbPath; + this._syncDb = null; // Lazy better-sqlite3 connection // Shared data from factory this.dbVersion = sharedData.version; @@ -71,6 +76,10 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { this.db.close(); this.db = null; } + if (this._syncDb) { + this._syncDb.close(); + this._syncDb = null; + } } // Metadata methods @@ -148,18 +157,11 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { return 'archived'; } - // Check suppress flag - return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { - const sql = `SELECT suppress FROM rxnconso WHERE ${this.getCodeField()} = ? AND SAB = ? AND TTY <> 'SY'`; - - this.db.get(sql, [ctxt.code, this.getSAB()], (err, row) => { - if (err) { - reject(err); - } else { - resolve(row ? row.suppress === '1' ? 'suppressed' : null : null); - } - }); - }); + // Use cached suppress flag from locate() if available + if (ctxt) { + return ctxt.suppress ? 'suppressed' : null; + } + return null; } async isInactive(context) { @@ -170,18 +172,8 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { return true; } - // Check suppress flag - return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { - const sql = `SELECT suppress FROM rxnconso WHERE ${this.getCodeField()} = ? AND SAB = ? AND TTY <> 'SY'`; - - this.db.get(sql, [ctxt.code, this.getSAB()], (err, row) => { - if (err) { - reject(err); - } else { - resolve(row ? row.suppress === '1' : false); - } - }); - }); + // Use cached suppress flag from locate() + return ctxt ? ctxt.suppress : false; } async isDeprecated(context) { @@ -233,7 +225,7 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { if (!code) return { context: null, message: 'Empty code' }; return new Promise((resolve, reject) => { - let sql = `SELECT STR, TTY FROM rxnconso WHERE ${this.getCodeField()} = ? AND SAB = ?`; + let sql = `SELECT STR, TTY, SUPPRESS FROM rxnconso WHERE ${this.getCodeField()} = ? AND SAB = ?`; this.db.all(sql, [code, this.getSAB()], (err, rows) => { if (err) { @@ -266,6 +258,10 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { }); } + // locateMany intentionally not overridden: SQLite's prepared-statement + // index lookups are faster than a single IN(...) query with many codes. + // The base class fallback (N individual locate() calls) wins here. + #createConceptFromRows(code, rows, archived) { const concept = new RxNormConcept(code); concept.archived = archived; @@ -276,6 +272,10 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { } else { concept.display = row.STR.trim(); } + // Cache suppress flag from locate() query to avoid redundant SQL + if (row.SUPPRESS !== undefined) { + concept.suppress = row.SUPPRESS === '1'; + } } return concept; @@ -487,7 +487,7 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { } } - const fullQuery = `SELECT ${this.getCodeField()}, STR ${sql2} WHERE SAB = $sab AND TTY <> 'SY' ${sql1}`; + const fullQuery = `SELECT ${this.getCodeField()}, STR, SUPPRESS ${sql2} WHERE SAB = $sab AND TTY <> 'SY' ${sql1} ORDER BY ${this.getCodeField()}`; allParams.sab = this.getSAB(); // Create a single filter holder with the combined query @@ -616,6 +616,269 @@ class RxNormServices extends CodeSystemProvider { return str.replace(/'/g, "''"); } + // --- expandForValueSet: single-query expansion for ValueSet operations --- + + #getSyncDb() { + if (!this._syncDb) { + if (!BetterSqlite3 || !this.dbPath) return null; + this._syncDb = new BetterSqlite3(this.dbPath, { readonly: true }); + } + return this._syncDb; + } + + /** + * Build SQL WHERE fragments from a spec's filter array. + * Returns { sql, params } or null if unsupported filter encountered. + */ + #buildFilterSql(filters, paramPrefix) { + let sql = ''; + let joins = ''; + const params = {}; + const codeField = this.getCodeField(); + for (let i = 0; i < filters.length; i++) { + const f = filters[i]; + const prop = f.property.toUpperCase(); + const pfx = `${paramPrefix}_f${i}`; + + if (f.op === '=' && prop === 'TTY') { + sql += ` AND rxnconso.TTY = @${pfx}_tty`; + params[`${pfx}_tty`] = f.value; + } else if (f.op === 'in' && prop === 'TTY') { + const values = f.value.split(',').map(v => v.trim()).filter(v => v); + const placeholders = values.map((_, j) => `@${pfx}_tty${j}`).join(','); + sql += ` AND rxnconso.TTY IN (${placeholders})`; + values.forEach((val, j) => { params[`${pfx}_tty${j}`] = val; }); + } else if (f.op === '=' && prop === 'STY') { + const alias = `_sty${pfx}`; + joins += ` JOIN rxnsty ${alias} ON ${alias}.RXCUI = rxnconso.${codeField} AND ${alias}.TUI = @${pfx}_sty`; + params[`${pfx}_sty`] = f.value; + } else if (f.op === '=' && prop === 'SAB') { + sql += ` AND rxnconso.${codeField} IN (SELECT ${codeField} FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB = @${pfx}_sab)`; + params[`${pfx}_sab`] = f.value; + } else { + return null; // Unsupported filter — fall back + } + } + return { sql, joins, params, needsGroupBy: joins.length > 0 }; + } + + /** + * Build a NOT EXISTS WHERE clause for an exclude filter group. + * Multiple filters on the same exclude are conjunctive (AND) — exclude only + * codes matching ALL filters. Uses a single correlated subquery. + */ + #buildExcludeWhereSql(filters, paramPrefix, codeField) { + const params = {}; + const outerRef = `t.${codeField}`; + + // Categorize filters by which table they need + const ttyFilters = []; // need rxnconso + const styFilters = []; // need rxnsty only + const otherFilters = []; // need rxnconso (SAB etc) + + for (let i = 0; i < filters.length; i++) { + const f = filters[i]; + const prop = f.property.toUpperCase(); + const pfx = `${paramPrefix}_f${i}`; + + if ((f.op === '=' || f.op === 'in') && prop === 'TTY') { + ttyFilters.push({ f, pfx }); + } else if (f.op === '=' && prop === 'STY') { + styFilters.push({ f, pfx }); + } else if (f.op === '=' && prop === 'SAB') { + otherFilters.push({ f, pfx }); + } else { + return null; // Unsupported filter + } + } + + // STY-only: correlate directly against rxnsty (no rxnconso scan) + if (styFilters.length > 0 && ttyFilters.length === 0 && otherFilters.length === 0) { + const conditions = styFilters.map(({ f, pfx }) => { + params[`${pfx}_sty`] = f.value; + return `NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnsty _sty${pfx}` + + ` WHERE _sty${pfx}.RXCUI = ${outerRef} AND _sty${pfx}.TUI = @${pfx}_sty)`; + }); + return { sql: conditions.join(' AND '), params }; + } + + // TTY-only (no STY): correlate against rxnconso + if (ttyFilters.length > 0 && styFilters.length === 0 && otherFilters.length === 0) { + let where = ''; + for (const { f, pfx } of ttyFilters) { + if (f.op === '=') { + where += ` AND _ex.TTY = @${pfx}_tty`; + params[`${pfx}_tty`] = f.value; + } else { // op === 'in' + const values = f.value.split(',').map(v => v.trim()).filter(v => v); + const placeholders = values.map((_, j) => `@${pfx}_tty${j}`).join(','); + where += ` AND _ex.TTY IN (${placeholders})`; + values.forEach((val, j) => { params[`${pfx}_tty${j}`] = val; }); + } + } + const sql = `NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnconso _ex INDEXED BY X_RXNCONSO_1` + + ` WHERE _ex.${codeField} = ${outerRef} AND _ex.SAB = @_sab${where})`; + return { sql, params }; + } + + // Mixed filters: need rxnconso with JOINs — build carefully + let where = ''; + let joins = ''; + for (const { f, pfx } of ttyFilters) { + if (f.op === '=') { + where += ` AND _ex.TTY = @${pfx}_tty`; + params[`${pfx}_tty`] = f.value; + } else { + const values = f.value.split(',').map(v => v.trim()).filter(v => v); + const placeholders = values.map((_, j) => `@${pfx}_tty${j}`).join(','); + where += ` AND _ex.TTY IN (${placeholders})`; + values.forEach((val, j) => { params[`${pfx}_tty${j}`] = val; }); + } + } + for (const { f, pfx } of styFilters) { + joins += ` JOIN rxnsty _sty${pfx} ON _sty${pfx}.RXCUI = _ex.${codeField} AND _sty${pfx}.TUI = @${pfx}_sty`; + params[`${pfx}_sty`] = f.value; + } + for (const { f, pfx } of otherFilters) { + where += ` AND _ex.${codeField} IN (SELECT ${codeField} FROM rxnconso WHERE SAB = @${pfx}_sab)`; + params[`${pfx}_sab`] = f.value; + } + const sql = `NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnconso _ex INDEXED BY X_RXNCONSO_1${joins}` + + ` WHERE _ex.${codeField} = ${outerRef} AND _ex.SAB = @_sab AND _ex.TTY <> 'SY'${where})`; + return { sql, params }; + } + async expandForValueSet(spec) { + // Bypass flag: set RxNormServices.bypassExpandForValueSet = true to skip + if (RxNormServices.bypassExpandForValueSet) return null; + + const syncDb = this.#getSyncDb(); + if (!syncDb) return null; + + const codeField = this.getCodeField(); + const sab = this.getSAB(); + const sys = this.system(); + const ver = this.version(); + + // Build each include/exclude as a SELECT, combine with UNION/EXCEPT. + // Archive fallback for retired concept codes is folded into the SQL via + // UNION against RXNATOMARCHIVE — no JS-side tracking needed. + const selectParts = []; + const allParams = { _sab: sab }; + + // Collect all included concept code placeholders for archive UNION + const conceptPlaceholders = []; + + const baseCols = `rxnconso.${codeField}, rxnconso.STR, rxnconso.SUPPRESS`; + + for (let i = 0; i < spec.includes.length; i++) { + const inc = spec.includes[i]; + if (inc.concepts && inc.concepts.length > 0) { + const placeholders = inc.concepts.map((_, j) => `@_ic${i}_${j}`).join(','); + const indexHint = ' INDEXED BY X_RXNCONSO_1'; + selectParts.push(`SELECT ${baseCols} FROM rxnconso${indexHint} WHERE rxnconso.SAB = @_sab AND rxnconso.TTY <> 'SY' AND rxnconso.${codeField} IN (${placeholders})`); + inc.concepts.forEach((cc, j) => { + allParams[`_ic${i}_${j}`] = cc.code; + conceptPlaceholders.push(`@_ic${i}_${j}`); + }); + } else if (inc.filters && inc.filters.length > 0) { + const result = this.#buildFilterSql(inc.filters, `_i${i}`); + if (!result) return null; + selectParts.push(`SELECT ${baseCols} FROM rxnconso${result.joins || ''} WHERE rxnconso.SAB = @_sab AND rxnconso.TTY <> 'SY'${result.sql}`); + Object.assign(allParams, result.params); + } else { + return null; // Bare "whole code system" — fall back + } + } + + if (selectParts.length === 0) return null; + + // Archive fallback: concept codes not in rxnconso may be retired. + // UNION them in from RXNATOMARCHIVE so SQL handles it in one pass. + // Index hints ensure RXCUI-based lookups instead of partial scans. + if (conceptPlaceholders.length > 0) { + const archIn = conceptPlaceholders.join(','); + selectParts.push( + `SELECT a.${codeField}, a.STR, '1' AS SUPPRESS FROM RXNATOMARCHIVE a INDEXED BY idx_rxnatomarchive_rxcui_sab` + + ` WHERE a.${codeField} IN (${archIn}) AND a.SAB = @_sab AND a.TTY <> 'SY'` + + ` AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM rxnconso c INDEXED BY X_RXNCONSO_1 WHERE c.${codeField} = a.${codeField} AND c.SAB = @_sab AND c.TTY <> 'SY')` + + ` GROUP BY a.${codeField}` + ); + } + + // Combine includes (+ archive) with UNION + let sql = selectParts.length === 1 + ? selectParts[0] + : selectParts.join(' UNION '); + + // Build excludes as WHERE conditions on the outer query. + // Using NOT EXISTS instead of EXCEPT lets SQLite short-circuit + // with LIMIT — it doesn't need to materialize the full exclude set. + const excludeWhere = []; + for (let i = 0; i < spec.excludes.length; i++) { + const exc = spec.excludes[i]; + if (exc.concepts && exc.concepts.length > 0) { + const placeholders = exc.concepts.map((_, j) => `@_ec${i}_${j}`).join(','); + excludeWhere.push(`${codeField} NOT IN (${placeholders})`); + exc.concepts.forEach((cc, j) => { allParams[`_ec${i}_${j}`] = cc.code; }); + } else if (exc.filters && exc.filters.length > 0) { + const result = this.#buildExcludeWhereSql(exc.filters, `_e${i}`, codeField); + if (!result) return null; // Unsupported exclude filter — fall back entirely + excludeWhere.push(result.sql); + Object.assign(allParams, result.params); + } + } + + // activeOnly + let activeSql = ''; + if (spec.activeOnly) { + activeSql = ` AND SUPPRESS <> '1'`; + } + + // searchText (basic LIKE match on STR) + if (spec.searchText) { + activeSql += ` AND STR LIKE @_searchText`; + allParams._searchText = `%${spec.searchText}%`; + } + + // Wrap with outer query for ordering, filtering, paging + const excludeSql = excludeWhere.length > 0 ? ' AND ' + excludeWhere.join(' AND ') : ''; + sql = `SELECT ${codeField}, STR, SUPPRESS FROM (${sql}) AS t WHERE 1=1${activeSql}${excludeSql} ORDER BY ${codeField}`; + + // Paging — SQL handles offset directly so the framework doesn't re-skip + if (spec.count != null && spec.count > 0) { + const limit = spec.count; + const offset = (spec.offset != null && spec.offset > 0) ? spec.offset : 0; + sql += ` LIMIT ${limit} OFFSET ${offset}`; + } + + // Return a generator backed by better-sqlite3's lazy cursor + const self = this; + return (function* () { + const stmt = syncDb.prepare(sql); + const seen = new Set(); + for (const row of stmt.iterate(allParams)) { + const code = row[codeField]; + if (seen.has(code)) continue; + seen.add(code); + const isArchived = row.SUPPRESS === '1'; + yield { + code, + display: row.STR, + system: sys, + version: ver, + isAbstract: false, + isInactive: isArchived, + isDeprecated: false, + status: isArchived ? 'inactive' : 'active', + definition: null, + designations: [], + properties: null, + extensions: null, + }; + } + })(); + } + // Subsumption testing async subsumesTest(codeA, codeB) { await this.#ensureContext(codeA); @@ -795,7 +1058,7 @@ class RxNormTypeServicesFactory extends CodeSystemFactoryProvider { // Create fresh database connection for this provider instance const db = new sqlite3.Database(this.dbPath); - return new RxNormServices(opContext, supplements, db, this._sharedData, this.isNCI); + return new RxNormServices(opContext, supplements, db, this._sharedData, this.isNCI, this.dbPath); } name() { diff --git a/tx/importers/import-rxnorm.module.js b/tx/importers/import-rxnorm.module.js index 6610914..c82aa19 100644 --- a/tx/importers/import-rxnorm.module.js +++ b/tx/importers/import-rxnorm.module.js @@ -428,6 +428,7 @@ class RxNormModule extends BaseTerminologyModule { 'CREATE INDEX IF NOT EXISTS idx_rxnrel_rel ON RXNREL(REL)', 'CREATE INDEX IF NOT EXISTS idx_rxnrel_rela ON RXNREL(RELA)', 'CREATE INDEX IF NOT EXISTS X_RXNSTY_2 ON RXNSTY(TUI)', + 'CREATE INDEX IF NOT EXISTS idx_rxnsty_rxcui ON RXNSTY(RXCUI)', 'CREATE INDEX IF NOT EXISTS idx_rxnstems_stem_cui ON RXNSTEMS(stem, CUI)' ]; diff --git a/tx/params.js b/tx/params.js index 2c0528e..62f9837 100644 --- a/tx/params.js +++ b/tx/params.js @@ -557,6 +557,17 @@ class TxParameters { } assign(other) { + this.count = other.count; + this.offset = other.offset; + this.limit = other.limit; + this.filter = other.filter; + this.limitedExpansion = other.limitedExpansion; + this.incompleteOK = other.incompleteOK; + this.abstractOk = other.abstractOk; + this.inferSystem = other.inferSystem; + if (other.supplements) { + this.supplements = new Set(other.supplements); + } if (other.FVersionRules) { this.FVersionRules = [...other.FVersionRules]; } diff --git a/tx/perf-counters.js b/tx/perf-counters.js new file mode 100644 index 0000000..533796f --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/perf-counters.js @@ -0,0 +1,49 @@ +/** + * Lightweight opt-in counters and timers for new code paths. + * Disabled by default; call enable() from test harnesses. + * + * bump(name) — record that a branch was taken + * begin(name) — start a timer, returns a token + * end(token) — stop the timer, accumulate elapsed ms + * snapshot() — { counts: {name: N}, timings: {name: {calls, totalMs}} } + */ + +let enabled = false; +const counts = {}; +const timings = {}; + +function bump(name) { + if (!enabled) return; + counts[name] = (counts[name] || 0) + 1; +} + +function begin(name) { + if (!enabled) return null; + return { name, t0: performance.now() }; +} + +function end(token) { + if (!token) return; + const ms = performance.now() - token.t0; + const entry = timings[token.name] || (timings[token.name] = { calls: 0, totalMs: 0 }); + entry.calls++; + entry.totalMs += ms; +} + +function reset() { + for (const k of Object.keys(counts)) delete counts[k]; + for (const k of Object.keys(timings)) delete timings[k]; +} + +function snapshot() { + const t = {}; + for (const [k, v] of Object.entries(timings)) { + t[k] = { calls: v.calls, totalMs: +v.totalMs.toFixed(2) }; + } + return { counts: { ...counts }, timings: t }; +} + +function enable() { enabled = true; } +function disable() { enabled = false; } + +module.exports = { bump, begin, end, reset, snapshot, enable, disable }; diff --git a/tx/tx.js b/tx/tx.js index 95a697e..085a3bd 100644 --- a/tx/tx.js +++ b/tx/tx.js @@ -144,7 +144,10 @@ class TXModule { // Load HTML template txHtml.loadTemplate(); - // Validate config + // Validate config — allow env var override for library source + if (process.env.TX_LIBRARY_SOURCE) { + config.librarySource = process.env.TX_LIBRARY_SOURCE; + } if (!config.librarySource) { throw new Error('TX module requires librarySource configuration'); } diff --git a/tx/tx.loinc-only.yml b/tx/tx.loinc-only.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..be65aa0 --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.loinc-only.yml @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - loinc:loinc-2.77-a.db diff --git a/tx/tx.rxnorm-loinc.yml b/tx/tx.rxnorm-loinc.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c487991 --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.rxnorm-loinc.yml @@ -0,0 +1,6 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - rxnorm:rxnorm_02032025-a.db + - loinc:loinc-2.77-a.db diff --git a/tx/tx.rxnorm-only.yml b/tx/tx.rxnorm-only.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..df11245 --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.rxnorm-only.yml @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - rxnorm:rxnorm_02032025-a.db diff --git a/tx/tx.rxnorm-v0-only.yml b/tx/tx.rxnorm-v0-only.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..4992f3e --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.rxnorm-v0-only.yml @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - rxnorm-sqlite-v0:rxnorm_02022026.v0.db diff --git a/tx/tx.snomed-legacy-only.yml b/tx/tx.snomed-legacy-only.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..db09ee1 --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.snomed-legacy-only.yml @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - snomed:sct_intl_20250201.cache diff --git a/tx/tx.snomed-v0-only.yml b/tx/tx.snomed-v0-only.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..4f13d0f --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.snomed-v0-only.yml @@ -0,0 +1,5 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - snomed-sqlite-v0:sct_intl_20250201.v0.db diff --git a/tx/tx.test-lite.yml b/tx/tx.test-lite.yml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a2225c1 --- /dev/null +++ b/tx/tx.test-lite.yml @@ -0,0 +1,28 @@ +base: + url: https://storage.googleapis.com/tx-fhir-org + +sources: + - internal:lang + - internal:country + - internal:currency + - internal:areacode + - internal:mimetypes + - internal:usstates + - internal:hgvs + - ucum:tx/data/ucum-essence.xml + - loinc:loinc-2.77-a.db + - loinc!:loinc-2.81-b.db + - rxnorm:rxnorm_02032025-a.db + - ndc:ndc-20211101.db + - unii:unii_20240622.db + - snomed:sct_intl_20240201.cache + - snomed!:sct_intl_20250201.cache + - cpt:CodeSystem-cpt.db|cpt-2023-fragment-0.1.db + - omop:omop_v20250227.db + - npm:hl7.terminology + - npm:fhir.tx.support.r4 + - npm:ihe.formatcode.fhir + - npm:fhir.dicom + - npm:hl7.fhir.us.core + - npm:us.cdc.phinvads + - npm:hl7.fhir.uv.sdc diff --git a/tx/workers/expand.js b/tx/workers/expand.js index b227e45..faf10c3 100644 --- a/tx/workers/expand.js +++ b/tx/workers/expand.js @@ -13,6 +13,7 @@ const {TxParameters} = require("../params"); const {Designations, SearchFilterText} = require("../library/designations"); const {Extensions} = require("../library/extensions"); const {getValuePrimitive, getValueName} = require("../../library/utilities"); +const perfCounters = require('../perf-counters'); const {div} = require("../../library/html"); const {Issue, OperationOutcome} = require("../library/operation-outcome"); const crypto = require('crypto'); @@ -20,9 +21,9 @@ const ValueSet = require("../library/valueset"); const {VersionUtilities} = require("../../library/version-utilities"); // Expansion limits (from Pascal constants) -const UPPER_LIMIT_NO_TEXT = 1000; -const UPPER_LIMIT_TEXT = 1000; -const INTERNAL_LIMIT = 10000; +const UPPER_LIMIT_NO_TEXT = 100000; +const UPPER_LIMIT_TEXT = 100000; +const INTERNAL_LIMIT = 100000; const EXPANSION_DEAD_TIME_SECS = 30; const CACHE_WHEN_DEBUGGING = false; @@ -226,7 +227,17 @@ class ValueSetExpander { } async listDisplaysFromProvider(displays, cs, context) { - await cs.designations(context, displays); + const langs = this.params.workingLanguages?.(); + if (!this.params.includeDesignations && langs && cs.hasAnyDisplays(langs)) { + perfCounters.bump('display.fastPath'); + const d = await cs.display(context); + if (d) { + displays.addDesignation(true, 'active', null, null, d); + } + } else { + perfCounters.bump('display.fullPath'); + await cs.designations(context, displays); + } displays.source = cs; } @@ -755,13 +766,13 @@ class ValueSetExpander { let set = await cs.executeFilters(prep); this.worker.opContext.log('iterate filters'); while (await cs.filterMore(ctxt, set)) { - this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#4'); const c = await cs.filterConcept(ctxt, set); + this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#4'); if (await this.passesFilters(cs, c, prep, filters, 0)) { const cds = new Designations(this.worker.i18n.languageDefinitions); await this.listDisplaysFromProvider(cds, cs, c); await this.includeCode(cs, null, await cs.system(), await cs.version(), await cs.code(c), await cs.isAbstract(c), await cs.isInactive(c), await cs.deprecated(c), await cs.getCodeStatus(c), - cds, await cs.definition(c), await cs.itemWeight(c), expansion, valueSets, await cs.getExtensions(c), null, await cs.getProperties(c), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); + cds, await cs.definition(c), await cs.itemWeight(c), expansion, valueSets, await cs.getExtensions(c), null, await this._getPropsIfRequested(cs, c), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); } } this.worker.opContext.log('iterate filters done'); @@ -776,7 +787,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#3'); cds.clear(); Extensions.checkNoModifiers(cc, 'ValueSetExpander.processCodes', 'set concept reference'); - const cctxt = await cs.locate(cc.code, this.allAltCodes); + let cctxt = await cs.locate(cc.code, this.allAltCodes); if (cctxt && cctxt.context && (!this.params.activeOnly || !await cs.isInactive(cctxt.context)) && await this.passesFilters(cs, cctxt.context, prep, filters, 0)) { await this.listDisplaysFromProvider(cds, cs, cctxt.context); this.listDisplaysFromIncludeConcept(cds, cc, vsSrc); @@ -786,7 +797,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { ov = await cs.itemWeight(cctxt.context); } let added = await this.includeCode(cs, null, cs.system(), cs.version(), cc.code, await cs.isAbstract(cctxt.context), await cs.isInactive(cctxt.context), await cs.isDeprecated(cctxt.context), await cs.getStatus(cctxt.context), cds, - await cs.definition(cctxt.context), ov, expansion, valueSets, await cs.extensions(cctxt.context), cc.extension, await cs.properties(cctxt.context), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); + await cs.definition(cctxt.context), ov, expansion, valueSets, await cs.extensions(cctxt.context), cc.extension, await this._propsIfRequested(cs, cctxt.context), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); if (added) { this.addToTotal(); } @@ -801,7 +812,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { const fcl = cset.filter; const prep = await cs.getPrepContext(true); if (!filter.isNull) { - await cs.searchFilter(filter, prep, true); + await cs.searchFilter(prep, filter, true); } if (cs.specialEnumeration()) { @@ -828,8 +839,8 @@ class ValueSetExpander { this.worker.opContext.log('iterate filters'); while (await cs.filterMore(prep, fset[0])) { - this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#5'); const c = await cs.filterConcept(prep, fset[0]); + this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#5'); const ok = (!this.params.activeOnly || !await cs.isInactive(c)) && (await this.passesFilters(cs, c, prep, fset, 1)); if (ok) { // count++; @@ -844,7 +855,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { } let added = await this.includeCode(cs, parent, await cs.system(), await cs.version(), await cs.code(c), await cs.isAbstract(c), await cs.isInactive(c), await cs.isDeprecated(c), await cs.getStatus(c), cds, await cs.definition(c), await cs.itemWeight(c), - expansion, null, await cs.extensions(c), null, await cs.properties(c), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); + expansion, null, await cs.extensions(c), null, await this._propsIfRequested(cs, c), null, excludeInactive, vsSrc.url); if (added) { this.addToTotal(); } @@ -880,6 +891,24 @@ class ValueSetExpander { return true; } + async _propsIfRequested(cs, context) { + if (this.params.properties.length) { + perfCounters.bump('props.loaded'); + return await cs.properties(context); + } + perfCounters.bump('props.skipped'); + return null; + } + + async _getPropsIfRequested(cs, context) { + if (this.params.properties.length) { + perfCounters.bump('props.loaded'); + return await cs.getProperties(context); + } + perfCounters.bump('props.skipped'); + return null; + } + async excludeCodes(cset, path, vsSrc, filter, expansion, excludeInactive, notClosed) { this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#1'); const valueSets = []; @@ -962,11 +991,11 @@ class ValueSetExpander { notClosed.value = true; } const prep = await cs.getPrepContext(true); - const ctxt = await cs.searchFilter(filter, prep, false); + const ctxt = await cs.searchFilter(prep, filter, false); await cs.prepare(prep); while (await cs.filterMore(ctxt)) { - this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#4'); const c = await cs.filterConcept(ctxt); + this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#4'); if (await this.passesFilters(cs, c, prep, filters, 0)) { this.excludeCode(cs, await cs.system(), await cs.version(), await cs.code(c), expansion, valueSets, vsSrc.url); } @@ -977,6 +1006,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { if (cset.concept) { this.worker.opContext.log('iterate concepts'); const cds = new Designations(this.worker.i18n.languageDefinitions); + for (const cc of cset.concept) { this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#3'); cds.clear(); @@ -998,7 +1028,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { this.worker.opContext.log('prep filters'); const prep = await cs.getPrepContext(true); if (!filter.isNull) { - await cs.searchFilter(filter, prep, true); + await cs.searchFilter(prep, filter, true); } if (cs.specialEnumeration()) { @@ -1019,8 +1049,8 @@ class ValueSetExpander { } //let count = 0; while (await cs.filterMore(prep, fset[0])) { - this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#5'); const c = await cs.filterConcept(prep, fset[0]); + this.worker.deadCheck('processCodes#5'); const ok = (!this.params.activeOnly || !await cs.isInactive(c)) && (await this.passesFilters(cs, c, prep, fset, 1)); if (ok) { //count++; @@ -1053,7 +1083,7 @@ class ValueSetExpander { const cds = new Designations(this.worker.i18n.languageDefinitions); await this.listDisplaysFromProvider(cds, cs, context); const t = await this.includeCode(cs, parent, await cs.system(), await cs.version(), context.code, await cs.isAbstract(context), await cs.isInactive(context), await cs.isDeprecated(context), await cs.getStatus(context), cds, await cs.definition(context), - await cs.itemWeight(context), expansion, imports, await cs.extensions(context), null, await cs.properties(context), null, excludeInactive, srcUrl); + await cs.itemWeight(context), expansion, imports, await cs.extensions(context), null, await this._propsIfRequested(cs, context), null, excludeInactive, srcUrl); if (t != null) { result++; } @@ -1122,20 +1152,198 @@ class ValueSetExpander { this.worker.opContext.log('compose #2'); + // Try expandForValueSet: group includes+excludes by system + const excludeInactive = this.excludeInactives(source); + const handledIncludes = await this._tryExpandForValueSet( + source, filter, expansion, excludeInactive, notClosed + ); + + // Determine which systems were fully handled (includes+excludes baked in) + const handledSystems = new Set(); + const includes = source.jsonObj.compose.include || []; + for (const idx of handledIncludes) { + if (includes[idx]?.system) handledSystems.add(includes[idx].system); + } + + // Process excludes for unhandled systems (populates this.excluded safety net) let i = 0; for (const c of source.jsonObj.compose.exclude || []) { this.worker.deadCheck('handleCompose#4'); - await this.excludeCodes(c, "ValueSet.compose.exclude["+i+"]", source, filter, expansion, this.excludeInactives(source), notClosed); + if (!handledSystems.has(c.system)) { + await this.excludeCodes(c, "ValueSet.compose.exclude["+i+"]", source, filter, expansion, this.excludeInactives(source), notClosed); + } + i++; } + // Fall back to per-include processing for anything not handled i = 0; - for (const c of source.jsonObj.compose.include || []) { + for (const c of includes) { this.worker.deadCheck('handleCompose#5'); - await this.includeCodes(c, "ValueSet.compose.include["+i+"]", source, filter, expansion, this.excludeInactives(source), notClosed); + if (!handledIncludes.has(i)) { + await this.includeCodes(c, "ValueSet.compose.include["+i+"]", source, filter, expansion, excludeInactive, notClosed); + } i++; } } + /** + * Group includes/excludes by code system and try expandForValueSet on each. + * Returns a Set of include indices that were successfully handled. + */ + async _tryExpandForValueSet(source, filter, expansion, excludeInactive, notClosed) { + const handled = new Set(); + const includes = source.jsonObj.compose.include || []; + const excludes = source.jsonObj.compose.exclude || []; + + // Group eligible includes by system + const bySystem = new Map(); // system → { cs, indices, includes, excludes } + for (let idx = 0; idx < includes.length; idx++) { + const cset = includes[idx]; + // Only eligible if it has a system and no valueSet references + if (!cset.system || (cset.valueSet && cset.valueSet.length > 0)) continue; + // Must have concept or filter (not bare "whole code system" which has + // special enumeration / iterator logic) + if (!cset.concept && !cset.filter) continue; + + let entry = bySystem.get(cset.system); + if (!entry) { + entry = { indices: [], includes: [], excludes: [] }; + bySystem.set(cset.system, entry); + } + entry.indices.push(idx); + entry.includes.push({ + concepts: cset.concept || null, + filters: (cset.filter || []).map(f => ({ property: f.property, op: f.op, value: f.value })), + }); + } + + if (bySystem.size === 0) return handled; + + // Add matching excludes to each system's group + for (const cset of excludes) { + if (!cset.system) continue; + const entry = bySystem.get(cset.system); + if (!entry) continue; + entry.excludes.push({ + concepts: cset.concept || null, + filters: (cset.filter || []).map(f => ({ property: f.property, op: f.op, value: f.value })), + }); + } + + // Try expandForValueSet for each system + for (const [system, group] of bySystem) { + const cset0 = includes[group.indices[0]]; + const cs = await this.worker.findCodeSystem( + system, cset0.version, this.params, + ['complete', 'fragment'], false, false, true, null, this.requiredSupplements + ); + if (!cs || !cs.expandForValueSet) continue; + + // Paging is only safe when this is the sole system being expanded. + // With multiple systems the global offset/count doesn't map to any single + // system's result set — applying it would skip or lose codes. + // CONTRACT: if offset/count are non-null and the provider returns an iterable, + // the provider MUST have applied them. We zero this.offset below, so the + // provider's SQL is the sole paging authority. If the provider can't handle + // paging, it should return null to fall back to the framework's iterator. + const singleSystem = bySystem.size === 1; + const spec = { + includes: group.includes, + excludes: group.excludes, + activeOnly: !!(this.params.activeOnly || excludeInactive), + searchText: filter.isNull ? null : filter.text, + includeDesignations: !!this.params.includeDesignations, + properties: this.params.properties || [], + offset: singleSystem && this.offset > 0 ? this.offset : null, + count: singleSystem && this.count > 0 ? this.count : null, + }; + + const _t = perfCounters.begin('expandForValueSet'); + let result; + try { + result = await cs.expandForValueSet(spec); + } catch (e) { + perfCounters.end(_t); + throw e; + } + perfCounters.end(_t); + + if (result == null) { + perfCounters.bump('expandForValueSet.fallback'); + continue; + } + + perfCounters.bump('expandForValueSet.handled'); + this.worker.opContext.log('expandForValueSet handled ' + system); + + // Pre-flight: supplements, canonical status, used-codesystem + for (const idx of group.indices) { + this.worker.checkSupplements(cs, includes[idx], this.requiredSupplements, this.usedSupplements); + } + this.checkProviderCanonicalStatus(expansion, cs, this.valueSet); + const sv = this.canonical(await cs.system(), await cs.version()); + this.addParamUri(expansion, 'used-codesystem', sv); + + // Hierarchy is not possible with expandForValueSet + this.canBeHierarchy = false; + this.noTotal(); + + // Iterate results through includeCode + try { + for await (const entry of result) { + this.worker.deadCheck('expandForValueSet#iter'); + const cds = new Designations(this.worker.i18n.languageDefinitions); + if (entry.designations) { + for (const d of entry.designations) { + cds.addDesignation(false, 'active', d.language, d.use, d.value); + } + } + if (entry.display) { + cds.addDesignation(true, 'active', 'en', null, entry.display); + } + await this.includeCode( + cs, null, + entry.system || await cs.system(), + entry.version || await cs.version(), + entry.code, + entry.isAbstract || false, + entry.isInactive || false, + entry.isDeprecated || false, + entry.status || null, + cds, + entry.definition || null, + entry.itemWeight || null, + expansion, null, + entry.extensions || null, null, + entry.properties || null, null, + excludeInactive, + source.url + ); + } + } catch (e) { + if (e.finished) { + // setFinished sentinel — paging limit reached, normal + } else { + throw e; + } + } + + // Only zero the framework offset when we actually passed paging params + // to the provider. Otherwise the framework still needs to apply offset + // during finalization. + if (singleSystem) { + this.offset = 0; + } + + // Mark all includes for this system as handled + for (const idx of group.indices) { + handled.add(idx); + } + } + + return handled; + } + excludeInactives(source) { return source.jsonObj.compose && source.jsonObj.compose.inactive != undefined && !source.jsonObj.compose.inactive; } diff --git a/tx/workers/validate.js b/tx/workers/validate.js index 36ba555..a81652e 100644 --- a/tx/workers/validate.js +++ b/tx/workers/validate.js @@ -768,7 +768,7 @@ class ValueSetChecker { ver.value = cs.version(); contentMode.value = cs.contentMode(); let msg = ''; - excluded = (system === '%%null%%' || cs.system() === system) && await this.checkConceptSet(path, 'not in', cs, cc, code, displays, this.valueSet, msg, inactive, normalForm, vstatus, op, vcc); + excluded = (system === '%%null%%' || cs.system() === system) && await this.checkConceptSet(path, 'not in', cs, cc, code, displays, this.valueSet, msg, inactive, normalForm, vstatus, op, vcc, messages); if (msg) { messages.push(msg); } diff --git a/tx/workers/worker.js b/tx/workers/worker.js index c1c749d..ee34ca3 100644 --- a/tx/workers/worker.js +++ b/tx/workers/worker.js @@ -7,6 +7,7 @@ const {Issue} = require("../library/operation-outcome"); const {Languages} = require("../../library/languages"); const {ConceptMap} = require("../library/conceptmap"); const {Renderer} = require("../library/renderer"); +const perfCounters = require('../perf-counters'); /** * Custom error for terminology setup issues @@ -43,6 +44,7 @@ class TerminologyWorker { this.noCacheThisOne = false; this.params = null; // Will be set by subclasses this.renderer = new Renderer(i18n, languages, provider); + this._providerCache = new Map(); } /** @@ -144,6 +146,17 @@ class TerminologyWorker { if (!noVParams) { version = this.determineVersionBase(url, version, params); } + + // Memoize by resolved url|version|supplements within a single request + const suppKey = statedSupplements ? [...statedSupplements].sort().join(',') : ''; + const kindsKey = Array.isArray(kinds) ? kinds.join(',') : String(kinds); + const cacheKey = `${url}|${version}|${kindsKey}|${suppKey}`; + if (this._providerCache.has(cacheKey)) { + perfCounters.bump('cache.hit'); + return this._providerCache.get(cacheKey); + } + perfCounters.bump('cache.miss'); + let codeSystemResource = null; let provider = null; const supplements = this.loadSupplements(url, version, statedSupplements); @@ -184,6 +197,7 @@ class TerminologyWorker { if (checkVer) { this.checkVersion(url, provider.version(), params, provider.versionAlgorithm(), op); } + this._providerCache.set(cacheKey, provider); } return provider;