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Week 1 Quiz #2

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  1. Damage to the occipital lobe would mostly likely result in which of the following?

    • a. Loss of voluntary movement
    • b. Loss of sensation from the body wall
    • c. Loss of auditory sensation
    • d. Loss of vision
  2. The thalamus is _______ and somewhat _______ to the hypothalamus

    • a. Dorsal
    • b. Ventral
    • c. Rostral
    • d. Caudal
  3. To observe the full length of the corpus callosum in a single image, the best orientation for that image would be which of the following?

    • a. Coronal
    • b. Horizontal/Axial
    • c. Sagittal
  4. Failure of anterior neuropore closure results in which malformation?

    • A. absence of the forebrain
    • B. meningomyelocele
    • C. absence of the spinal cord
    • D. hydrocephalus
    • E. Spina bifida occulta
  5. Which of the following occurs during the 4th week of gestation?

    • A. formation of the fourth ventricle
    • B. formation of the corpus callosum
    • C. formation of the three primary brain vesicles
    • D. formation of the three germ layers
    • E. formation of the five secondary brain vesicles
  6. Which of the following regions contain afferent neuron precursors of the spinal cord?

    • A. neural plate
    • B. alar plate
    • C. basal plate
    • D. roof plate
    • E. floor plate
  7. The myelencephalon gives rise to which adult structure?

    • A. cerebral cortex
    • B. midbrain
    • C. medulla
    • D. cerebellum
    • E. diencephalon
  8. Myelination begins approximately during which period of gestation?

    • A. fourth week
    • B. sixth week
    • C. third month
    • D. sixth month
    • E. fourth month
  9. Which cell type forms myelin sheaths around nerves found in the limbs?

    • A. Oligodendrocyte
    • B. Schwann cell
    • C. Ependymal cell
    • D. Satellite cell
    • E. Astrocyte
  10. What type of neuron is located in the dorsal root ganglion and provides communication between the skin
    and the spinal cord?

    • A. multipolar
    • B. bipolar
    • C. pseudounipolar
    • D. unipolar
  11. Which of the following is the major fast excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter in the brain?

    • A. Glutamate
    • B. GABA
    • C. Dopamine
    • D. Substance P
    • E. Acetylcholine
  12. A 68-year-old patient presents with progressive memory decline. If you treated this patient with
    medication, the drug would most likely act on which of the following neurotransmitters?

    • A. Cholinergic
    • B. Dopaminergic
    • C. Serotonergic
    • D. Histaminergic
  13. A 70-year-old patient reports that their previous symptoms of muscle rigidity and tremor have
    significantly improved after you started this patient on pramipexole, a dopamine agonist. Which diagnosis
    does this patient likely have?

    • A. Alzheimer’s disease
    • B. Schizophrenia
    • C. Parkinson’s disease
    • D. Depression
  14. What disorder is often improved by drugs that block serotonin re-uptake?

    • A. Addiction
    • B. Hallucinations
    • C. Depression
    • D. Tremor
    • E. Limited speech
  15. Neural activity within which brainstem region or nucleus is increased when a gambler pulls the lever on a
    slot machine?

    • A. locus ceruleus
    • B. raphe nucleus
    • C. caudate nucleus
    • D. nucleus accumbens
    • E. substantia nigra
  16. Cerebrospinal fluid is resorbed into the venous system through:

    • a. Arachnoid granulations
    • b. Pia mater
    • c. Dura mater
    • d. Choroid plexus
    • e. Blood-CSF barrier
  17. The plane of structural weakness in the dura mater is:

    • a. The subdural space
    • b. The dural border cell layer
    • c. Calvarial portion
    • d. Cuboidal epithelium
  18. Occlusion of the posterior spinal artery will cause:

    • a. Bilateral lower extremity weakness without sensory loss
    • b. Bilateral upper extremity weakness without sensory loss
    • c. Sensory loss with variable weakness
    • d. Upper extremity sensory loss and lower extremity weakness
  19. The spinal cord region with the highest amount of white matter is:

    • A. Sacral region
    • B. Lumbar region
    • C. Thoracic region
    • D. Cervical region
  20. The space where CSF is found bathing the spinal cord is:

    • A. External to the arachnoid mater and internal to the dura mater
    • B. External to the dura mater
    • C. External to the pia mater and internal to the arachnoid mater
    • D. Deep to the pia mater
  21. An infarct of the Anterior Spinal Artery can lead to which of the following deficits:

    • A. Loss of pain and temperature sensation
    • B. Loss of proprioception
    • C. Loss of vibration sensation
    • D. Loss of speech
  22. When performing a physical exam, you notice a loss of sensation in your patient’s thumb
    and their lateral aspect of the forearm on the ipsilateral forearm. Which
    dermatome/spinal nerve do you think is mostly involved in this deficit?

    • A. T1 dermatome
    • B. C5 dermatome
    • C. T4 dermatome
    • D. C6 dermatome
  23. The DC-ML pathway

    • A. Has first-order neuronal cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
    • B. Can demyelinate and cause involuntary limb movements
    • C. carries lower limb information within the fasciculus cuneatus
    • D. has second-order neurons that decussate and travel to the thalamus as
      the medial lemniscus on the contralateral side
  24. A myelinated mechanical nociceptor (Aδ fibers) would MOST likely respond to
    stimuli generated by

    • A. vibrating tuning fork
    • B. cold water
    • C. pinching finger in door
    • D. holding a book
  25. The spinothalamic tract

    • A. carries information from the CNS to the periphery
    • B. is found within the lateral funiculi
    • C. carries nociceptive information only
    • D. decussates within the cerebrum
  26. In a patient with Posterior Cord Syndrome, you would MOST likely expect loss
    of

    • A. all sensory function below the lesion
    • B. vibration and position sense below the lesion
    • C. motor function only below the lesion
    • D. pain and temperature sense and motor function below the lesion
  27. Which of the following is monosynaptic?

    • A. crossed extensor reflex
    • B. flexor reflex
    • C. inverse myotatic reflex
    • D. stretch reflex involving the agonist muscle
    • E. stretch reflex involving inhibition of the antagonist muscle
  28. Which of the following statements about gamma motoneurons is TRUE?

    • A. They innervate extrafusal muscle fibers
    • B. They control sensitivity of Golgi tendon organs to muscle stretch
    • C. They are controlled by descending inputs
    • D. They produce a “pause” in spindle Ia afferent firing during
      muscle contraction
    • E. They are larger than alpha motoneurons
  29. Activation of gamma motor neurons during muscle contraction

    • A. inhibits the discharge of alpha motor neurons
    • B. causes muscle spindle afferents to fire while the muscle shortens
    • C. has no effect on muscle spindle afferents
    • D. decreases the activity of spindle afferents
    • E. increases the amplitude of alpha motor neuron action potentials
  30. In the clinic, tapping the patellar tendon of a patient causes

    • A. relaxation of the quadriceps muscle
    • B. contraction of the semitendinosus muscle
    • C. contraction of both the quadriceps and semitendinosus muscles
    • D. contraction of the quadriceps muscle
    • E. relaxation of both the quadriceps and semitendinosus muscles
  31. A 21-year-old male has been brought to the emergency room after
    being hit by a car on his motor scooter. He is conscious but cannot
    move his legs. You test his deep tendon reflexes. What is the MOST
    likely finding?

    • A. he exhibits exaggerated knee extension to patellar tendon tap
    • B. he exhibits little or no knee extension to patellar tendon tap
    • C. his ankles exhibit clonus
    • D. his legs are in a state of tonic extension
    • E. his patellar reflexes in both legs are normal
  32. Which of the following structures plays a major role in integrating and controlling CNS autonomic
    commands?

    • a. Cerebellum
    • b. Occipital Lobe
    • c. Optic Nerve
    • d. Hypothalamus
  33. A patient is seen following a sports injury that resulted in damage to the right carotid artery. Upon
    examination, the patient’s right eyelid is drooped, and the right side of their face is dry, despite the left side
    sweating. Which of the following additional signs would you most likely expect to see?

    • a. Both pupils dilated
    • b. The right pupil dilated, the left normal
    • c. The right pupil constricted, the left normal
    • d. The right pupil normal, the left dilated
    • e. The right pupil normal, the left constricted
  34. A patient reports feeling dizzy, lightheaded, and weak when they stand upright after eating thanksgiving
    dinner in their recliner. Insufficiency of which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient’s
    symptoms?

    • a. Somatic sensory system
    • b. Somatic motor system
    • c. Sympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous System
    • d. Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous System
  35. The reflexive relaxation of the external urethral sphincter and contraction of the detrusor is
    processed where?

    • a. Sacral spinal cord
    • b. Lateral horn between T1-L2
    • c. Micturition control centers in the brain
    • d. In the kidneys
  36. In a healthy adult, the role of the somatic motor system in micturition is to do which of the
    following?

    • a. Inhibit filling of the bladder
    • b. Increase the rate of bladder filling
    • c. Control the relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter
    • d. Control the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter

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